Histopathology Flashcards

1
Q

Neutrophils

A

associated with acute inflammation

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2
Q

Lymphocytes and plasma cells

A

associated with chronic inflammation and also lymphomas (sheaths of lymphocytes)

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3
Q

Eosinophils

A

associated with allergic reactions (and drug-induced), parasitic infections, and tumours (eg. Hodgkin’s lymphoma eosinophils as a reaction to the cancer, they’re not the cancer cells themselves)

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4
Q

Eosinophilic oesophagitis

A

feline contractions

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5
Q

Mast cells

A

characteristically large granules containing lots of inflammatory mediators
allergic reactions

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6
Q

Macrophages

A

lots of cytoplasm, inconspicuous nucleus
associated with late acute inflammation and chronic inflammation (including granulomas)

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7
Q

Granuloma

A

organised collection of activated macrophages
become more secretory rather than phagocytic

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8
Q

How to tell if sputum sample is actually from alveoli?

A

if contains macrophages

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9
Q

Stain for TB

A

acid fast stain
Ziehl-Neelson
(red)

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10
Q

Ontological classification

A

classified according to cells of origins

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11
Q

Types of carcinomas

A

= malignant tumours of epithelial cells
most common tumours seen
1. squamous cell carcinoma
2. Adenocarcinoma
3. Transitional cell carcinoma

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12
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

keratin production (not always)
intercellular bridges

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13
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

mucin production
glands

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14
Q

Sites of origin of squamous cell carcinomas

A

skin
head and neck
oesophagus
anus
cervix
vagina

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15
Q

Sites of origin of adenocarcinoma

A

lung
breast
pancreas
colon
stomach

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16
Q

Prussian blue stain

A

stains for ferritin (iron)

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17
Q

Congo red stain

A

amyloid
under polarised light: apple green birefringence

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18
Q

CD45

A

lymphoid marker

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19
Q

Van den bergh test

A

measures serum bilirubin via fractionation
direct reaction measures conjugated bilirubin (addition of methanol causes a complete reaction which measures total bilirubin)
indirect reaction measures unconjugated bilirubin (the difference)

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20
Q

Paediatric jaundice

A

usually normal due to immaturity of liver and fall of Hb in early life so bilirubin will be high and unconjugated
if it doesn’t settle, may be caused by something else eg. hypothyroidism or other causes of haemolysis (do coombe’s or DAT)

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21
Q

why do we use phototherapy for unconjugated bilirubinaema?

A

skin can also conjugate bilirubin
can convert bilirubin into 2 other compounds: lumirubin and photobilirubin which are isomers that do not need excretion or conjugation

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22
Q

Gilbert’s syndrome

A

quite common
recessive inheritance
raised bilirubin with all other LFTs normal
bilirubin increases with fasting and decreased by phenobarb
50% of people carry the gene
prevalence in population is 5.6%
don’t need biopsy or USS

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23
Q

Gilbert’s pathology

A

UDP glucoronyl transferase activity reduced to 30%
unconjugated bilirubin is tightly bound to albumin and does not enter urine
NB: will still have urobilinogen in urine as entero-hepatic circulation is still functional

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24
Q

No urobilinogen in the urine

A

obstructive jaundice

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25
Q

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

A

takes the amino acid off aspartate and converts into a glucose derivative

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26
Q

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

A

takes amino acid off alanine
when liver is damaged, leaks into the blood

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27
Q

What is most representative of liver function

A

Prothrombin time (liver makes clotting factors)
also albumin because made by liver and bilirubin because metabolised by liver
liver enzymes (ALT, AST, ALP, GGT) don’t actually tell you about liver function but leak out when liver is damaged
NB: in paracetamol overdose, PT determines prognosis (if high, will need transplant)

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28
Q

Hepatitis A serology

A

virus in faeces
incubation period
become infective
immune response begins: IgM
start to get jaundiced and symptomatic
IgG response begins at 5-weeks post-exposure
immune for life
vaccine available

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29
Q

Hepatitis B serology - acute

A

2 forms: acute (like Hep A) and chronic
acute: become unwell 2-months post exposure, increased HBs Ag and HBe Ag
then start antibody response with anti-HBc, HBs and HBe (only when antigen titre reaches 0 for corresponding antigen) - end up with 3 antibodies and no antigen, probably won’t get it again but may be a carrier
vaccine is against surface antigen (anti-HBs, won’t have HBe antibody)

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30
Q

Chronic hepatitis B (carriers)

