Hostage Plan Flashcards
In a confirmed hostage situation, the _______________ will be immediately notified by Communications.
SWAT commander or designee
In a confirmed hostage situation, once the ____________ and team arrive at the scene, the ____________________________ will assume command of all tactical operations, inner perimeter control, and will coordinate all contact with the hostage taker through the Crisis Negotiation Team (CNT)
SWAT commander/SWAT commander (captain) or the SWAT tactical commander (SWAT lieutenant)
During a confirmed hostage situation, the _____________ will also retain command of the incident command post (ICP), staging area, secondary perimeter, and other police operations. The mere presence of senior officers will not imply the assumption of command.
Patrol supervisor
During a confirmed hostage situation, once the SWAT team deploys and takes command of the inner perimeter, or if the hostage taker becomes mobile, the deployment of tactical assets, apprehension of the hostage taker, and rescue of the hostages is maintained by the ______________ until the situation is resolved.
SWAT commander
During a confirmed hostage situation, Patrol officer will:
- Arrive at the incident scene and take steps to slow the
momentum, de-escalate, and protect human life. Attempt to avoid
confrontation in favor of controlling and containing the situation. - Seal off the area as soon as possible. Isolate the critical zone to the
smallest possible area by creating an inner perimeter. - Advise Dispatch of critical information.
During a confirmed hostage situation, Patrol supervisor will:
- Upon arrival, assess the situation and take command by
prioritizing and communicating objectives. - Reinforce the inner perimeter and establish a secondary
perimeter based on the nature of the incident. - Direct units to stop any inbound foot or vehicle traffic.
- Assign officers as an immediate-action team (designating roles
such as verbal communication, low lethality options, hands on,
etc.) to control the subject should the subject surrender, release
the hostage or exit the structure. - Evacuate or shelter-in-place bystanders and injured persons from
the vicinity around the suspect’s location - Designate an officer with strong verbal skills to make contact with
the hostage taker to determine their intent and solicit information
on the well-being of hostages. If contact is made with the subject,
ensure officers remain in a tactically sound position, using
effective cover and concealment. Efforts should be made to
persuade the suspect to voluntarily surrender.
a. Prior to the arrival of SWAT/CNT, there will be no
negotiations for the supply of weapons, ammunition, drugs,
alcohol, or exchange of hostages. - Request a dedicated radio channel with a dispatcher, if required.
- Communicate with and direct subsequent arriving supervisors to
perform other tasks that require handling.
a. Any subsequent arriving supervisor will assess and
determine where they are needed and establish
communication with the first arriving supervisor to provide
support. All supervisors on-scene have a responsibility in the
command and control process. - Designate an officer to record names and addresses of persons
and residences evacuated
DEFINITION: Done to protect first responders from any possible devices that may be placed to injure, maim, and kill them upon arrival. These searches should be conducted from low-to-high in a 360-degree manner around the “safe area.” When responding to a bomb threat, unattended item, or suspicious item, officers should conduct 25- and 100-foot searches.
1. Upon arrival officers should do a visual search of 25 feet around
their initial arrival location;
2. After the initial 25-foot search, a 100-foot search should be
conducted;
3. If a new location is established for a command post, the 25- and
100-footsearches will be conducted again. The use of an EDD
should be utilized if available.
25-foot and 100-foot searches
If LVMPD receives initial information of a bomb threat/extortion, the __________________ will be notified by detectives as soon as possible.
Target individual or establishment
All decisions regarding compliance with extortion demands will be made by the ______________________.
Representative of the establishment
If a bomb threat is received a patrol supervisor will _______________.
Respond to the scene as necessary
If a bomb threat against a vehicle is received a patrol officer will:
- Conduct a threat assessment prior to making any approach to the
vehicle. - Attempt to determine the existence of a device through a prompt
preliminary investigation prior to requesting ARMOR. - Conduct a visual inspection of the inside and underside of the
vehicle without opening doors, trunk, or hood. A booby-trapped
vehicle could mean serious injury or death to the officer and
bystanders. - Request ARMOR supervisor through Communications supervisor if
anything suspicious is located.
In the event a bomb threat is called in against LVMPD headquarters (HQ), radio silence will be maintained. HQ operations will not be disrupted, and personnel will not be evacuated without justification as determined by __________________.
Officers on scene
Bomb threat assessment:
- When did the item show up?
- How long has it been there? (Surveillance video? Witnesses?)
- Did anyone see the person who left the item?
- Where is it placed? (In front of any Strip hotel or in an abandoned
dirt lot? Entryway or exits? Crowded waiting area?) - How is it placed? (Does it look like it was deliberately hidden in a
populated area?) - Have there been any recent threats?
- What does the item look like? (Wires, switches, modifications,
sounds, exceedingly heavy looking, any other suspicious
indicators?) - If you feel the item is clear based on the totality of the
circumstances? Did an explosive detection dog (EDD) alert on the
item? - People and property are the most valued targets by terrorists
- Is the item suspicious, abandoned, or temporarily unattended?
During a bomb threat what is the 5-Line Report?
- Specific location of the suspect item: This will help determine the
command post (CP), route to staging, and assist in establishing a
good perimeter. - Unit number/cell number of officer or patrol supervisor on scene:
the ARMOR commander will need to contact the officer on scene
to gather intelligence prior to dispatching resources. - Detailed description of item, photo (if available), and placement
method: size, shape, container, was it thrown, placed, projected,
etc. - Description of what resources, person(s) or critical infrastructure is
threatened: Utility facility (water, power, gas, etc.), crowds, etc. - Protective measures taken: Perimeter, CP location, staging area, all
actions taken.
During a bomb threat a patrol officer will:
- Respond to the scene and conduct preliminary investigation.
- Perform an initial 25-foot search around the arrival area, then a
100-foot search around the arrival area, to include the CP and
staging area. - Establish a perimeter utilizing the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-Off Card
(distances should be based on the recommendations of the
Threat Description section on the card). - Search the area around the CP for secondary devices.
- Gather and control witnesses as well as start voluntary
statements.
When the incident commander (IC) or on-scene supervisor determines a suspicious object is a suspected explosive device, __________ will be called to coordinate the appropriate resources (e.g., Las Vegas Fire and Rescue Bomb Squad, Nellis AFB Explosive Ordnance Disposal Team, etc.) and said resources will “render
safe” the item and make the situation harmless
ARMOR
During a bomb threat a supervisor will:
- Respond to and assume command of the scene. The field
supervisor or senior officer in charge will remain at the scene to
brief the ARMOR supervisor of all relevant matters. Establish
Incident Command System (ICS) in accordance with LVMPD 3.500,
Major Incident and All Hazard Plan and completes ICS-AAR as
required. - Contact the ARMOR supervisor through Communications
supervisor. - When requesting ARMOR, advise a responsible person from the
establishment of the potential for explosion and initiate an
evacuation of the premises. At least two floors above and below
the device should be evacuated in a high-rise building.
a. Failure to respond to an evacuation order is a violation of
NRS 475.070.
b. If a person is not readily available or able to easily be
evacuated and is not in harm’s way based on the
information of the threat and is outside the mandatory
evacuation zone listed on the FBI Bomb Threat Stand-Off
Card, the person may shelter in place. However, if they are
in the mandatory evacuation zone, they must be evacuated
to safety. - Assign an additional officer to the primary location (see Command
and Control section) to assist in communications. - Remain at scene with the additional officer to assist ARMOR and
prevent unauthorized access to the location of the device.
______ command and control locations will be established when a device or suspected device is located.
Two
Two command and control locations will be established when a device or suspected device is located. They are:
- The Tactical Operations Center will be in the vicinity of the device
determined suitable by ARMOR supervisor. Command of the
primary location and all personnel assigned to it will rest solely
with the ranking ARMOR member. The overall incident command
will remain with the patrol IC. - The field command post (CP) will be operated and staffed, and a
staging area established as for any unusual occurrence, by LVMPD
personnel, who will oversee all field operations in connection with
the explosive. Investigative personnel will report to the field CP or
staging area as directed, when arriving at the scene.
Officers on the perimeter of the crime scene will conduct ________________ searches around the exterior. Investigative personnel will assist in the search for any secondary devices with the EDD, ensuring that the interior of the scene is safe from any explosive hazards.
