hormonal control of metabolism I Flashcards

1
Q

by which system is metabolism regulated

A

the neuroendocrine system

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2
Q

briefly, how does the neuroendocrine system work

A

one cell senses a change in conditions and secretes small quantities of a chemical messenger that travels to a second cell and binds to a receptor to trigger changes in that second cell

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3
Q

what two things can messengers be

A

neurotransmitters or hormones

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4
Q

T or F: some molecules that are messengers can be both NTs and hormones

A

true

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5
Q

give an example of a chemical messenger that is both an NT and a hormone

A

epinephrine

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6
Q

describe endocrine hormone secretion

A

they’re secreted by endocrine cells and travel to a target cell in a distant tissue via the blood

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7
Q

describe paracrine hormone secretion

A

secreted by paracrine cells and act on nearby cells. They don’t enter the bloodstream

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8
Q

describe autocrine hormone secretion

A

they’re secreted by autocrine cells and act on the cell that secreted it. they don’t enter the bloodstream

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9
Q

list 5 things that can change upon a hormone binding to a receptor

A

second messenger concentration, RTK activity, membrane potential, adhesion properties of ECM/cytoskeleton, gene expression

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10
Q

what are the two main classes of hormones

A

water soluble and lipid soluble

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11
Q

which hormone types are water soluble

A

peptide + amide

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12
Q

which hormone types are lipid soluble

A

steroid + thyroid

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13
Q

what do water soluble hormones do

A

quickly induce conformational changes in their receptor on the cell surface

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14
Q

what do lipid soluble hormones do

A

cross the bilayer + have receptor proteins in the nucleus to slowly alter gene expression

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15
Q

in which two groups can water soluble hormones be further divided

A

those that bind a metabotropic or a ionotropic receptor

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16
Q

what does a metabotropic receptor result in

A

changes in pre-existing enzymes or enzyme transcription

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17
Q

what does an ionotropic receptor result in

A

change in membrane potential

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18
Q

list some examples of peptide hormones

A

insulin, glucagon, and all hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary

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19
Q

briefly, how are peptide hormones synthesized

A

as prohormones + are only activated after proteolytic cleavage

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20
Q

T or F: many peptide hormones can be transcribed by a single gene

A

true

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21
Q

describe the steps of insulin synthesis

A

synthesized in the pancreas as the inactive single-chain precursor preproinsulin with an N term signal sequence to direct it to secretory vesicles. The signal sequence is cleaved and disulfide bridges are added on route to secretory vesicle to form proinsulin. When blood glucose levels are high, proteases cleave the peptide and mature insulin is released into the blood via exocytosis

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22
Q

describe the structure of preproinsulin

A

inactive, single-chain, has an N terminal signal sequence to direct it to secretory vesicles

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23
Q

list 3 catecholamines

A

dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine

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24
Q

how are catecholamines synthesized

A

by decarboxylating tyrosine

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25
Q

T or F: during catecholamine synthesis, tyrosine is decarboxylated and the amino group is lost

A

false; tyrosine IS decarboxylated, but the catecholamines retain the amino group (hence the name)

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26
Q

list 2 key thyroid hormones

A

T3 and T4

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27
Q

how are thyroid hormones synthesized

A

by attaching iodines to two tyrosine residues

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28
Q

steroid hormones are derivatives of ___

A

cholesterol

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29
Q

where in the body are steroid hormones made

A

adrenal cortex

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30
Q

list 2 examples of steroid hormones

A

glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

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31
Q

what do glucocorticoids do

A

regulate carb metabolism

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32
Q

what do mineralocorticoids do

A

regulate concentration of electrolytes in the blood

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33
Q

list 9 endocrine glands

A

hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adipose, adrenals, pancreas, ovaries, testes

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34
Q

what does the hypothalamus do

A

receives sensory signals and coordinates the endocrine response

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35
Q

where does the hypothalamus receive all sensory messages from

A

the central nervous system

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36
Q

what is the top down system

A

the hypothalamus signals the pituitary to release hormones that travel to many ultimate target organs

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37
Q

describe how the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus interact

A

hypothalamus releases hormones which travel through portal veins to anterior pituitary which then releases its own separate hormones

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38
Q

describe how the posterior pituitary and hypothalamus interact

A

neurosecretory cells originating in the hypothalamus have synapses that can release hormones in posterior

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39
Q

which pituitary releases its own separate signals

A

anterior

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40
Q

T or F: top down hormone pathways include signal amplification

A

true

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41
Q

T or F: top down hormone pathways can include negative feedback inhibition

A

true

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42
Q

give an example of a molecule that turns off preceding parts of the top down hormone pathway (negative feedback inhibition)

A

cortisol

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43
Q

what are bottom-up systems

A

send signals back to the brain: tell the brain how the body is doing, not what to do

