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communication, homeostasis and energy > hormonal communication > Flashcards

hormonal communication Flashcards

1
Q

what is the difference between exocrine and endocrine glands?

A

exocrine secretes into ducts whereas endocrine secretes straight into blood

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2
Q

what is a hormone?

A

chemical messenger

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3
Q

how are hormones transported?

A

blood

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4
Q

where do hormones travel to?

A

target cells

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5
Q

how are hormones specific?

A

only activate cells with appropriate target receptors

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6
Q

what are the 7 main endocrine glands?

A
  • pineal
  • pituitary
  • thyroid
  • adrenal
  • pancreas
  • ovaries
  • testes
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7
Q

what does the pineal gland secrete and where does it work?

A

melatonin targets many organs and acts as a body clock

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8
Q

what does the pituitary gland secrete and where does they work?

A
  • FSH/LH work in the ovaries in menstrual cycle
  • ADH works in the kidneys in osmoregulation
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9
Q

what does the thyroid gland secrete and where does it work?

A

thyroxine works in the liver and controls metabolism

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10
Q

what does the adrenal gland secrete and where does it work?

A

adrenaline and cortisol work everywhere and control the fight or flight response

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11
Q

what does the pancreas secrete and where does it work?

A

insulin and glucagon work in the liver to regulate glucose levels

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12
Q

what are the 3 types of hormones?

A
  • steroid
  • peptide
  • amino acid derivates
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13
Q

how do steroid hormones work?

A
  • lipophilic so diffuse freely through the phospholipid bilayer
  • bind to receptors in cytoplasm or nucleus of target cell to form an active receptor-hormone complex which acts as a transcription factor for gene expression
  • moves into nucleus and binds directly to DNA leading to stimulation or inhibition of transcription of a specific gene
  • eg. oestrogen, progesterone, testosterone
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14
Q

what does the first messenger do?

A
  • the hormone brings the information/signal from endocrine gland
  • binds to a receptor on cell surface membrane
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15
Q

what does the second messenger do?

A

causes the effect in the cell eg. fight or flight

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16
Q

how do peptide hormones work?

A
  • hydrophilic so cannot cross the phospholipid bilayer
  • binds to receptors on surface of cell which are usually coupled to internally anchored proteins (G proteins)
  • the receptor complex activates a series of second messengers which initiate cell activity
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17
Q

what are the differences between hormonal and neuronal?

A
  • chemicals vs electrical impulses
  • blood vs nerves
  • hormonal slower
  • response widespread vs localised
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18
Q

what are the two parts of the adrenal glands?

A
  • adrenal cortex
  • adrenal medulla
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19
Q

what happens in the adrenal cortex?

A
  • outside
  • produces steroid hormones that are vital for life
  • -mineralcorticoids eg alodsterone
  • glucocorticoids
  • controlled by pituitary glands
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20
Q
A
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21
Q

what happens in the adrenal medulla?

A
  • inside
  • produces amine based hormones that are non essential
  • controlled by stress (sympathetic stimulation)
  • adrenaline and noradrenaline
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22
Q

what does the exocrine tissue of the pancreas do?

A

secretes a variety of digestive enzymes and alkaline pancreatic juice via the pancreatic duct into duodenum

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23
Q

what does the endocrine tissue of the pancreas do?

A

the islets of langerhans secrete glucagon and insulin

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24
Q

how do islets of langerhans appear under a microscope?

A
  • lighter stains
  • large spherical clusters
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25
Q

how do pancreatic acini (acinus) appear under a microscope?

A
  • darker stains
  • small berry like clusters
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26
Q

what are pancreatic acini?

A

glands which are the secretory unit of the pancreas

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27
Q

what % of the pancreatic tissue is exocrine?

A

98%

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28
Q

what are pancreatic islets?

A

spherical clusters of polygonal endocrine cells

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29
Q

how is the blood supply specialised in the islets?

A

permeated by fenestrated capillaries which allow quick entry of pancreatic hormones into blood

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30
Q

what % of pancreatic cells are endocrine?