A

surface antigen remains for years
remains infectious to others
only have anti-HBc and anti-HBe but not anti-HBs as remain antigenic
cannot undergo surgery due to infectious risk

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31
Q

Alcoholic hepatitis (histology)

A

neutrophilic inflammation
balloon cells with mallory’s hyaline (pink cells) - damaged hepatocytes
alcoholic fatty liver is reversible but alcoholic hepatitis may not be reversible
may see fatty change left over from early stages
positive blue collagen stain - high risk of end-stage liver disease (cirrhosis)
megamitochondria (big and swollen - damage due to alcohol)

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32
Q

NASH (non-alcoholic steatohepatitis)

A

commonest cause of fatty liver disease today
causes: overweight, malnourished
same histological features as alcoholic hepatitis
associated with high BMI and diabetes
10% of people with normal BMI also have it

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33
Q

Alcoholic hepatitis treatment

A

supportive: stop alcohol
nutrition: vitamins esp b1(IV pabrinex)
occasionally steroids
liver hepatocytes will regenerate (as long as alcohol stops) - not uniform distribution with hexagonal arrangement and portal triads so may develop cirrhotic nodules (regenerating hepatocytes) eventually leading to portal hypertension (continued cycle of drinking alcohol)

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34
Q

Vitamin B1 deficiency

A

Beri-Beri

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35
Q

Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency

A

Pellagra

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36
Q

Gynaecomastia in liver disease mechanism

A

liver breaks down oestradiol, dysfunctional liver leads to build-up of oestradiol and decreased testosterone, causing gynaecomastia

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37
Q

Signs of chronic stable liver disease

A

spider naevi
palmar erythema
gynaecomastia
dupuytren’s contracture (alcohol)

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38
Q

Signs of portal hypertension

A

1.visible veins on the abdominal wall
2. splenomegaly (portal vein includes splenic vein)
3. ascites

NB: caput medusae from umbilicus (damage to portal triads causes high pressure in umbilical vein because blood can’t leave liver through artery so blood travels back down through the portal vein and ductus venosus to the umbilicus)

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39
Q

Non-shifting dullness

A

normal - fat (doesn’t move)

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40
Q

Shifting dullness

A

= ascites
sign of portal hypertension

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41
Q

Flapping tremor

A

sign of liver failure
possibly caused by ammonia but unsure (same flap as CO2 retention)

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42
Q

Liver failure

A

failed synthetic function
failed clotting factor and albumin production
failed clearance of bilirubin (jaundice)
failed clearance of ammonia (encephalopathy)

need to decrease protein intake and minimise risk of GI bleed but many die
treatment: liver transplant

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43
Q

Portal hypertension histopathology

A

micro or macro cirrhotic nodules (caused by regenerating hepatocytes) surrounded by a fibrous fat cuff characteristic of alcohol pathology
fatty changes are reversible
scarring in hepatocytes between portal vein and hepatic vein therefore blood entering liver completely bypasses hepatocytes (intrahepatic shunting of blood) - blood isn’t filtered and liver is not receiving blood

NB: caput medusae and visible veins on abdomen = extrahepatic shunting of blood

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44
Q

Progression of alcoholic liver disease

A

Alcoholic hepatitis (reversible)
Chronic stable liver disease (cycle)
Portal hypertension
Liver failure (end-stage)

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45
Q

Portosystemic anastamoses sites & portal hypertension consequences

A

oesophagus (portal hypertension causes varices - if they tear, bleed to death because no muscle in them)
rectal varices
umbilical vein recanalising
spleno-renal shunt

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46
Q

Causes of itching/scratch marks in liver pathology

A

obstruction of bile ducts only (not just jaundice) - causes by bile salts not bilirubin
bile salts/acids emulsify fats and are reabsorbed in the entero-hepatic circulation but when there’s an obstruction of the bile duct, bile salts/acids enter the systemic circulation and make you itch

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47
Q

Courvoisier’s law

A

if a gallbladder is palpable in a jaundiced patient the cause is likely pancreatic cancer and not gall stones
(gall stones cause a small, shrunken, fibrotic gallbladder so won’t be palpable)

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47
Q

Pancreatic cancer investigations

A

Abdo USS:
dilated bile ducts
metastasis

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48
Q

Pancreatic carcinoma histopathology

A

fibrous white tumour tissue
metastasis through lymphatics
multiple tumour deposits in liver (likely to be secondary as there are multiple deposits) - rapid metastasis through portal vein
usually adenocarcinoma (glandular)