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44
Q

in bottom-up systems, where are the hormones produced (3)

A

digestive tract, muscle, adipose tissue

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45
Q

what is the normal blood glucose range

A

70-100 mg/100ml

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46
Q

list the symptoms found at 40-60 mg/100 ml blood glucose

A

subtle neurological signs like hunger, release of glucagon/epinephrine/cortisol, sweating, trembling

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47
Q

list the symptoms found at 20-40 mg/100 ml blood glucose

A

lethargy, convulsions, coma

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48
Q

list the symptoms found at 0-10 mg/100 ml blood glucose

A

permanent brain damage, death

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49
Q

T or F: the pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland

50
Q

describe the exocrine function of the pancreas

A

relates to sending digestive enzymes from acini cells

51
Q

describe the endocrine function of the pancreas

A

relates to maintenance of blood sugar levels through islet cells

52
Q

what are the endocrine cells of the pancreas called

A

pancreatic islets

53
Q

list 5 types of pancreatic islets

A

Alpha, beta, delta, epsilon, F

54
Q

what do alpha cells of the pancreas release

55
Q

what do beta cells of the pancreas release

56
Q

what do delta cells of the pancreas release

A

somatostatin

57
Q

what do epsilon cells of the pancreas release

58
Q

what do F cells of the pancreas release

A

pancreatic polypeptide

59
Q

what is somatostatin

A

inhibitor of glucagon and insulin secretion

60
Q

__% of the pancreas is acini cells for digestion

61
Q

describe the location of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas

A

scattered randomly amongst the acini

62
Q

where are GLUT2 transporters located

A

on the membranes of B cells and on hepatocytes

63
Q

pancreas tracking blood glucose: what happens to glucose after a carb-rich meal (hint: GLUT2)

A

there is rapid, passive transport of glucose into B cells and hepatocytes until [glucose] in the cell is equal to [glucose] in the blood

64
Q

pancreas tracking blood glucose: what process occurs in the cells after the influx of glucose + what does this process make a lot of

A

cellular respiration = high ATP levels

65
Q

pancreas tracking blood glucose: due to high ATP levels from cellular respiration, what occurs in the cell

A

ATP-gated K+ channels close, depolarizing the membrane

66
Q

pancreas tracking blood glucose: what happens once the membrane is depolarized

A

voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open = influx of cytosolic Ca2+

67
Q

pancreas tracking blood glucose: what is the result of having high intracellular Ca2+ levels

A

causes the release of even more Ca2+ into the cytosol from the ER

68
Q

pancreas tracking blood glucose: what is the result of having high Ca2+ from both cytosol and ER

A

induces exocytosis of insulin granules

69
Q

how many subunits do the B cell ATP-gated K+ channels have

70
Q

describe the structure of the B cell ATP-gated K+ channels

A

octamers: 4 SUR1 subunits and 4 Kir 6.2 subunits

71
Q

what is Kir

A

a subunit type of B cell ATP-gated K+ channels. Kir = inwardly rectifying K+ channel

72
Q

what is SUR

A

a subunit of B cell ATP-gated K+ channels. SUR = sulfonylurea receptor

73
Q

mutations in the B cell ATP-gated K+ channels can cause ______________

A

neonatal diabetes

74
Q

which subunits of the B cell ATP-gated K+ channel forms the actual channel? what is the structural function of the other subunit

A

Kir forms the channel, SUR subunits surround the Kir subunits

75
Q

which two molecules can bind to Kir

A

ATP and PIP2

76
Q

what does ATP do to Kir

A

promotes closing

77
Q

what does PIP2 do to Kir

A

promotes opening

78
Q

which two molecules can bind to SUR

A

ADP and sulfonylurea drugs

79
Q

what does ADP to do SUR

A

promotes opening

80
Q

what do sulfonylurea drugs to do SUR

A

promote closing

81
Q

how can sulfonylurea drugs be used to treat type II diabetes

A

they bind to the B cell ATP-gated K+ channel and encourage it to close = promotes insulin release (you get more insulin)

82
Q

fed state: what enzyme is activates upon insulin release

A

glycogen synthase

83
Q

where is glycogen synthase located

84
Q

fed state: why is glycogen synthase activates/what is the purpose of this

A

it will help us store excess glucose that’s incoming

85
Q

fed state: what enzyme does insulin inhibit

A

glycogen phosphorylase

86
Q

fed state: purpose of glycogen phosphorylase inhibition?

A

reduces glycogen breakdown (because when there’s lots of glucose we want to be building glycogen)

87
Q

fed state: insulin stimulates glucose uptake by which 2 tissue types

A

muscle and adipose tissue

88
Q

fed state: how does insulin stimulate glucose uptake by muscle and adipose tissue?

