Host-Parasite Interaction Flashcards

1
Q

Origin of Microbial Biota

A

Microorganisms that find their niche colonize various anatomic sites and become predominant organisms

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2
Q

the growth of microbiota in a body site without the production of damage or notable symptoms

A

colonization

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3
Q

T or F

as infant grows, the microbial biota eventually becomes similar to the microbiota seen in older individuals

A

true

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4
Q

Host-Microbe Relationship

defined as the association of two organisms living together; organisms are known as symbionts

A

symbiosis

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5
Q

Host-Microbe Relationship

a biological relationship between two or more organisms where both benefit from one another

A

mutualism

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6
Q

example of mutualism

A

Lactobacilli in the urogenital tract of women

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7
Q

Host-Microbe Relationship

relationship where the organism benefits but there is no beneficial or harmful effect on the host

A

commensalism

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8
Q

example of commensalism

A

Proteus mirabilis in the gastrointestinal tract of humans

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9
Q

Host-Microbe Relationship

relationship where one species benefit at the expense of the other

A

parasitism

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10
Q

example of parasitism

A

Entamoeba histolytica – intestinal ameba causing intestinal ulcers and amebic dysentery

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11
Q

microorganisms that are commonly found on or in body sites of healthy persons

A

normal or Indigenous Microbiota

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12
Q

microorganisms that colonize an area for months or years

A

resident microbiota

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13
Q

microorganisms that are present at a site temporarily; it comes to visit but does not usually stay

may be eliminated by host immune response

A

transient microbiota

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14
Q

pathogenic organisms that may establish themselves in a host without manifesting symptoms; capable of transmitting infection

A

carriers

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15
Q

condition with carrier microbiota that can either be acute or chronic

A

carrier state

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16
Q

meaning of acute

A

short-lived or transient

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17
Q

meaning of chronic

A

lasting for months, years, or permanently

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18
Q

acute or chronic

post-Salmonella typhi infection (in the bile duct and excreted in stools)

A

chronic

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19
Q

acute or chronic

Neisseria meningitidis can be found in nasopharynx of asymptomatic

A

acute

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20
Q

describe the carrier state

Staphylococcus aureus colonized person’s anterior nares then transmitted to hands

A

most transient

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21
Q

T or F:

organisms colonizing different body sites play a significant role in providing host resistance to infections

A

true

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22
Q

it is a suspension of live bacteria that normally colonize the gastrointestinal tract to reestablish microbiota

A

probiotics

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23
Q

Factors that determine the composition of the usual Microbial Biota

A
  • nutritional and environmental factor
  • resistance to bile, lysozyme or fatty acids
  • pH
  • oxidation-reduction potential
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24
Q

amount and types of nutrients available at the site

these areas are dominated by diphtheroids, nonpathogenic corynebacteria

A

moist areas

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25
Q

identify the bacteria

colonizes the ducts of hair follicales because bacteria are able to break down the skin lipids to fatty acids

A

Propionibacterium species

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26
Q

affinity of a microorganism for a specific site depends on?

A

ability of organisms to resist the antibacterial effects of substances

such as fatty acids, bile, lysozyme

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27
Q

affected by pH

  • female genital tract
  • fecal biota in infants who are breast fed
A
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28
Q

pH

pH of female genital tract in women of childbearing age

A

4.0 to 5.0

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29
Q

human milk has a high lactose concentration and maintains a pH of?

A

5.0 to 5.5

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30
Q

pH of 5.0 to 5.5 is supportive of the growth of what bacteria?

A

Bifidobacterium species

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31
Q

infants fed with this type of milk does not have high colonization rate of Bifidobacterium spp

A

cow milk

rather than breast-fed milk

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32
Q

this environment supports only organisms capable of fermentation

A

low oxidation-reduction potential

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33
Q

example of bacteria that is capable of fermentation due to the body’s low oxidation-reduction potential

A

Bacteroides, Fusobacterium

these colonizes the gingival crevices

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34
Q

changes in the environmental conditions (such as age, nutritional status, disease states, and drug or antimicrobial therapy use) can predispose an individual to infection that is caused by indigenous biota

A

opportunistic infection

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35
Q

in the oral cavity alone, approximately how many different species have been characterized?