25-foot and 100-foot
At the post blast scene of a bomb detonation a patrol officer will:
- Respond to the scene and provide any emergency assistance as
required. - Conduct preliminary investigation.
- Establish, at a minimum, 300-foot perimeter from any item that
they can visually identify as evidence. - Conduct 25-foot and 100-foot searches around the perimeter for
secondary devices. - Search CP for secondary devices.
- Gather and control witnesses and complete voluntary statements.
- Complete ICR.
At the post blast scene of a bomb detonation a patrol supervisor will:
- Contact the ARMOR supervisor through Communications
supervisor. - Coordinate with ARMOR for instructions regarding adjustment of
the perimeter and other scene control concerns. - Determine the appropriate support personnel needed for security
of the scene. - Maintain the perimeter until released by the ranking member of
ARMOR, or the investigator functioning as liaison for ARMOR. - Determine the need for an EDD to search for a second device (this
request can come from ARMOR).
During a bomb investigation, for investigations involving deaths, the Homicide Section will:
- Assume command of the death investigation. ARMOR will
maintain control of the post-blast investigation. - Coordinate with the ranking ARMOR member regarding the crime
scene investigation. ARMOR will conduct any post-blast
investigation under the direction of the ranking detective.
CBRNE
Chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, explosive
DEFINTION: The systematic removal of person(s) from hazardous situation or environment (inside the designated contaminated area). Rescues in the contaminated area will only be conducted by properly equipped personnel.
Rescue
The ______ is designated as the lead agency for all WMD/CBRNE incidents (Presidential Decision Directive 39 - PDD39).
FBI
The FBI is designated as the lead agency for all WMD/CBRNE incidents per what Presidential Directive?
Presidential Decision Directive 39 - PDD39
CBRNE: LVMPD personnel will assist in securing the scene and preserving evidence and will not enter a contaminated area unless ___________________.
Properly equipped
Officers should approach any scene of an explosion as a possible _____________. They should be cautious until the cause of the explosion has been confirmed and be alert for the presence of secondary devices.
Criminal act
Officers should approach any scene of an explosion as a possible criminal act. They should be cautious until the cause of the explosion has been confirmed and be alert for the presence of __________________.
Secondary devices
If an incident results in multiple casualties (in excess of ____), the Clark County Mass Casualty Plan will be implemented.
20
Incidents involving hazardous materials or WMD can have rapid and far-reaching effects. Necessary measures should be taken to:
- Secure the area from the public.
- Attempt to make a preliminary identification of the hazardous
substance(s), if possible. This should be done from a safe distance
without placing the member in any danger. - Assist the fire department in removing injured persons from the
area by ensuring ingress and egress routes are available for the
necessary responding emergency vehicles. Members should not
expose themselves to a known contaminated area without the
proper protective equipment. - Isolate those who may have had contact with hazardous materials,
for further examination. - Keep personnel out of smoke, dust, or fumes.
- Detour vehicular traffic around the scene to prevent contact and
dispersion of hazardous contaminants. - Prohibit eating, drinking, or smoking in the area. Food or drink
that may have been in contact with the material involved will not
be consumed. - Limit activities at the scene to those who are competent in the
field.
The ___________ and other CAHRT members will become the lead investigations when the incident is intentional or may possibly be intentional.
ARMOR section
CBRNE: First LVMPD member on scene will:
- Stay upwind from the scene and will not expose themself to a
designated contaminated area without the proper protective
equipment. - Use the best information available from the appropriate fire
department or Department of Transportation’s Emergency
Response Guidebook (ERG) to set up a security perimeter and
establish the designated contaminated area(s). - Evaluate the situation and inform the Communications Bureau of
the details, including:
a. Location
b. Type of hazardous material (if determined)
c. Carrier, make and type
d. Injuries
e. Need for additional assistance
f. Wind direction.
CBRNE: First supervisor on the scene will:
- Establish a command post (at a safe distance upwind from the
scene). - Assign second or third unit arriving at the command post to check
the immediate area for possible secondary devices. The officer(s)
conducting the check should not touch suspicious objects. The
locations that have been thoroughly checked should be marked
so the explosive-detector dogs or bomb squad can eliminate
those not marked as threats. - Review established security perimeter and ensure no personnel
are deployed in a designated contaminated area without proper
protective equipment. - Determine the need for an outer perimeter depending on the
circumstances of the incident. - Coordinate the evacuation of the area downwind of the spillage or
suspected spillage, with the ARMOR Section or fire department, in
accordance with the Table of Isolation and Evacuation Distances
found in the ERG. Department members will not conduct rescues
without utilizing the proper protective equipment and being
trained in its use. - Request Communications to make notifications.
CBRNE: ARMOR Section will:
- Establish unified tactical operations with all agencies represented.
- Advise patrol supervisors of the perimeter size based on the
threat. - Request other agencies (i.e., FBI, ATF, Civil Support Team [CST], Las
Vegas Fire and Rescue arson/bomb squad) as needed based on
totality of the circumstances. - Assess, monitor, sample/test, identify, mitigate, and investigate all
CBRNE threats alone or with other supporting agencies. - Coordinate mass casualty decontamination of officers, civilian
personnel and citizens. - Coordinate hazardous materials cleanup if required
CBRNE: Area command personnel will:
- Secure perimeter as directed for crowd control.
- Assist emergency personnel as directed by the command post.
- Deliver Personal Protective Equipment Readiness Kit (PRK) to the
incident command post. - Limit access inside the perimeter to those authorized by the
command post. - Attempt to identify and interview possible witnesses. (On several
WMD incidents, the suspect has stayed in the area as an observer
after the attack.
Protests DEFINITION: A safety zone maintained by officers which creates distance and space between opposing groups.
Buffer zone
Protests DEFINITION: A lawful public expression of objection,
disapproval, or dissent toward an idea or action.
Peaceful Demonstration
Protests DEFINITION: Nonviolent protest where there is an intentional breach of the law.
Civil Disobedience
Protests DEFINITION: An assembly that constitutes a clear and present danger of violent or unlawful acts, including, civil unrest, destruction of property, arson, looting, or when another immediate threat to public safety, peace, or order appears.
Riot
The department’s response to protests (peaceful demonstration, civil disobedience, or riot) will emphasize the concept of ________________ (see LVMPD 3.110, Use of Force) where the department’s intent is to slow down and stabilize any conflict as safely as possible by reducing danger through the use of verbal persuasion, tactics, and resources.
De-escalation
Ideally, police action in peaceful demonstrations will be minimal, and the department’s primary role will be to assist in the ____________________.
Safe movement of the crowd
When it is necessary to implement crowd management measures or take enforcement action, it should be an organized and well-communicated effort involving _______________ and ________________.
Multiple officers/Supervisory oversight
The department utilizes the _____________________ as a standard tool for command, control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, planned events, or
emergencies (for further guidelines and tasks). ________ will be implemented in LVMPD’s response to protests.
Incident Command Structure (ICS)/ICS
________________________ are responsible for attempting communication with protest organizers or leaders.
Department supervisors
____________________ will attempt to communicate with professional members of the media and legal observers (or their liaison).
Department supervisors
In labor disputes, officers __________ enter the property where a protest is occurring, except for official business.
Should not
During a protest, officers will refrain from personal cell phone usage and will neither take photographs of the protest nor pose with protesters
True
When responding to an unplanned or spontaneous protest or large public gathering, first-responding officer will conduct an assessment of conditions, including:
- Location
- Number of participants
- Apparent purpose of the event
- Identity of event organizers
- Any initial indicators of unlawful or disruptive activity
- Presence of counter-protesters
Protests: When an event requires continuous oversight or monitoring by a supervisor, the supervisor will assign themselves as the ___________________.
Incident Commander (IC)
Upon responding to a protest, the supervisor or IC will evaluate
the current and evolving conditions. In addition to the conditions noted by the first-responding officer(s), the supervisor or IC will assess:
- Any evolving threat to public safety
- Protection and preservation of citizens’ civil rights
- Unlawful actions or violations of laws or ordinances, if any, of
protesters - Movement of vehicular traffic and pedestrian safety concerns
- Impact of protest on business and commerce
- Level of communication and cooperation with event organizers,
legal observers, and professional members of the media - Anticipated duration of the event
- Positioning of officers and crowd management tactics, including
the need to designate units for overwatch - Need for the authorization of police protective gear
- Need for additional units or resources (e.g., in-the-box squads,
Traffic, Emergency Management, SWAT) - Need for a scribe to record operational decisions and actions
(including logging use of force by officers) - Need to video record protest activities (either by BWCs or
handheld recorder) - Necessity for medical assistance to be staged nearby
- Environmental factors (e.g., weather and street conditions)
Protests: At minimum, the _______________ will be made aware of the protest that requires continuous oversight.