A

2%

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31
Q

how many islets (roughly) are there in the pancreas?

A

1-2 million

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32
Q

what are the 4 types of pancreatic islet cells?

A
  • alpha
  • beta
  • delta
  • pancreatic polypeptide cells
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33
Q

what do beta cells do?

A

secrete insulin

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34
Q

what % of islet cells are beta cells?

A

70%

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35
Q

where in the islets are beta cells commonly located?

A

centre

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36
Q

what do alpha cells do?

A

secrete glucagon

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37
Q

what % of islet cells are alpha cells?

A

15-20%

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38
Q

where in the islet are alpha cells commonly located?

A

peripherally

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39
Q

why does blood glucose constantly fluctuate?

A
  • negative feedback loop so fluctuates in a narrow range
  • regulation after meals and exercise
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40
Q

what two antagonistic hormones are involved in blood glucose regulation?

A

glucagon and insulin

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41
Q

what happens when blood glucose is low?

A

glucagon is release from alpha cells and cause an increase in blood glucose concentration

42
Q

where are glucagon receptors found?

A

ONLY on liver and fat cells

43
Q

what is glycogenolysis?

A

stimulating glycogen breakdown in the liver which promotes glucose release by the liver and adipose tissue

44
Q

what is gluconeogenesis?

A

glucose being made from non carbohydrate stores eg. glycerol and amino acids

45
Q

what is glycogenesis?

A

the formation of glycogen from sugar

46
Q

how does glucagon increase blood glucose levels?

A
  • glycogenolysis
  • gluconeogenesis
  • reducing absorption of glucose into liver cells
  • decreasing rate of glucose breakdown by reducing cell respiration rate
47
Q

what role does adrenaline play in increasing blood glucose?

A
  • binds to different receptors on surface of liver
  • activates same enzyme cascade and leads to breakdown of glycogen by glycogen phosphorylase
  • stimulates muscle breakdown where needed for respiration
48
Q

what happens when blood glucose is high?

A

detected by beta cells which release insulin

49
Q

which cells have insulin receptors?

A

almost all

50
Q

how does insulin cause a decrease in blood glucose levels?

A
  • increased absorption (especially in skeletal muscle) as when insulin binds to receptor it leads to a change in its tertiary structure so channels open and cell becomes more permeable to glucose
  • activates enzymes within liver and adipose cells which converts glucose to glycogen
  • increase the rate of glucose breakdown by increasing respiration rates
51
Q

how is insulin released from beta cells?

A
  • when glucose concentration is high it enter the cell by facilitated diffusion (large and polar)
  • ATP is produced as the cell respires
  • high conc of ATP means they bind to potassium ion channels and close them which causes a change in membrane potential
  • depolarisation causes voltage gated Ca2+ channels to open
  • influx of calcium ions cause beta cells to secrete insulin
  • insulin-containing vesicles move towards the membrane and are released via exocytosis
52
Q

what is the action of insulin once it has been released?

A
  • muscle cells, fat storage cells , adipose cells and liver contain glucose transporter proteins (GTP) which are insulin sensitive in phospholipid bilayer
  • allows for uptake of glucose via facilitated diffusion
  • rate of uptake is limited by the number of GTPs
  • insulin binds to specific receptors on the membrane of target cells
  • this stimulates them to activate/add more GTPs to their bilayer which increases their permeability to glucose so rate of diffusion increase
53
Q

what does aldosterone do?

A

control body temp and water concs

54
Q

what is type 1 diabetes?

A

beta cells cant produce insulin

55
Q

what is the treatment for t1d?

A
  • insulin injections
  • monitor glucose levels
56
Q

what is type 2 diabetes?

A

body has reduced sensitivity to insulin due to the glycoprotein receptors not working properly

57
Q

what is the treatment for t2d?

A
  • diet and exercise
  • insulin injections
58
Q

what is the cause t1d?

A

autoimmune disease

59
Q

what is the cause of t2d?

A
  • excess weight
  • habitual overeating of refined carbs
  • inactivity
60
Q

what are the symptoms of t1d and why?