A

500

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36
Q

mechanisms of normal skin to prevent infection and protect underlying tissue from invasion by potential pathogens

A
  • physical separation of microorganisms from tissues
  • presence of fatty acids
  • excretion of lysozyme by sweat glands
  • desquamation of epithelium
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37
Q

the composition of the microbiota on the skin depends on the activity of what?

A

sebaceous and sweat glands

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38
Q

in the skin, organisms concentrate most in areas that are?

A

moist

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39
Q

moist areas in the skin where most microorganisms concentrate

A

armpit, groin, perineum

apocrine sweat glands secrete substances metabolized by skin bacteria

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40
Q

these are usually found in moist areas such as axillae and between the toes

A

anaerobic diphtheroids

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41
Q

these bacteria reside in hair follicles and colonize the sebaceous glands as they are resistant to skin lipids and fatty acids as well as to superficial antiseptic agents

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis and Propionibacterium spp.

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42
Q

this microorganism colonizes deep sebaceous glands

A

Propionibacterium acnes

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43
Q

predominant genus of bacteria that invades the mouth

A

Streptococcus

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44
Q

mouth

how many streptococci per gram does bacterial plaque develop on the teeth

A

10 raised to 11

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45
Q

plaque also results to this in the tooth surface

A

low oxidation-reduction potential

supports growth of strict anaerobes

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46
Q

components of the upper respiratory tract

A
  • mouth
  • nasopharynx
  • oropharynx
  • larynx
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47
Q

components of lower respiratory tract

A
  • trachea
  • bronchi
  • pulmonary parenchyma
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48
Q

these bacteria colonize the mouth, nasopharynx, and oropharynx

A
  • Streptococcus mitis
  • Streptococcus mutans
  • Streptococcus anginosus
  • Streptococcus sanguinis

viridans streptococci

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49
Q

these bacteria colonize the upper respiratory tract

except viridans streptococci

A
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
  • Neisseria spp.
  • diptheroids
50
Q

opportunistic pathogen that colonize the anterior nares

A

Staphylococcus aureus

51
Q

these are potential pathogens that are also found in the nasopharynx of healthy individuals

A
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • N. meningitidis
52
Q

these bacteria colonizes the upper respiratory tract of individuals who are hospitalized for several days

A

gram negative bacteria - members of Enterobacteriaceae

53
Q

the intestinal tract is thought to be colonized by over how many bacterial species

A

35, 000

54
Q

gastrointestinal tract

microorganism population is lowest in this part of the GI tract

A

esophagus

10 microbes per gram

55
Q

microorganisms that are not susceptible to the acid pH of stomach

A
  • sporeformers
  • cysts of parasites
56
Q

bacteria that inhabits the stomach

A
  • Streptococcus
  • Enterococcus
  • Prevotella
  • Helicobacter pylori (opportunistic pathogen)
57
Q

T or F:

the colon has fewer microorganism compared with those in the small intestine

A

false - the small intestine has fewer

58
Q

count of microorganism prevalent in the colon

A

10 raised 12 bacteria per gram of solid material

59
Q

obligate anaerobes in the colon

A
  • Bacteroides
  • Clostridium
  • Prevotella
  • Porphyromonas

outnumber gram negative bacilli - makes up 90% of microbial biota

60
Q

gram positive cocci also present in the large intestine

A
  • Streptococcus
  • Enterococcus
  • yeasts
61
Q

these bacteria can flourish in the intestinal tract of some people who are taking an oral broad-spectrum antimicrobial agent