Area command captain
Protests: Dispatch will make appropriate notifications and requests for additional resources relayed by the ______.
IC
Protests: As circumstances warrant, the ________ will provide periodic updates through the chain of command, relaying information to senior command staff regarding the event.
IC
Protests: s. The IC and supervisors are responsible to ensure that all orders given to a crowd are ____________, __________, and __________ for the circumstances
Consistent/Lawful/Appropriate
Protests: When confronting a dangerous crowd or a situation where public safety has been compromised, the department will declare it an unlawful assembly and attempt to provide orders to disperse at least __________, giving demonstrators ample time to leave the area.
Three times
Protests: If there is an immediate threat of physical harm or death to a person, then _____________ must be provided.
No order to disperse
Protests: If there is an immediate threat of harm to property,
then _______________ must be provided.
Only one order to disperse
Protests: The determination to give the order to disperse is the
responsibility of the _____ upon consultation with the on-scene lieutenant.
IC
Protests: The ______________ will be logged by the IC and the Communications Bureau channel dispatcher.
Order to disperse
Protests: The IC should attempt to document and record the ______________ on BWC to include the time, location, and officer issuing the order.
Dispersal order announcement
Protests: Once an order to disperse is announced, _______________ or ______________ must witness the event from a distance outside the area of the dispersal order that does not interfere with police operations.
Professional members of the media/Legal observers
Protests: Persons with a prohibited weapon or in possession of items prohibited at a protest (e.g., improvised weapon, filled balloon, stick, baseball bat, PVC pipe, brick, glass bottle, shield,
etc.) will be either advised, cited, or arrested. When enforcement action is warranted in protests, _____________ are preferred over mass arrests.
Selective arrests
Protests: Persons with a prohibited weapon or in possession of items prohibited at a protest (e.g., improvised weapon, filled balloon, stick, baseball bat, PVC pipe, brick, glass bottle, shield,
etc.) will be either advised, cited, or arrested. When enforcement action is warranted in protests, selective arrests are preferred over _____________.
Mass arrests
Protests: In making an arrest, supervisors will:
- Consider timing, location, and method of the arrest and resources
available. - If circumstances allow, assemble an arrest team, comprised of a
minimum of a supervisor and multiple officers. Individual officers
are not precluded from making arrests when there is a clear
violation of law and the arrest will defuse the situation. - Not interfere or arrest professional members of the media or legal
observers performing their respective functions (observing,
capturing, and/or reporting on protests or events) so long as they
are performed in a safe and legal manner. If a professional
member of the media or legal observer is arrested, the IC will be
advised as soon as possible.
Protests: If a professional member of the media or legal observer
is arrested, the ____ will be advised as soon as possible.
IC
Protests: For ______________ (or other unusual reporting circumstances), the arresting officer will generate a separate event number from the protest to ensure that BWC and other reports are easily connected to that specific arrest.
Felony arrests
During an arrest at a protest, The IC will:
- Coordinate and direct the process for the booking of an arrestee
and their prisoner transport with DSD personnel to ensure it is
completed in an efficient and timely manner. - Assign additional officers to assist in the booking process if
needed and verify all required documentation for arrests has
been completed and collected. - Request prisoner transport vehicles to assist if mass arrests occur.
Protests: Uses of force occurring during enforcement actions will be documented and the _____ will be notified as soon as practical.
IC
Protests: Deployment of aerosol irritants will only be used at the direction of the _____, and only after clear warning has been given and when avenues of egress are available to the crowd.
IC
Protests: In situations where _____________ have been used to disperse the crowd, any subsequent use of force or an application of a force tool must be used in compliance with LVMPD 3.110,
Use of Force and will be articulated separately from the dispersal.
Aerosol irritants
Protests: When subjects refuse to release themselves from these protester devices, each individual protester will be advised they are under arrest and given ________________________ before force is used to remove the devices.
An additional chance to comply
Protests: For field force extrications, it is the responsibility of the IC to request ________ to respond. The _____________ will give tactical options for extrication of locked protester(s) to resolve the incident.
HSST/HSST supervisor
Protests: A ______________ and the ________________ will be dispatched to the scene after officers confirm locked protesters are present.
Patrol supervisor/Area lieutenant (or watch commander in their absence)
Protests: When a call is generated reference protesters locked together a patrol officer will:
- Confirm protesters are locked in devices.
- Make contact with the locked protesters, gather information
(protester’s cause, organizer/spokesperson) and relay to Dispatch. - Contact Special Investigations Section (SIS) if the protest is
determined to be related to an organized labor union. - Assess unlawful acts and evaluate police response.
a. Determine laws or criminal offenses that are being violated
(e.g., person in a roadway or trespassing).
Protests: When a call is generated reference protesters locked together the IC will:
- Establish ICS.
- Arrive at scene, determine if a criminal offense has occurred, and
assess the need to have protesters immediately removed from
the area.
a. Request the locked protesters to release themselves and
disperse. If they refuse, issue the dispersal order.
b. If protesters still refuse to release and disperse, request the
HSST through Dispatch. - Direct officers to create and maintain a buffer zone, ensuring
inbound foot and vehicle traffic is diverted. - Designate an arrest team to take custodial arrest and complete
booking of protesters once released from their devices by HSST
(consider notification to DSD if multiple arrests)
Each sergeant will conduct an initial check ride and document the outcome in UMLV for _______________ who will be operating department vehicles (exception: new FTEP graduates within the first week of assignment).
Newly assigned officers
All employees will attend EVOC under the following circumstances:
- Vehicle Collision Board (VCB) referral
- Supervisory intervention
- Self-registration
- Approved squad/specialty training
Department members who fail to participate or certify in ______________ will be assigned duties that do not require the operation of a department vehicle until they are properly certified.
Mandatory EVOC
EVOC will immediately notify a member’s _____________, in writing, if they fail to attend a scheduled recertification course without providing proper notification.
Chain of command
Upon notification, the _____________________ will direct the member to immediately reschedule EVOC then verify that driving privileges are suspended until the member has successfully completed EVOC.
Bureau/area commander
Members on light-duty status or who have an active worker’s compensation case and are not allowed to attend EVOC per their physician, are exempt from the qualifying requirements until ______________________. Once released, members will be required to recertify prior to operating a department vehicle
Released back to full duty
Driving/Vehicle Procedures DEFINITION: An occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of $750 or more.
Collision
Driving/Vehicle Procedures DEFINITION: A separate category from a collision, is an occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building not resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of less than $750
Incident
Driving/Vehicle Procedures DEFINITION: A finding that a collision a department member was involved in was performed in accordance with department policies, procedures, training standards, and traffic laws.
Non-preventable
Driving/Vehicle Procedures DEFINITION: A finding that a collision a department member was involved in violated department policies, procedures, training standards, or traffic laws.
Preventable
Driving/Vehicle Procedures DEFINITION: Any collision, regardless of injury sustained or damage totals, occurring during training/in the training environment on a closed course.
Training collision/incident
Driving/Vehicle Procedures DEFINITION: The internal mechanical parts of a vehicle required for operation (i.e., engine and attached parts, engine compartment, underside of the vehicle, drive train, transmission, steering assembly, etc.) and all underside mechanical parts to include the tires and rims. (Bumpers, doors, door rails and posts, quarter panels, top or windows, and any outside/exterior body part of the vehicle is not considered part of the undercarriage.)
Undercarriage
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Once the vehicle collision investigation is complete, all members with BWC video will manually label and categorize the video as _____________. This category designation will retain the video footage for five years.
“Pending Review”
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Once the vehicle collision investigation is complete, all members with BWC video will manually label and categorize the video as “Pending Review.” This category designation will retain the video footage for ___________.
Five years
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Prior to the end of shift, report the details of the collision via the Collision Report in __________.
Blue Team
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: If an officer is involved in a vehicle collision the supervisor will:
a. If a commissioned supervisor, respond and conduct preliminary
investigation.