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49
Q

Normal breast histology

A

Rule of 2s:
2 main structures:
- Large ducts
- TDLU (terminal ductus lobular unit)
2 types of epithelial cells:
- luminal cells
- myoepithelial cells
2 types of stroma:
- interlobular stroma (found between ductules and acini)
- intralobular stroma

Lactiferous ducts divide into extra and intra-lobular terminal ducts which further divide into acini and ductules

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50
Q

Terminal duct lobular unit

A

= extralobular terminal duct with lobule
= functional unit of the breast

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51
Q

Acinus histology

A

glandular structure
lined by outer myoepithelial cell layer and inner luminal cell layer

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52
Q

Presentation of breast disease

A

breast lump
abnormal screening mammogram
nipple discharge

most problems are benign but breast cancer is second biggest cancer killes

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53
Q

Investigating breast disease

A

triple assessment:
physical exam
imaging (sonography, mammography, MRI)
pathology (cyto/histopathology)

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54
Q

Cytopathology in breast disease

A

indicated if palpable lump or nipple discharge

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55
Q

Nipple discharge cytology

A

papilloma is most common breast lesion that presents with nipple discharge
weak association with cancer but increased if discharge is bloody or associated with lump

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56
Q

FNA cytology in breast

A

safe, reliable, accurate, fast, cost-effective, almost complication-free
good cellular detail and quick to prepare but cannot differentiate atypical ductal hyperplasia from low grade cancer or high grade in situ carcinoma from invasive cancer
ancillary testing not always possible

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57
Q

Cytopathology grading breast lumps

A

C1- inadequate
C2 - benign
C3 - atypia, probably benign
C4- suspicious of malignancy
C5 - malignant

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58
Q

Histopathology for breast

A

intact tissue is removed, fixed in formalin, embedded in paraffin wax, thinly sliced and stained with H&E
includes biopsies and surgical excisions
takes 24 hours to process
gives architectural and cellular detail

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59
Q

Histopathology breast grading (biopsies only)

A

B1 - normal tissue / inadequate sample
B2 - benign lesion
B3 - uncertain malignant potential (need to follow-up with surgical excision eg.)
B4 - suspicious of malignancy
B5 - malignant

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60
Q

Acute mastitis

A

acute inflammation in the breast
usually seen in context of lactation due to cracked skin and stasis of milk
may complicate duct ectasis or abscess
staph is usual organisms
painful red breast (unilateral)
drainage and antibiotics

histology: lots of inflammatory cells (neutrophils) - may obscure view of normal breast tissue, gram positive

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61
Q

Duct ectasia

A

5th-6th decade, multiparous women
inflammation and dilation of large breast ducts
aetiology unclear
usually presents with nipple discharge
sometimes: breast pain, breast mass, nipple retraction
benign with no increased risk of malignancy

cytology (of nipple discharge): proteinaceous material and inflammatory cells only
can give rise to giant cell reaction

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62
Q

Fat necrosis (breast)

A

An inflammatory reaction to damaged adipose tissue.
Caused by trauma, surgery, radiotherapy.
Presents with a breast mass, late stages may show focal calcification.
Benign condition.

histology: lipid vacuoles surrounded by inflammatory cells (macrophages and large cells)

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63
Q

Galactocele

A

Cystic dilation of a duct during lactation
Usually multiple ducts
Tender palpable nodules
Secondary infection may convert these to acute mastitis or abscess

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64
Q

Proliferative breast diseases

A

A diverse group of intraductal proliferative lesions of the breast associated with an increased risk, of greatly different magnitudes, for subsequent development of invasive breast carcinoma.
Microscopic lesions which usually produce no symptoms.
Diagnosed in breast tissue removed for other reasons or on screening mammograms if they calcify.

most common = fibrocystic disease

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65
Q

Fibrocystic disease (breast)

A

A group of alterations in the breast which reflect normal, albeit exaggerated, responses to hormonal influences.
Very common.
Presents with breast lumpiness.
No increased risk for subsequent breast carcinoma.

histology: fibrous tissue, large cystic glands, adenosis (increased number of glands), may also get apocrine metaplasias

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66
Q

Radial scar

A

A benign sclerosing lesion characterised by a central zone of scarring surrounded by a radiating zone of proliferating glandular tissue.
Range in size from tiny microscopic lesions to large clinically apparent masses.
Lesions >1 cm are sometimes called “complex sclerosing lesions”.
Reasonably common lesions.

