HIV/AIDS Flashcards

1
Q

When did HIV begin?

A

1981 - initially called GRID - gay related immune deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who are over 50% of new infections transmitted by?

A

People who are unaware of their HIV status
** why encouraging the public to know their HIV status is a critical public health initiative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What populations are most affected by HIV infections in Canada?

A
  1. Men who have sex with men
  2. Injection drug users
  3. Aboriginal people
    **Aboriginal people overrepresented in Canada’s HIV epidemic = rate of new infections 2.7x higher than other groups
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the largest population of people living with HIV?

A

Globally 38.4 million people living with HIV
Largest population is sub-Saharan Africa = 69% of all global HIV infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Compare and contrast HIV-1 and HIV-2.

A

Similarities: both have similar structure and function
Differentiated by: envelope glycoproteins, point of origin, latency period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is HIV-1 found? Where was it believed to have originated?

A

Central Africa **origin
North America,
Europe,
Australia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the major classes of HIV-1?

A

M = main
N = new
O = outlier
+/- P = newest class

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is HIV-2 found and what are the diseases general characteristics?

A

Found primarily in West Africa
1. milder disease
2. less virulent
3. longer latency period,
4. no clades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are clades?

A

Distinctive branches or subtypes that HIV can be further divided into
- HIV has lots of clades due to the rapid rate of mutation
* individuals can be infected with more than one clade of HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many clades are within HIV-1?

A

9 clades within the 3 main classes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What fluids can HIV be transmitted by? (5)

A
  1. Blood
  2. Semen
  3. Pre-ejaculate
  4. Vaginal secretions
  5. Breast milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HIV transmission is a result of what?

A

Exposure to body fluids of infected individuals
Nature of exposure = risk of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 3 main modes of HIV transmission?

A
  1. Sexual contact
  2. Blood contact
  3. Vertical/mother-to-child transmission (MTCT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 3 types of sexual contact that can result in HIV transmission?

A
  1. Anal sex - homo or heterosexual, higher risk of tearing/injury
  2. Vaginal sex
  3. Oral sex - oral lesions & contact with infections semen/secretions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What age group is more vulnerable to contacting HIV through vaginal sex and why? (3)

A

Young women, 13-25 yr are more vulnerable due to:
1. immature genital tract mucosa = less reliable mucous production = higher risk of injury
2. More likely to practice unsafe sex
3. Less likely to seek out or access healthcare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are 3 categories of transmission under blood contact? Give examples of each.

A
  1. Injections/needles - sharing needles, needle stick injuries, infected tattoo/skin piercing instruments
  2. Contact with broken skin - sports, occupational hazard, developing countries
  3. Transfusions or transplant of infected organs or tissues - higher incidence in developing countries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When can MTCT or vertical transmission occur?

A

Pregnancy
Delivery
Breastfeeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What 6 factors influence vertical transmission of HIV?

A
  1. Stage of infection
  2. Breastfeeding pattern
  3. Oral lesions in baby or breast lesions in mother
  4. GI illness
  5. Antiretroviral therapy
  6. Invasive procedures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does stage of infections influence risk of vertical transmission?

A

Higher viral load occurs early in infection = increased risk of transmission = if an infection occurs during of just before pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does breastfeeding pattern influence vertical transmission of HIV?

A

Breastfeeding patterns: exclusive vs mixed
- Exclusive has decreased risk than mixed
- Risk of transmission increases with duration of breastfeeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do oral or breast lesions influence vertical transmission of HIV?

A

Oral lesions in baby or breast lesions in mother = increase risk due to:
- increased portals of entry
- increased exposure to blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does GI illness in baby influence vertical transmission of HIV?

A

GI illness = weakened gut = increased portals of entry for virus in breastmilk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does antiretroviral therapy (ART) influence vertical transmission of HIV?

A

ART significantly decreases risk during of transmission during pregnancy & labour/delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do invasive procedures influence vertical transmission of HIV?

A

Ex. of invasive procedure = use of forceps during delivery
– can cause increased portals of entry and increase blood exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What virus family does HIV belong to?

A

Retrovirus family: viruses that carry their genetic material in the form of RNA and use the reverse transcriptase enzyme to convert RNA into viral DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What genus does HIV belong to?

A

Lentivirus genus: viruses (within the retrovirus family) that
- affect the nervous and immune systems
- have long latency periods
- have persistent viremia
- have more complex genome structure than other retroviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the main elements of HIV’s structure.

A
  1. Envelope - gp120 spikes with gp41 stems
  2. Core - bullet shaped, surrounded by the capsid
  3. Within the core
    - 2 identical strands of RNA
    - 3 critical enzymes: reverse transcriptase, integrase, protease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where can HIV be found at any given time? (5)

A
  1. Mucous membranes - macrophages & dendritic cells
  2. Actively infected CD4 lymphocytes
  3. Latently infected CD4 lymphocytes (can be latent for 2 years)
  4. Memory CD4 cells
  5. Floating or “free” virus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the ‘sanctuary sites’ of HIV? (2)

A
  1. Brain & CNS
  2. Immune system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the vulnerable target cells for HIV?