1) If the collision involves any other citizen vehicle, non-
motorist, significant property damage, PIT, blocking, VCT, or
ramming, request a Traffic Bureau unit to respond.
2) If the collision only rises to the level of an incident and no
other citizen vehicle or non-motorist was involved (i.e.,
LVMPD property vs. LVMPD property, single vehicle damage
on- or off-road [i.e., rim damage, oil pan, etc.]; or single
vehicle vs. private property [i.e., rock, pole, structure, etc.,
with minor or no apparent damage]), complete and submit
an LVMPD 393 to the involved member’s bureau/area
commander.
b. Ensure that a Check Ride Report (LVMPD 461) is completed on the
involved member and forward a copy to the VCB and Advanced
Officer Skills Training (AOST) for entry in the member’s UMLV
training record. Motor officers assigned to the Traffic Bureau will
be required to complete a check ride with a certified motor
instructor. Completion of this check ride will be documented in
UMLV, and a copy forwarded to the VCB.
c. Ensure the involved member completes a Collision Report in Blue
Team or memo as required.
d. Direct the involved member to contact the Litigation Section with
any inquiries.
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: If the collision only rises to the level of an incident and no other citizen vehicle or non-motorist was involved (i.e., LVMPD property vs. LVMPD property, single vehicle damage on- or off-road [i.e., rim damage, oil pan, etc.]; or single vehicle vs. private property [i.e., rock, pole, structure, etc., with minor or no apparent damage]), complete and submit an
______________ to the involved member’s bureau/area commander.
LVMPD 393
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: After an employee is involved in a vehicle collision ensure that a _____________ is completed on the involved member and forward a copy to the VCB and Advanced Officer Skills Training (AOST) for entry in the member’s UMLV training record. Motor officers assigned to the Traffic Bureau will be required to complete a check ride with a certified motor instructor. Completion of this check ride will be documented in UMLV, and a copy forwarded to the VCB.
Check Ride Report (LVMPD 461)
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Officer is involved in a vehicle collision. Members without computer network access will submit an __________________ through their chain of command to the bureau/area commander, EVOC staff, and the Fleet Operations Section.
Interdepartmental memo
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Investigations of Department Vehicle Incidents: Commissioned supervisor will:
a. Respond and conduct preliminary investigation.
1) Determine that the incident is consistent with the definition of
an incident and not a collision.
2) If determined to be an incident and no other citizen vehicle or
non-motorist was involved (i.e., LVMPD property vs. LVMPD
property, single vehicle damage on or off road [i.e., rim
damage, oil pan, etc.]; or single vehicle vs. private property [i.e.,
rock, pole, structure, etc. with minor or no apparent damage]),
complete and submit the LVMPD 393 to the involved member’s
bureau/area commander.
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: _________________ collision reports are completed for non-injury, moderate to major damage
collisions that do not involve motorists, unsolved hit and runs, commercial vehicles, school buses, and trailers.
Property damage only (PDO)
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: An officer is involved in a vehicle collision. As part of the discipline process, the board will take the following action:
a. The first preventable collision will result in a Contact Report or
discipline up to and including termination, and a minimum of
eight hours of remedial driver’s training at the VCB’s discretion.
b. A second preventable collision finding where a member previously
received a Contact Report no more than 12 months prior, may
result in a written reprimand or other discipline up to and
including termination, and a minimum of eight hours of remedial
driver’s training at the VCB’s discretion.
c. A third preventable collision finding where a member previously
received two Contact Reports, or received a written reprimand,
may result in a written reprimand or other progressive discipline
up to and including termination, and a minimum of eight hours of
remedial driver’s training at the VCB’s discretion.
d. A fourth, and any subsequent preventable collision finding will
result in a major suspension or other discipline up to and
including termination and a minimum of eight hours of remedial
driver’s training at the VCB’s discretion.
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: . Officers will replenish depleted or
damaged items by contacting the service aide or supervisor at the area command. If necessary, an explanation should be made in the space for comments. The LVMPD 47 and 47a will be turned in for supervisory review before _______________.
The end of shift
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Patrol supervisors will conduct periodic spot inspections of vehicles assigned to their personnel at least ____________. Any deficiencies noted and/or corrective actions taken will be recorded in a Contact Report. This will ensure the serviceability of vehicles and equipment, and accountability of assigned items.
Monthly
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Law enforcement escorts. All non-emergency escorts must be approved by an _______________.
Assistant Sheriff
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: A routine, non-emergency escort will be utilized for funeral processions of police, fire, and military personnel killed in the line of duty (active), visits from the president and/or vice
president of the United States, and other limited circumstances as approved by a _________________.
Division commander
Missing Persons: In compliance with the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990 (as amended), LVMPD will not require_________________ to make a missing person’s report.
Any waiting period
Missing Persons: In accordance with the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990 (as amended) and the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law, entry into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) will be made under the following circumstances:
- All juveniles, 17 years old and younger, will be entered into NCIC
immediately upon receiving the required minimum data
elements, not to exceed two hours. - Missing persons 18 through 20 years old (even though legally
considered adults) will also be entered into NCIC in accordance
with the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law immediately upon
receiving the required minimum data elements, not to exceed two
hours. - Adults may go missing for a variety of reasons. However, adults
can only be entered into NCIC if they have a disability, are in
physical danger, are a victim of a catastrophe or suspicious or
involuntary circumstances (i.e., endangered). Regardless of NCIC
entry, all missing persons will be entered into SCOPE.
Missing Persons: All juveniles, 17 years old and younger, will be entered into NCIC immediately upon receiving the required minimum data elements, not to exceed ___________.
Two hours
Missing Persons: Missing persons ______________ years old (even though legally considered adults) will also be entered into NCIC in accordance with the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law immediately upon receiving the required minimum data elements, not to exceed two hours.
18 through 20
Missing Persons: Adults may go missing for a variety of reasons. However, adults can only be entered into NCIC if they have a ___________, are in __________, are ______________________. Regardless of NCIC entry, all missing persons will be entered into SCOPE.
Disability, Physical danger, A victim of a catastrophe or suspicious or involuntary circumstances (i.e., endangered)
Missing Persons: Entry into NCIC must be listed in one of the following categories as specified in the NCIC operating manual:
Disability (EMD)
Endangered (EME)
Involuntary (EMI)
Juvenile (EMJ)
Catastrophe Victim (EMV)
Other (EMO)
Missing Persons: Personnel taking missing persons reports for those age 20 and under and adults with one or more endangerment factors will attempt to obtain the minimum data elements within ___________ of initial contact.
Two hours
Missing Persons: If the juvenile is located, the report must be _____________ and the NCIC record canceled by contacting RFB’s
NCIC Section.
Completed
Missing Persons: The patrol officer must determine if the missing person meets the Missing Persons Detail callout criteria:
a. The missing juvenile is 11 years old and younger.
b. The missing person, adult or juvenile, has a documented
diminished mental capacity of 11 years old or younger.
c. The missing person, adult or juvenile, has a physical/medical
condition or life-threatening situation that would hinder their
ability to care for themselves, posing a significant risk of serious
bodily harm or death.
d. The juvenile (17 years old and younger), is actively suicidal, making
a direct threat to harm oneself (e.g., with a weapon, pills, jumper)
via phone, text, email, social media (not merely possibly suicidal).
For adults age 18 and older, refer to the Suicidal Subjects section
on whom to notify and how to investigate.
e. The missing juvenile(s) is involved in a child custody dispute and
only if the child(ren) is in immediate articulable danger and a
threat to harm has been made.
f. The missing person has been reported as a lost/overdue hiker.
g. The found person is an adult, has proven guardianship over them,
and the guardian cannot be located/contacted.
Missing Persons: If there is a crime reported in addition to the missing person/runaway, a separate report in P1 must be completed under ___________ event number.
A different
Missing Persons: If the case remains unsolved and still meets callout criteria, contact a supervisor, who will then notify the _______________.
Missing Persons Detail
Missing Persons: Officers with __________________ training will be dispatched to events involving a subject threatening suicide under volatile circumstances (e.g., subject is armed, has threatened to harm another, is a danger to the community or is a “suicide by cop” threat). In such cases, a field supervisor will respond to the scene to assume command and control, and on-call patrol detectives will be notified for response.