A
  • frequent urination
    water moves into blood to increase water potential
  • increased thirst
    replace water that moves out of cells
  • loss of consciousness
    glucose not being used in muscles for resp
61
Q

what are downsides to pig/cow insulin?

A
  • expensive
  • difficult
  • allergic reactions to non-self antigen
62
Q

what are the benefits to GM human insulin?

A
  • cheaper
  • overcome ethical issues with animals
  • less allergic reactions
  • mass produce
63
Q

what are the advantages to stem cell treatment in diabetes?

A
  • overcome organ donor problems
  • less likelihood of rejection
  • insulin injections not required
64
Q

what are the disadvantages to stem cell treatment in diabetes?

A
  • destruction of human embryos
  • could become cancerous
  • immunosuppressants
65
Q

why must insulin be injected rather than taken orally?

A

insulin is a protein that will get broken down by protease in the mouth

66
Q

what are the reactions in fight or flight?

A
  • Hr increases to pump more oxygenated blood around the body
  • pupils dilate to take in light
  • arterioles in skin constrict to get more blood to major muscle groups eg heart
  • blood glucose level increases for respiration
  • smooth muscle in lungs relax to allow more oxygen in
  • non essential systems eg digestion shut down to focus on emergency function
67
Q

what is the fight or flight repsonse?

A
  • autonomic nervous system detects a threat
  • hypothalamus communicates with sympathetic nervous system, adrenal cortical system and the pituitary gland
  • nervous impulses causes the adrenal medulla to secrete adrenaline and noradrenaline
  • pituitary gland secretes ACTH which stimulates the adrenal cortex to release cortisol and corticosterone
68
Q

what does adrenaline do in the fight or flight response?

A
  • increased HR to pump more oxygenated blood around the body
  • stimulates glycogenolysis to make glucose for resp
69
Q

what does noradrenaline do in the fight or flight response?

A
  • widening of pupils to let light in
  • dilation of bronchioles to allow more oxygen in
  • vasoconstriction to get more oxygen to muscle
70
Q

what does cortisol do in the fight or flight response?

A
  • increase blood pressure to maintain ion levels
  • increased blood glucose for respiration
71
Q

what does corticosterone do in the fight or flight response?

A
  • suppress the immune system to save energy for more important processes
  • reduce inflammatory response
72
Q

how does adrenaline work?

A
  • binds to complementary receptors (glycoproteins) in cell surface membrane
  • activates enzyme adenyl cyclase via anchored G proteins on livers surface
  • catalyses conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP which acts as a second messenger
73
Q

what is the action of adrenaline for glycogenesis?

A

(see how does adrenaline work flashcard)
- after cAMP formation it activates protein kinases to phosphorylates other enzymes and results in glycogen breakdown

74
Q

what 2 nerves are connected to the medulla oblongata and what do they do?

A
  • sympathetic nerve releases noradrenaline to increase HR by stimulating the SAN
  • vagus nerve (parasympathetic) releases acetylcholine to decrease HR
75
Q

what do chemoreceptors do?

A
  • detect chemical changes such as oxygen concentration, carbon dioxide levels and the pH of the blood
  • increased carbon dioxide means decreased pH which stimulates sympathetic nervous system and vice versa
76
Q

what do baroreceptors do?

A
  • detect changes in blood pressure
  • found in the carotid arteries and aorta
77
Q

what type of diabetes is likely to form in adults due to foetal undernutrition and why?

A

type 2 as it causes a change in metabolism and is not a autoimmune condition

78
Q

how would a delay in emptying of the stomach could improve management of t2d?

A
  • feel more full for longer
  • prevent rapid glucose absorption
  • eat less so less risk of obesity
79
Q

which type of diabetes is gestational diabetes closest to?

A

type 2 as insulin is still being produced but the liver cells dont respond to it

80
Q

describe when and how insulin is administered and how it acts to reduce blood glucose conc

A
  • administered with a pump prior to meals
  • bind to receptors in cell surface membrane of liver cells
  • it promotes uptake of glucose
  • triggers conversion of glucose to glycogen in glycogenesis
81
Q

how does adrenaline bind to cardiac cells?