Thought to represent an exuberant reparative phenomenon in response to areas of tissue damage in the breast.
Usually present as stellate masses on screening mammograms which may closely a carcinoma.
Excision is curative.
Scar is a misnomer; not related to prior trauma or surgery
Radiological presents as spiculated mass, architectural distortion, may be indistinguishable from invasive carcinoma – often biopsied
Associated risk with invasive breast cancer debated

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67
Q

Usual epithelial hyperpalasia

A

Not considered a direct precursor lesion to invasive breast carcinoma but is a marker for a slightly increased risk (relative risk of 1.5-2.0) for subsequent invasive carcinoma
Proliferation of cells of luminal and myoepithelial lineages
Cytologic features Mild variation in cellular and nuclear size and shape
Architectural features Cohesive proliferation with haphazard, jumbled cell arrangement or streaming growth pattern, Irregular slit-like fenestrations are common, especially along periphery

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68
Q

Flat epithelial atypia

A

Emerging genetic data suggests FEA may represent the earliest morphological precursor to low grade ductal carcinoma in situ.
relative risk ~1.5 of developing cancer
Frequent secretions andcalcificationswithin cystically dilated glands
One to several layers of low columnar or cuboidal cells with low grade cytologic atypia
Prominent apical tufting (snouts)
Nuclei are usually round with variably prominent nucleoli

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69
Q

In-situ lobular neoplasia

A

Current evidence suggests that in situ lobular neoplasia is a risk factor for subsequent invasive breast carcinoma in either breast in a minority of women.
The relative risk is quoted as between 8-10 times that expected in women without lobular neCurrent evidence suggests that in situ lobular neoplasia is a risk factor for subsequent invasive breast carcinoma in either breast in a minority of women.
The relative risk is quoted as between 8-10 times that expected in women without lobular neoplasia.
More commonly diagnosed in the 50s
Does NOT form a palpable mass
Solid, (so no arcades, lumens or papillary projections) discohesive proliferation of cells that are monomorphic, small, have pale pink cytoplasm, uniform oval nuclei and indistinct nucleoli, distends >50% of the acini in the lobule

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70
Q

Fibroadenoma

A

A benign neoplasm composed of fibrous and glandular tissue.
Common.
Presents as a circumscribed mobile breast lump in young women aged 20-30.
Simple “shelling out” curative.

cytology: stromal naked cells (no cytoplasm), luminal cells (honeycomb epithelial cells), Antlo-horn formations (reassuring its benign)

histology: fibrous tissue around ducts or stromal overgrowth compressing ducts

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71
Q

Phyllodes tumours

A

A group of potentially aggressive fibroepithelial neoplasms of the breast.
Uncommon tumours.
Present as enlarging masses in women aged over 50.
Some may arise within pre-existing fibroadenomas.
Vast majority behave in a benign fashion, but a small proportion can behave more aggressively.

cytology: only stromal cells (no glandular features)

histology: increasing stromal proliferation –> leaf-like architecture

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72
Q

Intraductal papilloma

A

A benign papillary tumour arising within the duct system of the breast.
Arise within small terminal ductules (peripheral papillomas) or larger lactiferous ducts (central papillomas).
Common.
Seen mostly in women aged 40-60.
Central papillomas present with nipple discharge.
Peripheral papillomas may remain clinically silent if small.
Excision of involved duct is curative.

cytology: Large stellate tissue fragments of benign ductal cells in a proteinaceous background

histology: intraductal proliferation comprised of arborizing fibrovascular cores lined by outer layer of luminal cells and an inner layer of myoepithelial cells
Myoepithelial cells also present at the periphery of the involved duct
associated with usual type ductal hyperplasia and apocrine metaplasia, less frequently squamous, osseous or chondroid metaplasia may be seen
May undergo ischemic or hemorrhagic changes, either spontaneously or secondary to biopsy / trauma
May show prominent fibrosis / sclerosis which may contained entrapped glands (sclerosing papilloma)

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73
Q

Paget disease of nipple

A

Proliferation of malignant glandular epithelial cells (in situ carcinoma) in the nipple areolar epidermis.
Uncommon clinical presentation of breast cancer, occurs in 1 - 4% of women and 1 - 2% of men
Peak incidence between 6th and 7th decade.
Pathogenesis:
Epidermotropic theory (most widely accepted) - Paget cells are DCIS cells that migrate along the basement membrane of the nipple, supported by the presence of DCIS deeper in the breast identical to Paget cells in almost all cases;

Transformation theory - Paget cells originate from malignant transformation of keratinocytes or Toker cells; it would explain rare cases (< 5%) in which cancer is not present in underlying breast - could also be due to biopsy not sampling cancer cells

Underlying high grade DCIS or invasive carcinoma is present in > 95% of patients.
Majority of Paget cells and associated underlying carcinoma are HER2+

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74
Q

Paget disease presentation & histology

A

Nipple areolar complex with red-pink crusting lesion, discoloration, thickening, ulceration, exudate, nipple retraction
Paget cells have abundant pale, clear cytoplasm, which often contains mucin. The nuclei are large and show prominent nucleoli. Paget cells are typically present at the basal portion of the epidermis but can extend throughout the entire thickness and be present very superficially.