A

Uninfected but activated CD4 cells - they become infected when they arrive at the site of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe HIV’s summary of infection and what the result of that is.

A
  1. Portal of entry
  2. Virus taken up by macrophages +/- T-helper cells
  3. Virus replicates
  4. Either become latent or is released
  5. If released (cytolysis of infected cell facilitates virus release)
    - increased viral load in blood,
    - loss of B cell function
    - immunodeficiency – opportunistic infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the target cells for HIV?

A

** any cell that has CD4 receptors – T-helper cells, dendritic cells, microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Explain the receptors and co-receptors that are required for HIV to bind to host cells.

A

gp120 protein spike binds to CD4 receptors
co-receptors are required for different cell types:
- CCR5: co-receptors for binding to macrophages (are m-trophic)
- CXCR4: co-receptors for binding to T-helper cells (are t-trophic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When do certain cell types become infected?

A

Macrophages become infected during early stages of infection
T-helper cells become infected during later stages of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the three phases of the HIV course of infection?

A
  1. Acute primary HIV infection phase
  2. Chronic asymptomatic or latency phase
  3. AIDS phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How long is the progression of infection in an untreated person?

A

8-12 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define the acute primary HIV infection phase.

A

–> the time from initial infection to development of a detectable antibody response
usually 6-8 weeks

38
Q

What lab results occur early in the acute infection phase?

A

In first 2 weeks:
- large amount of viral replication = increased viral load
- decreased CD4 count

39
Q

What is peak viremia?

A

The mild flu-like symptoms (most experience rash to trunk) that occur 10-25 days after exposure and last 1-2 weeks

40
Q

What is seroconversion?

A

The point in the acute phase where the immune system starts controlling viral replication = antibodies are present
– occurs 3 weeks to 3 months after infection (depending on health of person)

41
Q

What is the window period or lag time?

A

The time between exposure and seroconversion where the person is infection but doesn’t have antibodies yet
- would give a false negative test

42
Q

What is the viral set point?

A

The amount of virus that’s present after initial viremia and seroconversion (immune control) after

43
Q

What important information does the acute phase tell providers?

A

The events of the primary infection = duration & intensity of symptoms –> important indicators of the individual’s disease course

44
Q

Describe the chronic asymptomatic or latency phase of infection.

A

Where individual has stable viral load and doesn’t have signs or symptoms

45
Q

What does ‘stable viral load’ mean?

A

When the number of newly infected cells equals the number of cells that die from infection

46
Q

What happens to the CD4 count during the chronic asymptomatic phase?

A

CD4 count drops by 50-90 cells/microL per year = this accelerates over time

47
Q

What is the median time for the latency phase?

A

In an untreated person = 10 years

48
Q

What does the AIDS phase typically present with? (3)

A
  1. Opportunistic infections
  2. Secondary neoplasms/cancer
  3. Wasting syndrome
49
Q

What are examples of opportunist infections that can occur during the AIDS phase?

A
  • Karposi’s sarcoma
  • lymphoma
  • varicella
  • bacterial & pneumocystis pneumonia
  • TB
  • toxoplasmosis
  • cytomegalovirus (frequently occurs at end of life for AIDS patients)
50
Q

Define wasting syndrome.

A

Unintended weight loss of >10% body weight – resulting in weakness, diarrhea, nutritional deficiencies

51
Q

What is the CD4 count of a person in the AIDS phase?

A

< 200 cells/microL

52
Q

What diagnostic information does the CDC use for staging HIV infections?

A
  • CD4 count
  • symptoms (more in developing countries)
53
Q

What is a normal CD4 count?

A

1000-1200 cells/microL

54
Q

What are the 3 stages and their CD4 counts that the CDC uses?

A

Stage 1: no significant immunocompromise = CD4 > 500
Stage 2: advanced immunocompromise = CD4 200-499
Stage 3: severe immunocompromise (AIDS) = CD4 < 200

55
Q

Why is CD4 count useful in HIV staging?

A

** determining degree of immunocompromise
- can be used to reinforce clinical decision-making
- long-term prognosis is related to lowest measured CD4 count

56
Q

What is important to note about CDC stages?

A

They can be downgraded but not upgraded – aka you can get worse but not better

57
Q

What factors influence the time it takes for the immune system to create HIV antibodies? (4)

A
  1. genetics
  2. how transmission occurred
  3. the amount of virus person was exposed to
  4. if post-exposure prophylaxis occurred
58
Q

What are 3 methods of screening for HIV?

A
  1. Point of care (POC)/rapid HIV testing = looks for antibody presence (seroconversion)
  2. 3rd generation EIA (enzyme immunoassay)
  3. Home test kit
59
Q

What confirmatory tests are used for HIV?

A

Is a 2-step process
Step 1: 4th generation EIA - if positive = proceed to next step
Step 2: western blot - gold standard

60
Q

What test is used for acute HIV infection testing? Who is it used for?

A

P24 antigen test to diagnose acute infection - detects viral RNA in plasma
- used for high-risk exposures, high risk populations, infants

61
Q

When can the p24 antigen test be used?

