HIV and Retroviruses - AuCoin Flashcards

1
Q

Is HIV + or - sense RNA?

A

+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Human T lymphotrophic virus is (blank) virus causing adult T cell leukemia

A

oncovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is HTLV spread?

A

via semen, blood, and breast milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Does HTLV have a long or short incubation period?

A

long, 20-50 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Increased skin lesions, leukemia cells histologically, hepatosplenomegaly, and HYPERCALCEMIA are suggestive of:

A

HTLV causing ATL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the cause of the hypercalcemia in ATL?

A

increased PTHRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Are retroviruses enveloped or neked?

A

enveloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of Pol do retroviruses code?

A

RNA dep DNA Pol (REVERSE TRASCRIPTASE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the fate of the DNA copy of the viral genome?

A

incorporated into the host genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When the viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome it becomes a cellular gene, aka (blank)

A

provirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What was the first retrovirus to be isolated?

A

Rous sarcoma virus; infects chx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Other cancer causing retroviruses are classified as (blank) or (blank)

A

RNA tumor viruses or oncornaviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

oncoviruses alter cell growth by expressing analogues of cell growth controlling genes such as (blank)

A

v-src

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What was the first retrovirus found to cause human disease?

A

HTLV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Gays, haitians, heroin addicts, and hemophiliacs were the original groups in which (blank) was seen

A

AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the four criteria for retrovirus classification?

A
  1. disease they cause
  2. tissue tropism and host range
  3. virion morphology
  4. genetic complexity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HTLV 1, 2, 5 belong to what family?

A

Oncovirinae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HIV 1 and 2 belong to what family?

A

Lentivirinae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F: spumavirinae was the first isolated human retrovirus, but it doesn’t do shit to ya

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which family of retrovirus is associated with neuologic and immunosuppresive diseases?

A

lentivirus (HIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the only family of retrovirus that can immortalize or transform target tissues?

A

HTLV (oncovirinae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the shape and size in nm of retroviruses?

A

SPHERICAL, enveloped, +RNA, 80-120nm in size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: the retrovirus genome is +ssRNA

A

FALSE: TWO IDENTICAL SEPARATE COPIES OF +SSRNA WTF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Does HIV have a large or small genome?

A

small, only 9kb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What else is contained within the retrovirus capsid besides the weird genome?

A

10-50 copies of RT AND INTEGRASE, and two cellular tRNAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the function of the two tRNAs in the retrovirus capsid?

A

they are base-paired to each genome copy to act as primers for RT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

WHat post-translation mods have been made to the retroviral genome?

A

5’ cape and 3’ poly A tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the shape of the HIV nucleocapsid?

A

cone/bullet shaped (D-type) or central symmetrical (C-type)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

do retroviruses code polyproteins or one gene one protein?

A

polyproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the three major genes encoded by all retroviruses?

A

gag
pol
env

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what does gag code for?

A

group specific antigen (capsid, matrix, and nucleic acid binding proteins) STRUCTURAL PROTEINS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what does pol code for?

A

RT, protease, and integrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what does env code for?

A

envelope (glycoproteins gp120- and gp41 for HIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

At the end of each genome there are (blank) sequences that contain promoters and enhancers to bind cellular transcription factors

A

long-terminal repeats (LTR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

HTLV and HIV encode virulence enhancing proteins that require what type of advanced transcriptional processing?

A

splicing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How are the viral glycoproteins made from the env polyprotein?

A

proteolytic cleavage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the function of gp41?

A

promotes cell fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

gp120 is extensively (phosphorylated/glycosylated)

A

glycosylated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T/F: gp120 antigenicity and receptor specificity can drift throughout the course of a single HIV infection

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Ag drift and change in receptor spec. of gp120 effects the immune system how?

A

makes it harder to clear the virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Is it viral or cellular proteases that cleave the viral polyproteins>?

A

cellular proteases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

why is gp120 glycosylated?

A

hides the important epitopes from the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

On the lollipop-stick model, which is 120 and which is 41?

A

120 is sucker and 41 is the stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

By what process does HIV enter the cell?

A

fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where does RT take RNA to DNA?

A

cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What two receptors does HIV need to bind to enter the cell?

A

CD4 and CCR5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What cells express CCR5

A

macrophages and T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

during chronic infection, the env gene mutates and gp120 can bind what other receptor?

A

CXCR4, on T cells

49
Q

does 41 or 120 promote fusion?

A

41

50
Q

What sense is the DNA made by RT?

A

-sense

51
Q

(blank) also acts as a ribonuclease H to degrade teh +RNA from the -DNA

A

RT

52
Q

What is the error rate of RT?

A

1:2000

53
Q

What integrates the viral cDNA into the host csome?

A

integrase

54
Q

What sequences are duplicated that allow for integration into the host csome?

A

LTRs

55
Q

(blank) transcribes the provirus into full length RNA

A

HOST RNA Pol II

56
Q

What are the three proteins made from the HIV provirus?

A

gag
gag-pol
env

57
Q

T/F: lentiviruses can survive as just plain old cDNA in the cytoplasm until the cell divides

A

true

58
Q

Recognition of the enhancer and promoter regions in the LTR determine tissue (blank)

A

tropism

59
Q

what is the function of rev?

A

regulation of RNA splicing and promotion of export to cytoplasm

60
Q

what is the function of tat?

A

transactivation of viral and cellular genes

61
Q

what is the function of nef?

A

decreases surface CD4 and T cell activation leading to AIDS

62
Q

what is the function of vif?

A

virus infectivity, promotion of assembly, blocks, cellular antiviral proteins

63
Q

what is the function of vpr?