A
  • Clostridium difficile
  • yeast - Candida albicans

alteration can case severe necrotizing enterocolitis, diarrhea

62
Q

genitourinary tract

vaginal biota in females before puberty and in postmenopausal stage

A
  • yeasts
  • gram negative bacilli
  • gram positive cocci
63
Q

genitourinary tract

low pH encourages colonization of vagina with what bacteria

A
  • lactobacilli
  • anaerobic gram negative bacilli
  • gram positive cocci
64
Q

they cause disease when their habitat is altered or when the host’s immune system is compromised

A

opportunists

65
Q

role of the microbial flora in the host defense against infectious disease

A
  • activates immune system
  • true pathogen
  • opportunistic pathogen
66
Q

microorganisms provide beneficial effects to the immune system in what ways

A
  • stimulation of antibody production
  • mononuclear phagocyte system will develop
  • serum immunoglobulins would not be suppresed
  • supporting action of APCs and cytokines
  • cell mediated immunity will be activated
67
Q

gastroenteritis caused by this microorganism is generally not treated with antimicrobial agents

better eliminated by natural exclusion by the colon biota

A

Salmonella

68
Q

this microorganism may multiply and cause diarrhea or infections in the mouth or vagina

A

C. albicans

69
Q

it is the ability of microbe to produce disease in an individual

A

pathogenicity

70
Q

an organism may be described…

A

true pathogen or opportunistic pathogen

71
Q

these are organisms recognized to cause disease in healthy immunocompetent individuals

A

true pathogens

72
Q

these bacteria are pathogenic in all situations

A
  • Yersinia pestis
  • Bacillus anthracis
73
Q

this bacteria colonizes the upper respiratory tract of healthy individuals without causing disease - but given the opportunity, it can rapidly produce a life threatening infection

A

Haemophilus influenzae

74
Q

this bacteria under usual conditions does not produce disease but can induce infectious process in patients with PROSTHETIC DEVICES

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

75
Q

H. influenzae and S. epidermidis are considered what type of pathogens

A

opportunistic pathogens

causes opportunistic infections

76
Q

an infection that occurs as the result of medical treatment or procedures

A

iatrogenic infection

77
Q

first step in initiating infection

A

infectious agent gaining access to host

78
Q

important factor in the establishment of infection

A

route of pathogen to be transmitted to host

79
Q

possible routes of transmission

A
  • air (inhalation)
  • food and water (ingestion)
  • close contact (including sexual transmission)
  • cuts and bites
  • arthropods
  • animal contact (zoonoses)
80
Q

this is the common and generally efficient way to enter a host

A

respiratory spread / airborne transmission

81
Q

respiratory secretions as aerosolized by:

A
  • coughing
  • sneezing
  • talking
82
Q

these are very small particles that are the residue from evaporation of fluid from larger droplets and are light enough to remain airborne for long periods

A

droplet nuclei

83
Q

pathogens that are spread in the air must be resistant to drying and inactivation by:

A

ultraviolet light

84
Q

transmission that results from contact with inanimate objects contaminated with infectious agents

A

fomites

85
Q

most common microorganism causing lower respiratory tract infection of individuals older than 30 years of age

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

86
Q

most common cause of community-acquired pnemouniae

A

pneumococcus

87
Q

this disease begins suddenly and is a serious, life-threatening disease in older patients

A

pneumococcal pneumonia

88
Q

this is a classic example of an intracellular pathogen that is high virulent, invasice and survives well and multiplies within phagocytes

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

89
Q

usual route in food and water transmission

A

fecal oral

90
Q

transmission of gastrointestinal infections is usually a results of:

A

infestion of contaminated food and water

91
Q

damage to gastrointestinal tract can be through:

A
  • preformed toxin
  • disruption of normal functioning of intestinal cell or production of toxin within intestine
92
Q

organisms that cause disease by means of preformed toxin

A
  • Clostridium botulinum
  • Bacillus cereus
  • Staphylococcus aureus
93
Q

commonly seen cause of diarrhea and intestinal infection

part of normal biota

A

E. coli

some strains produce cytotoxins

94
Q

strain of E. coli that is a common cause of traveler’s disease and other intestinal problems