Crisis Intervention Team (CIT)
Missing Persons: Officers with Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) training will be dispatched to events involving a subject threatening suicide under volatile circumstances (e.g., subject is armed, has threatened to harm another, is a danger to the community or is a “suicide by cop” threat). In such cases, a ____________ will respond to the scene to assume command and control, and on-call patrol detectives will be notified for response.
Field supervisor
Missing Persons: If the missing suicidal adult has a cellphone, patrol supervisor will request a ____________ phone ping through Dispatch supervisor.
Kelsey Smith
Missing Persons: If the missing adult is threatening suicide under volatile circumstances, officers will contact the ___________________.
On-duty or on-call patrol detective
Missing Persons: If the suicidal juvenile is missing, officers will, if the juvenile has a cellphone, patrol supervisor will request a ____________ phone ping through Dispatch supervisor.
Kelsey Smith
Missing Persons: In instances of suicidal missing juveniles, a patrol supervisor will contact the ____________________ if the missing juvenile is threatening suicide under volatile circumstances.
On-duty or on-call patrol detective
Missing Persons: An Amber Alert will be activated only when the following criteria are met:
a. Confirmed abduction.
b. Child is under 18 years old.
c. Threat of serious bodily harm or death.
d. Information on suspect and/or vehicle.
Missing Persons: If the missing person is a juvenile, officers will attempt to contact the parent/guardian. If contact cannot be made with the parent/guardian and no criminal charges exist, the juvenile will be transported to the _________________________________.
Child Haven receiving area at 701 N. Pecos Road
Missing Persons: In situations where a parent is claiming abduction by the other parent, other civil, legal and jurisdictional issues must be considered. If custody rights have been established by a court order, judgment, or operation of law, then the adverse party can be investigated as a taking parent “if __________________.”
Probable cause exists
Missing Persons: In child custody cases, if the elements of a crime exist amid a custody matter, take a report for Detain/Hide/Remove Child from the biological parent, guardian, or court-appointed guardian. A probable cause arrest cannot be made for this event (see NRS 200.359). ________________________ is the only entity that can authorize an arrest for this crime.
The Nevada Attorney General’s (AG’s) Office
MACTAC
Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities
_______________ response is used when incidents occur simultaneously and exceed conventional law enforcement tactics and resources. This includes incidents involving shootings, stabbings, rammings, improvised explosive devices (IEDs), and other potential threats. _____________ provides officers tactical knowledge, skills, and abilities to respond to incidents that require immediate police intervention.
MACTAC
MACTAC: Units from __________________ can respond to the incident if advised by Communications, the watch commander, IC, area command captain, or area command lieutenant to the staging area or immediate incident area, as directed.
Neighboring area commands
_______________ near the incident may respond to the staging area or as directed by the IC. However, careful consideration will be given to the assistance they can provide in relationship to that of a marked patrol unit with a uniformed officer. _______________ should be readily identifiable as law enforcement
to mitigate blue-on-blue incidents.
Non-uniformed officers
MACTAC: First arriving units will ensure officer and public safety by utilizing the 4 A’s concept: ________________________________.
Assess, Announce, Assemble, and Act
MACTAC: If the first arriving supervisor on-scene, make entry with the initial officer(s), providing direction and overall command and control. Utilize the 4 C’s concept: __________________________________.
Contain, Control, Communicate, Coordinate
MACTAC: Upon additional supervisor response, establish a formal ____________________. Consider utilizing NCORE TAC channels for the establishment of unified command.
Incident Command Post
MACTAC: If one of the first arriving officers has taken IC, determine if a transfer of command needs to occur from the officer to the ___________. This will be based on the size, type, and complexity of the incident.
Sergeant
MACTAC: Upon arrival of fire department personnel, establish a unified command. Determine the need for additional __________________ command and general staff positions based on the size, type, and complexity of the incident
Incident Command System (ICS)
MACTAC: Supervisors/officers arriving will:
- Respond to the staging area or as otherwise directed by the IC or
Communications. - Contact the staging area manager for deployment orders.
- Exercise radio discipline, remaining off channel, and activate the
“arrive” button on the mobile data terminal (MDT). - Remain on post until relieved or released
MACTAC: Officers responding from off-duty status will utilize
the TAC Dispatch channel, located under the Events TAC profile, to log on for instructions or event details. This can also be used to log on a squad if they are called in. Personnel will respond to a _________________ to determine if or where they will be needed.
Secondary staging area
Arrest Procedures: It is the policy of this department that warrantless felony or gross misdemeanor arrests will be limited to the _______________ arising from a single set of circumstances, with the exception of violent crimes, for which charges will be combined.
Most serious charge(s)
Arrest Procedures: In Clark County, misdemeanor arrests will be limited to the single most serious offense and generally will not be combined with a ________________________.
Felony or gross misdemeanor arrest
Arrest Procedures: In the _________________, all appropriate misdemeanor charges will be reflected for each arrest. This policy does not apply to arrests made pursuant to warrants.
City of Las Vegas (CLV)
Arrest Procedures: Officers may, after notification and approval of a _______________, exercise discretion regarding continuing with the booking process if it has been determined that the arrestee needs medical assistance.
Watch commander
Arrest Procedures: Officers will not make the decision to release the arrestee without ensuring that the arrestee has been provided an option for _______________.
Obtaining medical care
Arrest Procedures: If the medical condition is not life threatening, the officer may transport the arrestee to a hospital or emergency room; however, they must release the arrestee to _______________. Arrestees will not just be dropped off at the front door of the medical facility.
The care of hospital personnel
Arrest Procedures: In cases where it is determined that an arrestee will be transported for medical assistance, either by private transportation or by the officer, the officer may cite the arrestee prior to releasing them to medical personnel or the officer will submit for an arrest warrant ______________________.
Before the end of the shift
Arrest Procedures: If the arrestee signs an ___________________ with the paramedics or medical personnel, they may leave, and the officer will not interfere.
Against Medical Advice form
Arrest Procedures: In CLV, suspects may be booked for all appropriate misdemeanor offenses. Arrestees will not be
booked for any misdemeanors when being booked for felony or gross misdemeanors except in the following circumstances:
a. Suspects committing a crime(s) against an officer may be booked
on those offenses in addition to any other offense(s).
b. When an arrest is mandated by statute for certain misdemeanors
(i.e., domestic violence or driving on a Driving While Intoxicated
revoked license).
c. Suspects may be booked for a misdemeanor (combined with a
felony or gross misdemeanor) when it is the charge that results in
a search leading to a felony or gross misdemeanor arrest. (For
example, if a suspect is arrested for Disturbing the Peace and a
subsequent search incident to arrest reveals Possession of a
Controlled Substance. In this case, the suspect can be booked for
the felony and misdemeanor).
d. Charges will be combined for suspects being booked for one or
more violent crimes.
Arrest Procedures: In Clark County, where more than one offense is alleged, request approval of the ______________ to book on additional charges (with the exception of violent crimes) and list those approved charges on the TCR. The initials and P Number of the ________________ granting approval will be noted on the TCR and in all subsequent reports.
Authorizing supervisor
Arrest Procedures: Turn in reports to supervisor no later than _____________________.
The end of the shift
Arrest Procedures: In the absence of the officer’s immediate supervisor, the officer will have the AR Package reviewed by the ______________. If the ______________ is not available, the AR Package must be reviewed by any available Community Policing, Tourist Safety, or Investigative Services Division supervisor (as appropriate
to the arresting officer’s chain of command).
Shift lieutenant
Arrest Procedures: Supervisor will Review DOA for:
a. Sufficient justification for multiple charges on felony or gross
misdemeanor arrests.
b. Sufficient probable cause.
c. Adequate articulation of the actions of the defendant constituting
the charge. Each element of the crime must be clearly stated and
supported by facts.
d. Quality of the report
Arrest Procedures: For felony and gross misdemeanor arrests, review the ___________ for completeness, ensure it is attached to the top of the AR Package, and complete the lower portion.
LVMPD 124
Arrest Procedures: When contacted by an arresting officer regarding releasing an arrestee to medical personnel, ensure that the arrestee is not released from custody if the following charges are applicable:
a. Crime(s) against an officer.
b. Domestic violence or driving on a DUI revoked license or any other
charge where arrest is mandated by statute.
c. Any violent crime against person with significant injury.
d. Any violent crime involving the use of a deadly weapon.
e. Sexual Assault.
f. Kidnapping.
