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MS > HIV/AIDS > Flashcards

HIV/AIDS Flashcards

1
Q

What are in the Chain of Infection?

A
  1. Infectious agent
  2. Reservoir
  3. Portal of Exit
  4. Mode of Transmission
  5. Portal of Entry
  6. Susceptible Host
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2
Q

What are the modes of transmission?

A

Airborne
Droplet
Contact

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3
Q

What is standard precaution?

A

Set of infection control practices used to prevent transmission of diseases that can be acquired by contact with blood, body fluids, non-intact skin (including rashes), and mucous membranes

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4
Q

What are the three types of lymphocytes and their functions?

A

Killer T cells – phagocytizes the microorganisms
Helper T cells –cannot kill the microorganisms; activates the beta cells to produce anti-bodies (Immunoglobulin A, G, &M); antibodies together with killer T cells phagocytizes the microorganisms
Suppressor T cells – if cells observes that the microorganisms were killed, orders less production of RBCs and antibodies

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5
Q

What is opportunistic infection?

A

Illnesses caused by various organisms, some of which usually do not cause disease in people with normal immune systems

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6
Q

White blood cells that are an essential part of the human immune system

A

CD4 + T helper cells

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7
Q

What is the normal value of CD4?

A

500 to 1500 cells/mm3 of blood

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8
Q

Important laboratory test that is going to inform doctors if the drugs being taken is effective.

A

CD4

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9
Q

Group of serious illnesses & opportunistic infection that develop after a person is infected with HIV for a long period of time

A

AIDS

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10
Q

Virus that causes infection. Person infected may have no signs of illness but can still infect others

A

HIV

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11
Q

How is HIV/AIDS contracted?

A

Sexual contact
Sharing hypodermic needles/syringes
Mother to infant

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12
Q

Considered to be the highest risk factor of HIV

A

Unprotected Anal sex

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13
Q

Why are the homosexuals and bisexuals are commonly affected by HIV/AIDS?

A

Cells in the anal are so thin so they are susceptible to HIV than the cells in the vagina; semen and rectal mucosa carry more HIV compared to the vaginal fluid

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14
Q

HIV can be transmitted to the baby in 3 ways

A

o During pregnancy
o During vaginal childbirth
o Breastfeeding

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15
Q

Much better predictor of the risk of HIV progression than CD4 count

A

Viral load

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16
Q

Stages of HIV Infection

A

primary infection
symptomatic
AIDS

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17
Q

responsible for the maturation of lymphocytes

A

thymus

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18
Q

what is HIV?

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

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19
Q

What is HAART?

A

Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy

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20
Q

What is ART?

A

Anti Retroviral Therapy

21
Q

True or False. Anyone who has less than 200 CD4 cells is considered to have AIDS

A

True

22
Q

True or False. Most people who are HIV infected will develop AIDS after some time

A

True

23
Q

True or False. Even if the symptoms of AIDS develop & then subside for a while, that virus is not present, & the infected person will not transmit the disease

A

False

24
Q

True or False. If the person with HIV is receiving oral sex, the person giving it may have a higher risk

A

True

25
Q

True or False. Saliva is a carrier of the virus

A

False

26
Q

Interval between the appearance of detectable HIV RNA and the first detection of antibodies

A

Primary Infection

27
Q

Patients are asymptomatic at this stage

A

Primary Infection

28
Q

What stage is when the symptoms may appear until 7 to 10 years after being infected?

A

Symptomatic or Stage 2

29
Q

CD4 T lymphocyte cells are between 200 & 499

A

Stage 2 or Symptomatic

30
Q

When the person’s ability to fight a disease has been weakened by HIV

A

AIDS

31
Q

Includes minor mucocutaneous manifestations and recurrent URTI

A

Stage 2

32
Q

Includes unexplained chronic diarrhea, for longer than a month, severe bacterial tuberculosis

A

Stage 3

33
Q

Includes toxoplasmosis of the brain, candidacies of the esophagus, trachea, lungs, and kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Stage 4

34
Q

Cancer of the skin

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

35
Q

It is used to track viral load and response to treatment of HIV infection

A

Target amplification methods

36
Q

It is used to detect HIV in high-risk seronegative people before antibodies are measured. Confirms EIA result & screen neonates

A

RT-PCR

37
Q

It occurs between the time of HIV infection and the time when diagnostic tests can detect HIV

A

Window period

38
Q

Analyzes HIV positive blood samples to determine whether a HIV infection is recent or has been ongoing

A

STARHS (Serologic Testing Algorithm for Recent HUV Seroconversion)

39
Q

Test for detect antibodies not HIV itself

A

Antibody test

40
Q

People with AIDS generally experience increased protein metabolism – decrease in lean body mass due to muscle & protein breakdown

A

Wasting Syndrome

41
Q

Usually brownish pink to deep purple and may be flat or raised surrounded by ecchymosis and edema

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

42
Q

Most common opportunistic infection in persons affected with HIV

A

Pneumocysti Pneumonia

43
Q

Rapid restoration of organism specific immune responses to infections that cause either the deterioration of a treated infection or new presentation of a subclinical infection

A

Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS)

44
Q

Characterized by fever, respiratory and/or abdominal symptoms, and worsening if the clinical manifestations of opportunistic infections or of new manifestations

A

IRIS (Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome)

45
Q

Drug you can take when you do not have the virus yet

A

Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)

46
Q

True or False. PrEP does NOT prevent other STI, must use a condom in order to prevent it

A

True

47
Q

Most include combination of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors and protease inhibitor

A

ART

48
Q

o Reduce HIV associated morbidity and prolong the duration and quality of survival
o Restore and preserve immunologic function
o Maximally and durably suppress plasma HIV viral load
o Prevent HIV transmission

A

Goals of ART

49
Q

Three drugs are prescribed, starts as soon as possible, not more than 72 hours (3 days) after possible HIV exposure

A

Post Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

MS (4 decks)

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