A

enterotoxigenic

95
Q

it is the cause of cholera and produces enterotoxin that causes the outpouring of fluid from cells into the lumen of intestine

A

Vibrio cholerae

96
Q

other intestinal pathogens

A
  • Clostridium difficile
  • Shigella spp
  • Aeromonas hydrophila
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Salmonella
97
Q

parasites in the gastrointestinal tract

A
  • Cryptosporidium spp.
  • Giardia lamblia
  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • Balantidium coli
98
Q

it refers to the passage of organisms by salivary, skin, and genital contact

A

close contact

99
Q

two virus causing prominent infections passed by direct transfer of saliva

A
  • herpes simplex virus
  • Epstein-barr virus
100
Q

skin to skin transfer of infectious disease

A
  • warts (human papilloma)
  • syphilis
  • impetigo

infectious lesions inoculates the skin

101
Q

most commonly transmitted venereal agents

sexually transmitted diseases

A
  • human papillomavirus
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • herpes simplex virus
  • Treponema palidum subsp. pallidum (syphilis)
  • Trichomonas spp.
  • HIV
102
Q

classic example of a bite-wound infection

A

rabies

103
Q

dog-bite and cat-bite infections yield what bacteria

A

Pasteurella multocida

104
Q

transmission by arthropods

A
  • mosquito bite
  • tick bite
  • flea bite
  • mite bite

common occurence in the world

105
Q

diseases spread by arthropods

A
  • malaria
  • relapsing fever
  • plague
  • rocky mountain spotted fever
  • Lyme disease
  • West Nile fever
  • regional hemorrhagic fevers
106
Q

this route of transmission depends on contact with animals or animal products

A

zoonosis

107
Q

diseases that may be passed via zoonosis

A
  • animal bites (rabies)
  • arthropod vectors (plague)
  • contact with secretions (brucellosis)
  • contact with animal carcasses and products (tularemia, listeriosis)
108
Q

it is the relative ability of a microorganism to cause disease or the degree of pathogenicity

A

virulence

109
Q

describe virulence when infective dose is low

A

more or highly virulent

110
Q

virulence factor of N. gonorrhoeae

A

tissue tropism

111
Q

these are cells that play a major role in defending the host from microbial invasion

they ingest bacteria and destroy them

A

phagocytes: macrophages and polymorphonuclear cells

112
Q

extremely important event in the life of an invading pathogen

A

avoiding phagocytosis

113
Q

most common mechanism for evading phagocytosis

A

having polysaccharide capsule on the surface

114
Q

another bacterial structure that protects organisms from phagocytosis

A

protein A

115
Q

it helps the organism avoid phagocytosis by interfering with the binding of host’s antibodies to the surface of the organism

A

protein A in the cell wall of S. aureus

116
Q

streptococci produce this that lyse red blood cells and induce toxic effects on white blood cells and macrophages

A

hemolysins

117
Q

pathogenic staphylococci release this that cause lysosomal discharge of white blood cells into the cytoplasm

A

leukocidins

118
Q

it is a staphylococcal leukocidin that is lethal to leukocytes and contributes to invasiveness of the organism

A

Panton-Valentine leukocidin

119
Q

microbial surface structures that mediate attachment

A

adhesins

host cells must have receptors for this

120
Q

these are the main adhesins in bacteria

A

fimbriae (pili) and surface polysaccharides

121
Q

strains of E. coli that cause traveler’s disease uses this to adhere to the cells of the small intestine

N. gonorrhoeae also use this

A

fimbriae or pili

122
Q

these are host factors that work to prevent proliferation of pathogen - they are produced by the host as a way to protect against infection

A

lactoferrin and lysozyme