A

it permits GLUT4 transporters (hidden in cytosolic vesicles) to fuse with the PM

89
Q

relate GLUT4 to type II diabetes

A

GLUT4 doesn’t respond to insulin in type II diabetes = glucose cannot enter cells through it

90
Q

what enters the well fed liver from the pancreas

91
Q

what enters the well fed liver from the intestines (from food we ate)

A

glucose, amino acids, TAGs from chylomicrons (dietary cholesterol)

92
Q

what happens to glucose as it enters the well-fed liver

A

used to build glycogen or we can enter glycolysis to make acetyl-CoA. The acetyl-CoA can then enter the CAC to make ATP/CO2 or it can be used in FA synthesis = TAG formation

93
Q

what happens to amino acids as they enter the well fed liver

A

some used for liver protein, if there are excess we will split off the ammonia to leave us with the carbon skeleton (urea cycle)

94
Q

what leaves the well fed liver

A

glucose to the brain, CO2 to lungs to be exhaled, TAGs to adipose for storage (via LDL and LDL), urea to the kidneys

95
Q

what is coming into the fasting liver

A

glucagon from pancreas, TAGs mobilized from adipose tissue, amino acids from protein degradation in the muscle

96
Q

what is leaving the fasting liver

A

glucose to the brain, ketones to the brain, urea to the kidneys

97
Q

what is the primary source of fuel in the fasting liver

A

TAG breakdown

98
Q

what is incoming to the starving liver

A

TAGs from adipose tissue, amino acids from protein degradation

99
Q

what is leaving the starving liver

A

glucose (from GNG) to brain, ketones to brain, excess ketones to kidneys, urea to kidneys

100
Q

starving liver: with amino acids from protein degradation in muscle, what can happen to them

A

they can have the NH4+ stripped off to enter the urea cycle. The carbon skeleton can then be used towards pyruvate or OAA, which can enter GNG to form glucose. OR the carbon skeleton can be used towards acetyl-CoA which is used to make ketones

101
Q

how long into a fast do [ketones] start to rapidly increases

A

a couple of days

102
Q

in a fast/starvation, why is the [FFA] in the blood increasing only slightly

A

because you’re constantly breaking them down in the liver, so the concentration in the blood will stay the same as we continuously take them from adipose and move them to the liver

103
Q

in a fast/starvation, why doesn’t [glucose] plummet?

A

once we hit a day or two, GNG kicks in to produce glucose

104
Q

what two pyruvate enzymes does acetyl-CoA affect

A

pyruvate dehydrogenase and pyruvate carboxylase

105
Q

during starvation, how might acetyl-CoA regulate pyruvate dehydrogenase and pyruvate carboxylase

A

PD is responsible for acetyl-CoA production
PC is responsible for pyruvate –> OAA
the longer we’re in the starvation state, acetyl-CoA will downregulate PD and upregulate PC

106
Q

when amino acids need to start being oxidized for fuel (during starvation), which amino acids will be degraded first

A

non-essential (because we can make these)

107
Q

what triggers cortisol release

A

low blood glucose, fear, pain, infection, etc

108
Q

what 3 parts of the body does cortisol act upon

A

muscle, adipose, liver

109
Q

role of cortisol acting on muscle, adipose, and liver?

A

supplies the organism with fuel to withstand whatever stress is occuring

110
Q

where is epinephrine secreted from

A

the adrenal medulla

111
Q

when will epinephrine be secreted

A

by stress (fight or flight)

112
Q

role of epinephrine on the muscle, heart, and lungs?

A

prepares them for a burst of activity, increases heart rate, BP, and vasodilation to get O2 to muscle

113
Q

how do epinephrine, insulin, and glucagon interact

A

epinephrine inhibits inulin secretion from the pancreas and activates glucagon secretion

114
Q

how does cortisol affect TAG breakdown in adipocytes + why

A

stimulates TAG breakdown = FFAs for fuel and glycerol for GNG

115
Q

how does cortisol affect muscle protein degradation + why

A

stimulates muscle protein degradation = amino acids can be shipped to liver and their carbon skeletons used for GNG

116
Q

how does cortisol affect PEP carboxykinase transcription in the liver + why

A

stimulates PEPC transcription in the liver = increases TAG cycle flix and FFAs in the blood = can use FFAs for fuel

117
Q

T or F: the effects of cortisol are very beneficial in the long term

A

false; they’re only good in the short term. As time goes on, cortisol can damage muscle and bone + impair immune function

118
Q

list the disease: underproduction of cortisol

A

Addison’s disease

119
Q

addison’s disease symptoms

A

low blood sugar, low weight, fatigue, low appetite

120
Q

list the disease: overproduction of cortisol

A

Cushing disease

121
Q

cushing disease symtpoms

A

high blood sugar, high BP, weight gain