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75
Q

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

A

A neoplastic intraductal epithelial proliferation in the breast with an inherent, but not inevitable, risk of progression to invasive breast carcinoma (2 - 8.6 times).
Common.
Incidence has markedly increased since the introduction of breast screening programs.

85% are detected on mammography as areas of microcalcification.
10% produce clinical findings such as a lump, nipple discharge, or eczematous change of the nipple (Paget’s disease of the nipple).
5% are diagnosed incidentally in breast specimens removed for other reasons.

Subclassified histologically into low, intermediate and high grade.

Treatment is surgical excision.
Complete excision with clear margins is curative.
Recurrence is more likely with extensive disease and high grade DCIS.

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76
Q

Low grade DCIS

A

Fenestrated proliferation with multiple, round, rigid extracellular lumens with punched out appearance
Neoplastic cells are frequently evenly distributed equidistant and polarized with long axis of cell perpendicular to the central lumen
Monotonous, round nuclei with smooth contours, small size nuclei

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77
Q

High grade DCIS

A

Lumen of ducts or lobules filled with sheets of cohesive cells
Cells are evenly spaced especially in low or intermediate grade DCIS
Prominent pleomorphism, large size nuclei
Comedonecrosis (central necrosis with specks of calcification)

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78
Q

Invasive breast carcinomas

A

A group of malignant epithelial tumours which infiltrate within the breast and have the capacity to spread to distant sites.
The most common cancer in women with a lifetime risk of 1 in 8.
Incidence rates rise rapidly with increasing age, such that most cases occur in older women.

Aetiology: Early menarche, late menopause, increased weight, high alcohol consumption, oral contraceptive use, and a positive family history are all associated with increased risk.
About 5% show clear evidence of inheritance. BRCA mutations cause a lifetime risk of invasive breast carcinoma of up to 85%.

Presentation: Most cases present symptomatically with a breast lump.
An increasing proportion of asymptomatic cases are detected on screening mammography.

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79
Q

Invasive ductal carcinoma

A

Most common type of invasive breast carcinoma (75 - 80%).
Majority are sporadic; 5 - 10% of all breast cancers are associated with hereditary cancer susceptibility genes

lacks the histologic features to classify morphologically as a special subtype of breast cancer
Cytology - cellular pleomorphism, nuclear size, nucleoli, lack of naked nuclei, cellular dyscohesion and mitoses & necrosis

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80
Q

Invasive lobular carcinoma

A

Comprises about 10% of invasive breast carcinomas
Most common special subtype of invasive breast carcinoma
Only comprises 1% of male breast carcinomas
More frequently bilateral and multifocal (need MRI of other breast to identify if another lesion)

histology: monotonous proliferation of cells distending the ducts –> break basement membrane and into adjacent stroma –> indian filing (nuclei on top of eachother)

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81
Q

Invasive tubular carcinoma

A

A well differentiated variant with very favorable prognosis

Histology: irregular angulated contours of glands (“teardrop-like”), open lumina with apocrine-like snouts and basophilic secretions

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82
Q

Invasive mucinous carcinoma

A

Clusters / nests of tumor cells with low or intermediate nuclear grade floating in pools of extracellular mucin, associated with favorable prognosis

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83
Q

Basal-like breast carcinoma

A

Recently described type of carcinoma discovered following genetic analysis of breast carcinomas.
Histologically characterised by sheets of markedly atypical cells with a prominent lymphocytic infiltrate.
Central necrosis is common.
Immunohistochemically characterised by positivity for “basal” cytokeratins CK5/6 and CK14.
Often associated with BRCA mutations.
Seem to have particular propensity to vascular invasion and distant metastatic spread.

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84
Q

Invasive breast cancers histological grading

A

graded histologically by assessing 1) tubule formation 2) nuclear pleomorphism, and 3)mitotic activity.

Each parameter is scored from 1-3 and the three values are added together to produce total scores from 3-9.
3-5 points = grade 1 (well differentiated).
6-7 points = grade 2 (moderately differentiated).
8-9 points = grade 3 (poorly differentiated).