Arrest Procedures: NCF must be done within __________ of the time of arrest in the field (prior to the submission of the arrest information to the DA) otherwise the release must be coordinated directly with the DA (Screening Office 702-671-2550), as the authority to release is out of the control of LVMPD.
48 hours
Arrests w/o Warrants: This warning is intended to protect a person’s Fifth Amendment right against self-incrimination.
Miranda warning
Arrests w/o Warrants: A juvenile should be advised of the potential to be charged in ___________ when applicable. Examples of potential crimes include murder, attempt murder, and sexual assault.
Adult court
Arrests w/o Warrants: An officer may make an arrest without a warrant for:
- Crimes (felony, gross misdemeanor, or misdemeanor) that have
been committed in the officer’s presence. Misdemeanor arrests
must be in accordance with LVMPD 4.136, Misdemeanor Citation
and/or Arrest. - Felonies and gross misdemeanors not committed in the officer’s
presence when the officer has probable cause that the crime was
committed and that the specific person committed it. - Any person who a police officer has probable cause to believe is
about to commit a felony crime. - Juvenile misdemeanors not committed in the officer’s presence.
- Traffic offenses delineated in Nevada Revised Statute (NRS) 484
other than DUI (see LVMPD 4.200, Traffic Enforcement). - Battery between siblings, cousins, or current roommates (not
constituting domestic violence).
Arrests w/o Warrants: An officer will make an arrest without a warrant when probable cause exists for the following:
- All felony and misdemeanor battery acts constituting domestic
violence. - Traffic offenses that are classified as:
a. DUI
b. Felony hit and run
c. Homicide by vehicle - Protective order violations
Arrests w/o Warrants: Making a Warrantless Arrest the arresting officer will:
- Use only a reasonable amount of force to make the arrest.
- Restrain the arrestee by handcuffing their hands behind the back,
unless handicapped, obese, or other physical reasons exist for not
doing so. - Inform the suspect that they are under arrest and name the
criminal offense or cause for arrest. - Search the arrestee for weapons and instruments or fruits of the
crime that are upon their person and/or within their immediate
control. - If interrogation is to follow, give the arrestee the Miranda warning
beforehand. - Protect and safeguard the arrestee and personal property.
- Transport the arrestee to the appropriate detention facility.
- Complete arrest procedures in accordance with LVMPD.
Arrests w/o Warrants: In weighing the determination whether to arrest, cite, or give an advisement, officers will consider the following:
- The severity of the offense (e.g., pushing or spitting vs. punching
or kicking); - Whether this is the first time officers have responded to the
location and/or interacted with the involved parties, and/or if a
party has a prior offense of a similar nature; - One or both parties is in a violent or agitated state, and officers
have a reasonable concern that by not removing at least one
party from the incident, violence may escalate; - One or both of the involved parties wants to press charges.
Arrests w/o Warrants: In circumstances where a citation has not been issued or an arrest has not been made, officers will update
_____________________ with the identity of the involved parties, details of the incident, and the reason why no enforcement action was taken.
Computer-aided dispatch (CAD)
Arrests w/o Warrants: An officer will immediately release from custody any person they arrested without a warrant if the officer
becomes aware that there is _______________ for proceeding with an arrest. A released person will be deemed not to have been arrested but only detained.
Insufficient probable cause
DV: DEFINITION: Frequent, intimate associations primarily characterized by the expectation of affectional or sexual involvement. The term does not include a casual relationship
or an ordinary association between persons in a business or social context.
Dating relationship
DV: DEFINITION: Intentionally applying sufficient pressure to another person to make it difficult or impossible for the person to breathe, including, without limitation, applying pressure to the neck, throat, or windpipe that may prevent or hinder breathing or
reduce the intake of air, or applying any pressure to the neck on either side of the windpipe, but not the windpipe itself, to stop the flow of blood to the brain via the carotid arteries.
Strangulation
DV: Patrol officers will immediately contact their supervisor in cases when:
a. Felony domestic violence has occurred.
b. A law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a
suspect or victim.
c. Parties involved are believed to be a pimp and prostitute.
d. A suspect under arrest has a previous conviction for domestic
violence and is in possession of a firearm and/or ammunition.
e. A mutual arrest is considered.
DV: Determine if _____________ exists to make an arrest, regardless of whether the officer believes the offense may be ultimately prosecuted. The decision to prosecute rests with the prosecuting
agency, not with the victim or the officer.
Probable cause
DV: Officers must make a probable cause warrantless arrest for any battery offense constituting domestic violence under two conditions:
1) If officers develop probable cause for a suspect who is on scene
during their investigation: A battery constituting domestic violence
must have been committed within the preceding 24 hours.
2) If officers develop probable cause for a suspect who is not on
scene during their investigation (e.g., fled before police arrived): A
battery constituting domestic violence must have been committed
within the preceding seven days.
DV: If officers develop probable cause for a suspect who is not on scene during their investigation (e.g., fled before police arrived): A battery constituting domestic violence must have been committed within the preceding ___________.
Seven days
DV: Officers ________ conduct a consensual encounter knock-and-talk as a pretext to make an arrest for domestic violence
Will not
DV: Police __________ enter a suspect’s home with the primary intent to make a warrantless probable cause arrest absent exigency or a warrant.
May not
DV: The primary intent of the law is to provide police with ___________ to find and lawfully arrest a domestic violence suspect who fled before police arrived.
Seven days
DV: Request a SafeNest advocate as early as possible via radio once the investigation has established the following:
1) Strangulation is alleged.
2) Reasonable belief there is a firearm(s) at the residence.
3) The victim, upon learning of SafeNest services from officer, asks
for a SafeNest advocate to be called.
4) The involved parties have significant repeated calls for service.
DV: A supervisor will, in cases of mutual arrest, ensure that every attempt has been made to try and determine a _________________, and that probable cause exists for both arrests prior to giving approval for any mutual arrest.
Primary physical aggressor
DV: In cases meeting the Family Justice Center callout criteria, immediately notify FJC detectives. Current criteria can be obtained through the Dispatch supervisor. For cases that do not meet the
FJC callout criteria, contact the ____________________________.
Area command on duty or on-call PD detective squad
DV: If parties involved are believed to be a pimp and prostitute, immediately notify the _____________.
Vice Section
DV: In cases when a law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim of domestic violence, immediately notify the _______________ and the area lieutenant to respond.
Watch commander/Area lieutenant
DV: If it is determined that a law enforcement employee of any agency is involved as a suspect or victim, immediately notify their supervisor. The supervisor will immediately notify the ______________.
Watch commander
DV: If the suspect/victim is an LVMPD employee, the watch commander will contact the _____________.
CIS supervisor
DV: FJC detectives will investigate the following crimes:
- Domestic battery by strangulation.
- Domestic battery with a deadly weapon, including shooting-
related charges (i.e., discharging a firearm at/into an occupied
structure or vehicle). The intended victim must have a relationship
with the suspect as defined in NRS 33.018. - Assault domestic violence with use of a deadly weapon.
- Domestic battery (third offense).
- Domestic battery with prior felony convictions. The prior felony
conviction must be a domestic violence offense.
Transporting Prisoners: Vehicles w/o partition cages: A police officer transporting an arrestee in a standard vehicle without a partition cage will place the arrestee in the ________________.
Front passenger seat
Transporting Prisoners: Vehicles w/o partition cages: In a two-officer unit, transporting an arrestee in a standard vehicle without a partition cage, the arrestee will be placed in the rear seat behind the ________________ and the second officer __________________.
Passenger’s position/Behind the driver
Transporting Prisoners: Vehicles w/o partition cages: In a two-officer unit, the arrestee will be placed in the rear seat behind the passenger’s position and the second officer behind the driver. A second arrestee would be placed in the ______________.
Front seat
Transporting Prisoners: Vehicles w/o partition cages: Officers will not transport more than one arrestee nor a two-officer unit more than two arrestees without ___________________.
Supervisory approval
Transporting Prisoners: In a standard one- or two-officer patrol vehicle equipped with a partition cage, up to two arrestees of the _____________________ may be transported in the rear seat.
Same or opposite sex
Transporting Prisoners: When two arrestees are combative, officers may, at their discretion, restrain the arrestees with ________________ or transport them separately.