A

As early as 2-3 days after symptoms start
Peaks at 3-4 weeks after exposure

62
Q

What is the P24 antigen test called in BC?

A

RNA NAAT

63
Q

What are 4 important lab values that are monitored

A
  1. CD4 count
  2. CD8 count
  3. CD4/CD8 ratio
  4. Viral load
64
Q

What happens to CD4 count 6 months after seroconversion?

A

CD4 count drops by ~30%

65
Q

What happens to CD8 count 6 months after seroconversion?

A

CD8 count rises by ~40%

66
Q

What is the normal CD4/CD8 ratio?

A

Person without HIV, ratio > 1 = usually 4:1

67
Q

What is the CD4/CD8 ratio in HIV positive individual? What is the result?

A

ratio < 1 – usually 0:08
Result – less CD4 cells to activate CD8 cells = less able to activate cell-mediated immunity = it’s less effective

68
Q

What is viral load reported as?

A

** the actual amount of free virus in the plasma
Reported as # of virus copies detected in 1ml

69
Q

What are 3 tests that can measure viral load?

A
  1. HIV RNA amplification (RT-PCR) test
  2. Branched chain DNA (bDNA) test
  3. Nucleic acid sequence based amplification assay (NASBA)
70
Q

How is baseline viral load measured?

A

2 measurements 2-4 weeks apart after positive serology test
- continue monitoring every 3-4 months

71
Q

What is baseline viral load used to determine?

A
  • when to start antiretroviral therapy
  • making adjustments to ART
72
Q

What does viral load tell us?

A
  1. relationship between the virus & rate of disease progression
  2. rate of viral turnover
  3. relationship between immune system activation & viral replication
73
Q

What happens to CD4 and CD8 counts as viral load increases?

A

CD4 decreases
CD8 increases

74
Q

What are the 5 categories of antiretroviral drugs?

A
  1. Fusion inhibitors
  2. Protease inhibitors
  3. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  4. Integrase inhibitors
  5. Co-receptor inhibitors
75
Q

How do fusion inhibitors work?

A

Inhibits ability of virus to fuse with host cells by binding to gp41 - becomes rigid & can’t make configurational change
** enfuviritide (fuzeon) or T20

76
Q

How to protease inhibitors work?

A

Blocks protease enzyme which blocks viral assembly
** atazanavir (Reyataz)
side effects: lipodystrophy & hyperglycemia

77
Q

What are the two types of reverse transcriptase inhibitors?

A
  1. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) = nukes
  2. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) - non-nukes
78
Q

How do nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors work?

A

Blocks reverse transcriptase = premature termination of DNA strand
Side effects: lactic acidosis, hepatomegaly
** AZT or ABC

79
Q

How do non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors work?

A

Bind to reverse transcriptase = prevents conversion of RNA to DNA
side effects: rash
** delaviridne (rescriptor)

80
Q

How to intgrase inhibitors work?

A

Stops transfer of viral RNA into host DNA
** kaltegravir (isentress)

81
Q

How do co-receptor inhibitors work?

A

CCR5 Antagonist - blocks co-receptor to prevent fusion of virus to host cell
** maraviroc (celsentri)

82
Q

What are the treatment recommendation and clinical stages from the BC centre for excellence in HIV/AIDS?

A
  • if symptomatic or have CD4 < 500 = start treatment
  • if asymptomatic with CD4 > 500 but have risk factors = start treatment
83
Q

What 5 risk factors are considered by the BC Centre for Excellence in HIV/AIDS when starting treatment?

A
  1. Increased risk of disease progression
  2. Age > 50
  3. HIV-associated kidney disease
  4. Pregnancy
  5. Risk of HIV transmission
84
Q

What is the first indication of success HIV treatment via antiretrovirals?

A

Decrease in viral load

85
Q

How is the efficacy of HIV ART monitored?

A

Regular assessment of viral load and CD4 count
– checked at 4 weeks, then every 4-8 weeks until suppression is achieved, then every 3-4 months for the first year

86
Q

How is the ART concentration in the blood monitored and what is it used for?

A

Peak & trough values
Used to:
- predict toxicity
- max efficiency
- evidence of adherence

87
Q

What are some of the reasons why ART may fail to suppress viral replication? (5)

A
  1. Incomplete adherence
  2. Poor absorption
  3. Toxicity/side effects = pts lowering or missing doses
  4. Pharmacokinetic interactions
  5. Infected with resistant viruses
88
Q

What are some of the long-term side effects of ART? (7)

A
  1. Kidney problems
  2. Liver problems
  3. Decreased bone density
  4. Skin rash
  5. Nerve problems
  6. Pancreatitis/diabetes
  7. Changes in fat metabolism
89
Q

What information do we know about ‘curing’ HIV?

A
  1. Only 5 people globally have been cured
  2. Difficult to determined if ‘cured’ due to long latency period
  3. Cure was: person had blood cancer, underwent stem cell transplant from donor with CCR5 mutation
90
Q

What is HIV resistance testing useful to determine?

A
  1. What drugs not to use in patients with increasing viral loads despite therapy
  2. Used in previously untreated individuals who may be infected with resistant HIV strain
    ** similar to C&S testing for bacteria