Histologic grading is based on the Nottingham / modified Bloom & Richardson Score

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85
Q

Assessing receptor status of breast cancers

A

All invasive breast carcinomas are assessed for oestrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR) and Her2 status.
Low grade tumours tend to be ER/PR positive and Her2 negative.
High grade tumours tend to be ER/PR negative and Her2 positive.
Basal-like carcinomas are often ER/PR/Her2 negative (“triple negative”).

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86
Q

Breast cancer prognosis

A

The single most important prognostic factor is the status of the axillary lymph nodes.

Other important factors include tumour size, histological type, and histological grade.

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87
Q

NHS Breast screening programme (BSP)

A

The aim of screening is to pick up DCIS or early invasive carcinomas.
Women aged 50-71 are invited for screening every three years.
The screening test is a mammogram which looks for abnormal areas of calcification or a mass within the breast.
About 5% of women have an abnormal mammogram and are recalled to an assessment clinic for further investigation.
This may include more mammograms, or an ultrasound followed by sampling of the abnormal area, usually by core biopsy. - given b grade –> B4 and B5 need further investigation (B5a = DCIS, B5b = invasive carcinoma, B5c = certain it is malignant but cannot tell if DCIS or invasive)

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88
Q

Male breast histology

A

Composed of ductal structures only within collagenized stroma, with no / rare acini (no/very rare diseases that affect acini)

pathologies: gynaecomastia and male breast cancer

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89
Q

Male gynaecomastia

A

Refers to enlargement of the male breast.
Pubertal boys and older men aged over 50.
Idiopathic or associated with drugs (both therapeutic and recreational).
Histologically the breast ducts show epithelial hyperplasia with typical finger-like projections extending into the duct lumen. The periductal stromal is often cellular and oedematous.
Benign, no risk of malignancy.

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90
Q

Male breast cancer

A

rare (0.2% of all cancers).
Median age at diagnosis 65 years old.
Most present with a palpable lump.
Histologically the tumors show similar features to female breast cancers.
(lobular cancers rare due to lack of lobules)

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91
Q

New breast cancer predictive methods

A

Oncotype DX assay is a genomic test that predicts adjuvant (radiotx for DCIS, Chemotx/radiotx for IDC) therapy benefit and the likelihood of 10-year breast cancer local recurrence risk in patients with DCIS treated with breast conserving surgery and low stage ER positive invasive breast cancers

Novel biomarkers not used in routine clinical practice

High Ki67 proliferation index has reported to correlate with increased recurrence risk

tumor immune microenvironment is an important factor in identifying DCIS cases with the highest risk for recurrence

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92
Q

Normal oesophagus histology

A

lined by stratified squamous epithelium
transition into columnar epithelium of stomach: Z-line

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93
Q

Acute oesophagitis histology

A

oedema
neutrophils (inflammatory cells)
causes: alcohol, drugs, GORD
appearance on endoscopy: red and inflamed

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94
Q

Complications of reflux oesophagitis

A

ulceration (goes through muscularis into submucosa wheras erosion is superficial)
haemorrhage
perforation
stricture
Barrett’s oesophagus

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95
Q

Barrett’s Oesophagus

A

The same as columnar lined oesophagus (CLO)
Replacement of squamous epithelium by metaplastic columnar epithelium:
2 types:
- without goblet cells = gastric metaplasia
- with goblet cells = intestinal type metaplasia

Flat pathway: metaplasia -> LGD -> HGD -> adenocarcinoma (want to diagnose at metaplasia or dysplasia stage due to very poor prognosis)

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96
Q

Adenocarcinoma of oesophagus

A

The commonest oesophageal carcinoma in Developed Countries
Associated with reflux (flat pathway)
Lower oesophagus –> commonly at gastro-oesophageal junction

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97
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of oesophagus

A

Commonest oesophageal cancer in Developing Countries

Associated with alcohol and smoking

Mid/lower oesophagus (higher up than adenocarcinoma)

also association with HPV

histology: production of keratin, intercellular bridges

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98
Q

Oesophageal varices

A

= varicose veins in oesophagus
associated with portal hypertension (caused by extrahepatic shunting of blood)
important cause of mortality and morbidity

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99
Q

Normal stomach (body) histology

A

lined by gastric mucosa columnar epithelium (foveolar, mucin secreting)

specialised glands in the lamina propria (secrete IF, acid, pepsinogen)

muscularis mucosae

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100
Q

Normal stomach (antral) histology

A

lined by gastric mucosa columnar epithelium (fovelolar, mucin secreting)