Leg restraint devices
Transporting Prisoners: If an arrestee is to be held in a parked vehicle for an extended period, consideration should be given to leaving the __________________ and the __________________ for air circulation. An arrestee will not be left alone in a vehicle unless under close observation.
Safety barrier in the lowered position/Front windows opened slightly
Transporting Prisoners: Officers will not be diverted to any other law enforcement activities while transporting unless the ________________, _____________________, and ___________________.
Risk to third parties is both clear and grave/The risk to the arrestee(s) is minimal/Supervisory approval is given
Transporting Prisoners: Under no circumstances will an arrestee be held in a transport vehicle longer than __________ before being transported to the detention facility and booked.
Two hours
Transporting Prisoners: When an arrestee is transported by an officer of the opposite sex, the start/stop mileage, to include tenths of a mile, will be ______________.
Entered on the tablet
Transporting Prisoners: If an arrestee of the opposite sex is transported in a vehicle without a tablet, the start/stop mileage will be ___________________.
Voice reported to the dispatcher
Transporting Prisoners: Except under extraordinary situations approved by a supervisor, no member will permit an
arrestee to enter a department vehicle without first being ____________.
Handcuffed
Transporting Prisoners: Arrestees in police vehicles will be handcuffed ___________, unless impractical or impossible due to obesity, handicap, or other reason. Special restraints will not be used unless approved by a supervisor.
Behind the back
Transporting Prisoners: Officers will not attempt to restrain an arrestee’s legs without __________________.
The assistance of another officer
Transporting Prisoners: Restraints will not be used to secure an arrestee’s legs to ____________________, as this could result in serious injury in the event of an accident.
Fixed positions inside a vehicle
Transporting Prisoners: Transporting an arrestee face down on an
ambulance gurney is permissible when _________________ determine it will not harm the arrestee.
Attending medical personnel
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Department members, citizens, and arrestees occupying department vehicles will wear seat belts while the vehicle is in motion (see NRS 484D.495). The only exemption to this is when the vehicle is traveling _______________ and the driver or passenger(s) is expecting to exit the vehicle to take immediate police action once the vehicle has stopped.
Less than 15 miles per hour
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Text messaging or emailing while driving is prohibited. This includes reading messages and checking messages at ____________.
Stop signals
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: On-duty personnel will not wear a _______________ at any time if a radio earpiece is worn.
Cellphone earpiece
Driving/Vehicle Procedures: Department members must park the vehicle in a practical manner and attempt to avoid parking where
_____________________.
Backing out may be required
It is the policy of this department that patrol units will not be dispatched on “routine” 421 (sick or injured person) calls unless the ___________________ so requests. Routine calls include injuries from falls or accidents, general illness, heart attacks, and accidental overdoses.
Responding medical service
Patrol units will be dispatched on 421 calls that:
- Are suspicious in nature.
- Are related to unknown trouble calls.
- Involve injuries as a result of criminal activity or traffic accident.
- Are the result of a gunshot.
- Indicate a need for police involvement due to other circumstances.
In medical emergencies, patients should only be transported by ambulance or other medical conveyances. Escorting civilian vehicles under emergency circumstances is extremely dangerous and ______________. All emergency escorts will be conducted in accordance with LVMPD 4.116
Must be avoided
If the injured person is suffering from a potential life-threatening injury or substantial head trauma, an ________________ will be completed and photographs will be taken to document details of the event.
Incident Crime Report (sick or injured person)
Upon arriving at the scene and determining the death to be suspicious or the result of a homicide a supervisor will:
a. Ensure crime scene analyst(s) have been requested.
b. Ensure detectives from Homicide have been notified.
Responding Homicide detectives will complete the case reports. Patrol officers will not begin the Incident Crime Report on homicides or suspicious deaths unless directed by ______________.
The detective
For deaths that appear to be natural and/or deaths to which CSI personnel do not respond, ________________ to ensure proper documentation.
Photograph the scene
Response to Dead Bodies Other Than Homicides, In-Custody Deaths, Suspicious Deaths, detailed photos will be taken with a ____________________ and uploaded into the Axon Capture app.
Department-issued cellphone
Request _________ on all suicides, overdoses and other deaths that are considered “not natural.”
CSI
Response to Dead Bodies Other Than Homicides, In-Custody Deaths, Suspicious Deaths, complete the Dead Body Incident Report in P1 by ___________. Do not provide details of the death in the narrative tab.
The end of shift
Personal Property of the Decedent on a Dead Body Call, all personal property at the scene or belonging to the decedent such as identification, money and jewelry will be placed in safekeeping by the ______________ or ________________, not impounded by LVMPD employees.
Coroner investigator/Public Administrator
Firearms at the Scene of a Dead Body Call, only the firearm used in an incident (suicide, accidental shooting, etc.) will be impounded as evidence by a _________________. Patrol officers may impound other firearms for safekeeping only when a threat to life or safety exists – notating the justification when doing so – and when the Public Administrator is not available.
Crime scene analyst
Firearms at the Scene of a Dead Body Call, only the firearm used in an incident (suicide, accidental shooting, etc.) will be impounded as evidence by a crime scene analyst. Patrol officers may impound other firearms for safekeeping only when a ______________ – notating the justification when doing so – and when the Public Administrator is not available.
Threat to life or safety exists
Response to Deceased Children, For the purpose of this policy, a child means: a person who is age _____________.
17 or younger
The ______________ is the primary investigator on child deaths. Homicide will typically take lead if there was an act of concealment or body disposal after death. The Overdose Response Team (ORT) may assist Abuse/Neglect on suspected child (teenager) overdoses.
Abuse/Neglect Detail
The Abuse/Neglect Detail is the primary investigator on child deaths. ____________ will typically take lead if there was an act of concealment or body disposal after death. The Overdose Response Team (ORT) may assist Abuse/Neglect on suspected child (teenager) overdoses
Homicide
A patrol officer and ______________ will be dispatched on all events related to the death of a child.
Patrol supervisor
In-Custody Deaths: ____________________ will be notified of all in-custody deaths involving a police/corrections officer or an inmate housed at Clark County Detention Center (CCDC), North Valley Complex, Tucker Holding Facility or a medical facility.
The Force Investigation Team (FIT) lieutenant or designee
An in-custody death is defined as the death of a person:
- Who is under arrest.
- Who is an inmate housed at CCDC, North Valley Complex, or
medical facility. - Who has been contacted or detained by officers and during the
contact when the death occurs (i.e., vehicle or pedestrian stop, a
person commits suicide when officers are near or have the
person contained).
A nationally recognized model developed to implement and facilitate the problem-solving process consisting of four steps: Scanning, Analysis, Response, and Assessment.
SARA
What does SARA stand for?
Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment
Community Policing: A citizen can submit a request for service by filling out a _________________.
Service Request Form (LVMPD 132)
Community Policing: An officer can begin the SARA problem-solving process by completing an _______________________ and forwarding it to the appropriate area command COP office.
LVMPD 241 (automated), Community Policing Service Request
Community Policing: Defines problems and documents pertinent information on the _________________________. For small problems or ongoing problems requiring spot checks, uses the LVMPD 240 (automated).
LVMPD 239 (automated), Project Worksheet Long Form
The ________________ protects an expectation of privacy that must be both reasonable and legitimate.
Fourth Amendment
An investigative detention based on reasonable suspicion is strictly limited to ____________.
60 minutes
Objective words or actions that clearly show a person has disclaimed ownership, dominion, and control over real or personal property.
Abandonment
A protocol requiring officers to announce their authority and purpose before entering a premises, allowing a reasonable amount of time for occupants to comply. Officers may do this using a ruse, bullhorn, public address (PA) system, etc.
Announce and wait
An exception to the Fourth Amendment’s warrant requirement based on the public’s expectation that law enforcement may take action to save life or render aid.
Community caretaking doctrine
A non-criminal encounter with a citizen or vehicle that is intended for law enforcement to investigate a serious medical concern or other life safety issues (i.e., Legal 2000).
Community caretaking search
A completely voluntary police interaction with members of the public, requiring no legal justification for the interaction, where a reasonable person would feel free to disregard the police and go about their business.
Consensual encounter
Area(s) near a residence where the residents have a reasonable
expectation of privacy. Considerations in determining whether an area is ___________ and subject to the protections of the Fourth Amendment are: (1) proximity of the area to the home; (2) whether the area is included in an enclosure which surrounds a home; (3) nature of uses to which an area is put; (4) steps taken to protect the area from observation from passers-by. The legal protection associated with curtilage is always determined in favor of the property owner, not law enforcement.