A

binds to glycoprotein receptors on the cell surface membrane

82
Q

why don’t hormones act on individual muscle cells instead of SAN?

A

individual muscle cells would contract out of sync and so HR wouldnt increase

83
Q

how does adrenaline bring about a response inside SAN cells?

A

binds to receptors on cell surface membrane which triggers adenyl cyclase which converts ATP to cAMP which acts as a secondary messenger which depolarises the SAN

84
Q

what is the effect of long term stress on the body?

A
  • prolonged high BP can lead to cardiovascular problems
  • suppressed immune system leads to increased susceptibility to infections
85
Q

how could injury to the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland cause many different symptoms?

A

they produce a wide range of hormones which signal to other endocrine glands so many symptoms appear

86
Q

describe the function of the liver in urea production

A

combines ammonia and carbon dioxide as part of the ornithine cycle

87
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies produced for pregnancy tests?

A
  • mouse is injected with hCG to make correct antibody
  • the B cells that make the antibody are removed from the spleen and fused with a myeloma to form a hybridoma
  • divides rapidly and produce millions of the antibody
88
Q

how do pregnancy tests work?

A
  • urine on the wick moves down the stick
  • if it contains hCG then it can binds to receptors on free hCG antibodies that have coloured beads attached
  • this forms an hCG/antibody complex
  • moves to the first window where there are immobilised monoclonal antibodies that only bind to hCG/antibody complexes
  • this triggers the dye to show as a line
  • the solution moves to the second window where there a re a line of antibodies that bind to the mobile antibodies even if the don’t have hCG
  • if this line doesn’t show the test is faulty
89
Q

how do scientists test for anabolic steroids?

A

urine sampled in gas chromatography and mass spectrometry

90
Q

what are the effects of kidney failure?

A
  • protein in the urine if the podocytes or basement membrane in the bowmans capsule are damaged then larger molecules can pass into the urine
  • blood in urine
  • electrolyte imbalance and urea as kidneys cant filter out excess ions
  • high blood pressure as water potential cannot be controlled
91
Q

what are the two types of dialysis?

A

haemodialysis and peritonial dialysis

92
Q

why should there be no glucose in the urine?

A

reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule

93
Q

why might there be proteins in the urine?

A
  • blood pressure too high
  • kidney infection
  • fault with filtration
94
Q

how is glomerular filtration rate affected by kidney failure?

A

less blood filtered by the glomerulus causing GFR to decrease and toxins build up in blood

95
Q

how is GFR measured?

A
  • blood test measures creatine levels
  • breakdown product in muscles give estimated GFRcm^3/min
96
Q

what factors affect GFR?

A
  • age
  • gender
  • diet
  • ethnicity
  • pregnancy
  • fitness
97
Q

how does haemodialysis work?

A
  • partially permeable membrane separates blood from dialysate
  • blood passes through tubes surrounded by dialysate
  • dialysate contains substances needed in the blood (glucose, Na2+)
  • as the conc of substances that are needed are in the right quantities in the dialysate, substances only move in or out when the blood has incorrect concs
  • dialysate is constantly refreshed so conc grad is maintained
  • contains no urea so it moves out of the blood
98
Q

how does peritoneal dialysis work?

A
  • makes use of the natural lining of the peritoneum so active transport can occur
  • dialysate is introduced into the abdomen through a catheter
  • drained out to maintain conc grad so urea can move out
99
Q

what are the differences in haemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis?

A
  • passive vs active transport and facilitated diffusion
  • removes more waste (more effective) vs less effective
  • fluid constantly refreshed vs not constant so conc grad less
  • countercurrent flow vs not
100
Q

what are the advantages of a kidney transplant?

A
  • quality of life
  • less restrictive diets
  • less expensive
  • long term
101
Q

what are the disadvantages of a kidney transplant?

A
  • immunosuppressants
  • long term side effects
  • not enough donors to cope with demand
  • risk of rejection
  • organ needs to be replaced after 10 years

communication, homeostasis and energy (6 decks)

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