Non-specialised glands in the lamina propria
(gastric pits)

mucularis mucosae

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101
Q

Acute Gastritis causes

A

Chemical:
aspirin/NSAIDs
alcohol
corrosives

Infection:
e.g. Helicobacter pylori

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102
Q

Causes of chronic gastritis

A

Autoimmune (antiparietal antibodies etc. body)
Bacterial (H. pylori; antrum )
Chemical (NSAIDs, bile reflux; antrum)

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103
Q

Other causes of gastritis

A

Infection
e.g. CMV (commonest opportunistic viral pathogen), strongyloides (worms)

Inflammatory bowel disease
Crohn’s Disease (gastric involvement more common in children)

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104
Q

Helicobacter associated gastritis

A

Cause
H. pylori
Pattern
chronic gastritis +/- activity
Outcome
Peptic ulcer (gastric and duodenal) - commonest cause
Metaplasia +/- dysplasia,
Adenocarcinoma
Lymphoma (MALToma) - can be reversible if treat helicobacter

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105
Q

Complications of ulcers

A

Bleeding
Anaemia
Shock (massive haemorrhage)

Perforation
Peritonitis

Cancer (rare)

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106
Q

Helicobacter as a carcinogen

A

Helicobacter infection is associated with an 8x increased risk of (non-cardia) gastric cancer
cag-A-positive H.pylori have a needle like appendage that injects toxin into intercellular junctions allowing the bacteria to attach more easily.
This strain is associated with more chronic inflammation.
Treatment of the infection with antibiotics drastically reduces the risk of cancer.

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107
Q

Flat dysplasia pathway in stomach

A

chronic gastritis –> intestinal metaplasia –> dysplasia –> cancer

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108
Q

Intestinal metaplasia

A

Presence of goblet and Paneth cells
In response to chronic gastritis
Increased cancer risk
(if significantly widespread –> need careful follow-up)

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109
Q

Gastric epithelial dysplasia

A

Abnormal epithelial pattern of growth
Some of the cytological and histological features of malignancy are present, but no invasive through the basement membrane

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110
Q

Gastric cancer

A

High incidence in Japan, Chile, Italy, China, Portugal, Russia
More common in men (1.8:1 ♂:♀)
>95% of all malignant tumors in stomach are adenocarcinomas (glandular - secrete mucin)
These are split morphologically into:
- Intestinal – form glands, well differentiated
- Diffuse – poorly differentiated (Linitis plastica), includes signet ring cell carcinoma
The remaining 5% is mainly made up of:
- Lymphoma (MALToma)
- Gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST)
- Neuroendocrine tumours (mostly in terminal ileum)

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111
Q

Gastric MALToma / Lymphoma

A

Chronic inflammation
- Chronic immune stimulation
B cell (marginal zone) lymphocytes
Treatment
- If limited to the stomach and H.pylori is present: H.pylori eradication

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112
Q

Gastro-intestinal stromal tumour (GIST)

A

Derived from the interstitial cells of Cajal.
Spindle cell tumours
Stain with CD117 (not smooth muscle actin)
Anywhere in the GIT but stomach is the commonest site.
Prognosis depends on site (stomach best), size (the smaller the better) and mitotic index (the lower the better)

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113
Q

Normal duodenum histology

A

Glandular epithelium
with goblet cells
(intestinal type epithelium)

Villous architecture
villous:crypt ratio of >2:1

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114
Q

Duodenitis, duodenal ulcers and H. pylori

A

Increased acid production in the stomach which spills over into duodenum
Chronic inflammation and gastric metaplasia with helicobacter infection
no significant risk of dysplasia and cancer

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115
Q

Other pathogens causing duodenitis and duodenal ulcers

A

Immunosuppressed
CMV
Cryptosporidiosis
Giardia lamblia infection
Whipple’s disease -Tropheryma whippelii.

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116
Q

Malabsorption - partial villous atrophy (coeliac)

A

Histology
- Villous atrophy
- Crypt hyperplasia
- Increased Intraepithelial lymphocytes
(normal range less than 20 lymphocytes /100 enterocytes)

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117
Q

Coeliac disease

A

Diagnosis requires:
endomysial antibodies and tissue transglutaminase antibodies
Duodenal biopsies:
- On gluten rich diet showing villous atrophy
- Off gluten showing normal villi (can make it difficult to diagnose if pt has already stopped consuming gluten)

There are other causes of malabsorption with similar histology e.g. tropical sprue (from developed countries go to developing countries and exposed to new mircobiome), drugs

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118
Q

Duodenal MALToma/ Lymphoma

A

Patients with coeliac disease have an increased risk of GIT cancers
MALToma associated with Coeliac is
in the duodenum
T-cell origin
(Enteropathy Associated T-cell Lymphoma)

histology: big nuclei and lots of nucleoli

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119
Q
A
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120
Q

Pancreatic histology

A

Exocrine: ducts and acini
Endocrine: islets of langerhan cells, alpha and beta cells

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121
Q

Acute pancreatitis

A

Acute inflammation of the pancreas caused by aberrant release of pancreatic enzymes. (can lead to positive feedback loop)

Relatively common, incidence increasing.