Curtilage
A warrantless entry into a home when an emergency exists and there is a need to render aid or to protect an individual from immediate harm from themselves or others.
Emergency aid exception
A time-critical exception to the search warrant requirement for the purpose of acting on an investigative emergency, based on probable cause for a criminal investigation. Police cannot create the exigent circumstance or use a ruse to affect a warrantless search.
Exigent circumstances
Occurs when there is probable cause that a person, who is wanted for a serious felony, is inside a home or other private place and is about to flee. (Not to be confused with hot pursuit.)
Fresh pursuit
A sub-category of “exigent circumstances” allowing entry into a structure when there is probable cause to believe a dangerous person has committed a serious felony. The suspect is fleeing from law enforcement, and the officer has direct knowledge of the suspect’s location. (Not to be confused with fresh pursuit.)
Hot pursuit
Reasonable suspicion stop, also known as a “Terry stop,” is a seizure of a person for no more than 60 minutes, with the limited scope and purpose of conducting an investigation and for which a police officer must have reasonable suspicion that a person is committing, has committed, or is about to commit a crime (NRS 171.123).
Investigative detention
A warrantless search that requires probable cause to: (1) prevent the destruction of evidence of a serious felony offense, or; (2) effect a warrantless arrest of a violent or dangerous suspect who officers have probable cause to believe committed a serious felony or violent offense and may escape if not immediately apprehended, or; (3) hot or fresh pursuit.
Investigative emergency search
What a person knowingly exposes to the public is not protected by the Fourth Amendment no matter where the exposure takes place. It does not justify a warrantless seizure. (Not to be confused with plain view.)
Open view
An open hand contact of a subject’s outer clothing to detect weapons on a person or contained within items “immediately associated with a person” (e.g., purse, backpack, etc.). The “pat down” is based on reasonable suspicion or articulable facts that the person may be armed with a dangerous weapon and is a threat to the safety of the officer.
Pat down
If during a pat down the officer feels an item that is not suspected to be a weapon but is immediately apparent without manipulation from the mass and shape that the item is probably contraband, the officer can legally seize the item.
Plain feel
An exception to the search warrant requirement that must satisfy these conditions: (1) the officer must be in a position where there is a legal right to be; (2) the items must be immediately recognizable as contraband or evidence; and (3) the seizure must be made without substantial additional intrusion. (Not to be confused with open view.)
Plain view
Exists when the facts and circumstances known to an officer would
warrant a prudent person in believing that a crime had been committed, and that the accused had committed it.
Probable cause to arrest
A “fair probability” that the items sought to be seized will be contained in the premises sought to be searched.
Probable cause to search
A quick and limited search of premises for the safety of officers and others. It must be narrowly confined to a cursory visual inspection of those places in which a person might be hiding.
Protective sweep
Specific and articulable facts or circumstances that would lead a
reasonable person to believe a crime has been, is being, or is about to be committed.
Reasonable suspicion
A police interference with an individual’s freedom of movement by means of physical force or show of authority or meaningful interference with an individual’s possessory interests in property.
Seizure
An order obtained in conjunction with a search warrant that authorizes an affiant to “turn over” property seized during service of a search warrant to another jurisdiction (e.g., task force partner or law enforcement officers from outside Clark County).
Turnover order
The frisk of a vehicle is based on reasonable suspicion or articulable facts that a person may have immediate access to a dangerous weapon and is a threat to the safety of the officer. The frisk must be confined to the areas of the vehicle where the person has access, and the officer may only enter unlocked compartments or areas where a weapon may be present.
Vehicle frisk
Exceptions related to criminal investigations where the Fourth Amendment does not apply are:
- Open view
- Person has no standing to assert a legal right (property right or
constitutional right) - Trash searches outside the curtilage
- Abandoned property
- Searches by a private citizen not acting as an agent of the
government
Warrantless entry into a residence is not permitted under the _______________________. Instead, officers need to articulate the need for an emergency aid exception
Community Caretaking Doctrine
Courts recognize ______________ situations as a distinct non-criminal investigative function of law enforcement. LVMPD values the sanctity of life and expects its officers to conduct thorough ______________ to determine if there is a need for life-saving assistance. These interactions are justified under the Community Caretaking Doctrine and are totally divorced from the detection, investigation, or acquisition of evidence relating to the violation of a criminal statute.
Welfare checks
The department will limit interactions under the ___________________ to welfare checks on individuals who are outside of a residence and during certain traffic stops
Community Caretaking Doctrine
The ________________ is a recognized exception to a warrant requirement and allows officers to make a warrantless entry to summon emergency medical assistance or to protect an occupant from imminent bodily harm.
Emergency aid exception
If officers determine that ___________________ no longer exist to remain inside a residence under the emergency aid exception, then they must exit unless proper consent is received. However, if officers develop probable cause to arrest an occupant before exigency no longer exists, then an arrest can be made before vacating the residence.
Exigent circumstances
When an emergency aid exception happens, the sergeant will:
- Acknowledge the call over the radio and if feasible, respond to the
scene. - Ensure the preliminary investigation has been conducted by the
officer. - Confirm exigent circumstances exist to justify the need for entry
under the emergency aid exception. - Determine if the use of a locksmith or the use of an officer’s
personal lock-picking device is appropriate. - Ensure additional units, resources, and medical assistance have
been requested if needed.
Investigative detentions, also known as reasonable suspicion stops, or Terry stops, allow an officer to stop a person to ascertain their:
a. Identity
b. Purpose
Officers can ask for identification; however, a person is not required to provide a ______________. If a person only provides a name, officers may require additional personal identifying information such as date of birth or social security number to verify identity. Once a person’s identity and purpose have been ascertained, and the officer’s reason for the stop is satisfied, detention must end, and the person must feel free to leave.
Government-issued ID
Officers conducting a traffic stop are allowed to ____________ drivers and passengers to address unlawful driving behavior through a warning, citation, or in specific cases, arrest.
Minimally detain
If during a traffic stop a driver becomes non-compliant when asked to provide identification and/or other requested documentation with no other actions, the driver will be considered an obstructive subject. A ____________ will be notified and respond to determine how to proceed.
Supervisor
There are two types of traffic offenses: primary and secondary. Probable cause to believe that a _____________ has been committed is required to conduct a traffic stop.
Primary offense
Traffic Stop: Officers can demand, and drivers are required to provide a _____________, _____________, and ________________. Officers can also run a records check to determine the status of driving privilege.
Driver’s license, Registration, Proof of insurance
The detention on a traffic stop (unless the officer develops
reasonable suspicion or probable cause for an arrest, or the officer receives consent from the occupants) must remain _____________.
Minimal
Officers will not detain drivers or passengers for longer than is necessary to confirm the driving privilege status and to issue a citation or give a warning. In no event can the detention exceed
______________.
60 minutes
A _________________ is not sufficient for a traffic stop (e.g., no seat belt).
Secondary offense
The right to bear arms is protected by the United States Constitution. The determination to impound a firearm for safekeeping should be for _____________ or ____________ (e.g., found firearm). The determination to impound a firearm for safekeeping will be documented and articulated in the narrative portion of the Property Report (LVMPD 67a).
Life safety/To determine ownership
Officers can seize Persons with the following justifications:
a. Investigative detention (60-Minute Rule)
b. Vehicle stop (driver and passengers)
c. Arrest
d. Legal 2000
Officers can seize Residences/Structures with the following justifications:
a. Premises freeze
b. Search warrant
Officers can seize Vehicles with the following justifications:
a. Vehicle stop
b. Impound
c. Search warrant
Officers can seize Property with the following justifications:
a. Plain view
b. Abandoned
c. Premises freeze (electronic storage devices)
d. Search warrant
e. Safekeeping (protecting an item from theft or to determine
ownership)
Pursuant to a lawful stop, vehicles may be searched under the following circumstances if PC evidence is contained in the vehicle:
Search pursuant to a search warrant
Vehicle is readily mobile
Consent search
Pursuant to a lawful stop, vehicles may be searched under the following circumstances if No PC evidence is contained in the vehicle:
Protective frisk for officer safety
Inventory
Consent search
VIN inspection