A

transport of cDNA to nucleus, arrests cell growth

64
Q

what is the function of vpu?

A

faciliatates virion assembly and release

65
Q

(blank) polyprotein is the matrix, capsid, and nucleocapsid

A

Gag

66
Q

(blank) polyprotein is the protease, RT, and integrase

A

Gag-pol

67
Q

Where in the cell are viral glycoproteins translated?

A

the rER

68
Q

Where does glycosylation of viral glycoproteins happen?

A

inside the rER, then goes to golgi via secretory pathway

69
Q

Where doe the gag and gag-pol proteins bind?

A

plasma membrane

70
Q

two copies of the genome and the cellular tRNA promotes (blank) of the virion

A

budding

71
Q

The (host/viral) protease cleaves gag and gag-pol to release RT to form the virion core

A

viral

72
Q

When does the viral protease cleave gag and gag-pol?

A

AFTER release from the cell

73
Q

What is the major determinant of the pathogenesis and disease caused by HIV?

A

viral tropism for CD4 expressing T cells and myeloid cells

74
Q

What myeloid cells besides T cells are infected by HIV?

A

monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, and microglial cells of the brain!

75
Q

T/F: HIV production is persistent for life

A

true

76
Q

T/F: HIV causes syncytia formation

A

true

77
Q

T/F: CD8 function and numbers decrease

A

true, it ain’t all about CD4!

78
Q

What cells does HIV lyse and what cells does it cause latent infection in?

A

lyses CD4 T cells and latent infection in myeloid cells

79
Q

during sex HIV infects what surfaces?

A

mucosal

80
Q

How is someone resistant to HIV infection?

A

deficient in CCR5 receptors

81
Q

What are the major reservoirs and means of transmission of HIV?

A

persistent infection in macrophages, DCs, memory T cells, and hematopoietic stem cells

82
Q

an increased release of HIV into the blood and a decrease in CD4 cells leads to what?

A

AIDS

83
Q

what protein promotes the progression of HIV to AIDS?

A

nef

84
Q

T/f: there are wild-type variations of nef that don’t develop into AIDS

A

true

85
Q

What is the hallmark (from a replication standpoint) of an acute HIV infection?

A

large burst of virus

86
Q

What causes the mono-like syndrome associated with an an acute HIV infection

A

the T cell proliferation and response to the HIV infection

87
Q

Where does viral replication continue in the latent period?

A

lymph nodes

88
Q

What happens to the lymph nodes and CD8 cells in chronic HIV infection?

A

CD8 cells decrease and lymph node architecture is destroyed

89
Q

Constitutional symptoms of HIV appear at what viral titer?

A

1:8

90
Q

Opportunistic disease appears at what viral titer?

A

1:128

91
Q

Death occurs at what viral titer?

A

1:512

92
Q

In AIDS, (blank)-specific immune responses are incapacitated

A

antigen-specific

93
Q

What are the predominant cell types infected with HIV in the brain?

A

microglial cells and macrophages

94
Q

What do the HIV infected cells i the brain release that causes neuro symptoms?

A

neurotoxic substances or chemotactic factors promoting inflammation

95
Q

is humoral or cell mediated immunity good against viremia and at mucosal surfaces?

A

humoral

96
Q

Onset of AIDS is what CD4 count and full blown AIDS is what count?

A

onset: 350

full blown: 200

97
Q

What is the viral load in AIDS?

A

75,000 copies/mL

98
Q

HIV wasting syndrome is seen in (blank)

A

AIDS

99
Q

T/F:AIDS can cause dementia

A

true

100
Q

WHat does AIDS dementia resemble?

A

Alzheimer’s

101
Q

IN what percent of adults with AIDS do we see neurologic complications?

A

greater than 50%

102
Q

T/F: enveloped viruses are easily inactivated

A

true

103
Q

Is the prodromal period of HIV long or short?

A

long

104
Q

T/F: HIV can be shed BEFORE any identifiable symptoms

A

true

105
Q

In what body fluids is HIV present?

A

blood, semen, and vaginal secretions

106
Q

Before 1985, what two groups of patients were at risk of getting HIV by accident?

A

organ transplant pts and hemophiliacs

107
Q

What are the four reasons that HIV lab testing is done?

A
  1. ID those infected to start Tx
  2. ID carriers
  3. Confirm Dx of AIDS
  4. Evaluate Tx efficacy
108
Q

T/F: serologic tests cannot ID recently infected people

A

true

109
Q

When do you see large volumes of viral RNA and p24 Ag in the blood in HIV infection?

A

recent infection or late-stage disease

110
Q

What is the ratio of CD4/CD8 in HIV pts

A

super low

111
Q

can you isolate HIV in culture?

A

nope

112
Q

When do you use RT PCR do Dx HIV?

A

If serology was positive for the Ab or for viral Ag, but HIV 1 /2 differentiation was negative or “indeterminate”

113
Q

When do you start HIV treatment when CD4 is still above 350 cells/uL?

A

When viral load is greater than 100,000/ml

114
Q

Have protein subunit vaccines to HIV been successful?

A

no, they only make immunity to one strain

115
Q

What is the MOA of the HIV vaccine currently being studied?

A

production of a neutralizing Ab to the CD4 binding site of gp120

116
Q

What is in the DNA vaccine for HIV?

A

plasmid based eukaryotic expression vectors containing gp160 and other HIV genes

117
Q

the most recent HIV vaccine primes (T/B) cells with vaccinia, canarypox, herpesvirus, or a defective adenovirus vector

A

T cells

118
Q

What are the common symptoms of an AIDS onset?

A

night sweats, wt. loss, oral thrush and cervical lymphadenopathy

119
Q

Where is HTLV common?

A

Carribean islands