Causes:
Duct obstruction:
- Gall stones (50%)
- Trauma
- Tumours
Metabolic/toxic:
- Alcohol (33%) - 5% of alcoholics develop acute pancreatitis
- Drugs (e.g. thiazides)
- Hypercalcaemia
- Hyperlipidaemia
Poor blood supply:
- Shock
- Hypothermia
Infection/ inflammation:
- Viruses (e.g. mumps)
Autoimmune
Idiopathic (15%)

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122
Q

Acute pancreatitis pathogenesis

A

2 major pathways:
(1) Duct obstruction:
- Gallstone stuck distal to where the common bile duct and pancreatic ducts join leads to:
reflux of bile up the pancreatic duct followed by damage to acini and release of proenzymes which then become activated

-Alcohol leads to spasm/oedema of Sphincter of Oddi and the formation of a protein rich pancreatic fluid which obstructs the pancreatic ducts

(2) Direct acinar injury (eg. mumps) –> rest of causes

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123
Q

Patterns of injury in acute pancreatitis

A

Periductal - necrosis of acinar cells near ducts (usually secondary to obstruction)

Perilobular – necrosis at the edges of the lobules (usually due to poor blood supply)

Panlobular – develops from both of the above

Activated enzymes –> acinar necrosis –> enzyme release etc.
Ranges from stromal oedema, to haemorrhagic necrosis

e.g. Lipases –> fat necrosis:
1. Lipase splits triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids
2. calcium ions bind to the free fatty acids forming soaps which are seen as yellow-white foci (calcium levels will be normal as being used up to bind to fatty acids unless cause of pancreatitis was hypercalcaemia in which case the calcium may be normal)

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124
Q

Complications and prognosis of acute pancreatitis

A

Complications
Pancreatic : pseudocyst (lacks an epithelial lining, fluid-filled, localised and looks like a cyst), abscess (very infected pseudocyst)
Systemic: shock, hypoglycaemia (damage to islets), hypocalcaemia (calcium binds to free fatty acids forming fat necrosis)

Prognosis
Overall mortality up to 50% for haemorrhagic pancreatitis

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125
Q

Chronic pancreatitis

A

Relapsing or persistent, associated with acute pancreatitis in half of cases
Relatively uncommon
Mortality 3% per year

Causes:
Metabolic/toxic:
- Alcohol (80%)
- Haemochromatosis (iron deposition in pancreas causing damage)
Duct obstruction: - Gallstones - Abnormal pancreatic duct anatomy
- Cystic fibrosis (“mucoviscoidosis”) - thick secretions causing obstruction
Tumours
Idiopathic Autoimmune

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126
Q

Pathogenesis & Pattern of injury for chronic pancreatitis

A

Pathogenesis = same as acute but with fibrosis and atrophy , loss of acini –> loss of secretory function

Pattern of injury:
Chronic inflammation with parenchymal fibrosis and loss of parenchyma
Duct strictures with calcified stones with secondary dilatations

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127
Q

Complications of chronic pancreatitis

A

Malabsorption (loss of exocrine function)
Diabetes mellitus (eventual loss of islets of langherhans)
Pseudocyst
Carcinoma of the pancreas (?) (multi-directional ie. can both cause eachother)

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128
Q

Pancreatic pseudocyst

A

Associated with acute and/ or chronic pancreatitis
Lined by fibrous tissue (no epithelial lining), contain fluid rich in pancreatic enzymes or necrotic material
Connect with pancreatic ducts
May resolve, compress adjacent structures, become infected or perforate (-> peritonitis)

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129
Q

Autoimmune pancreatitis

A

= IgG4 related diseases
Characterised by large numbers of IgG4 positive plasma cells.

May involve the pancreas, bile ducts and almost any other part of the body.

Benign

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130
Q

Tumours of the pancreas

A

3 categories:
Carcinomas
- Ductal (85% of all neoplasms)
- Acinar

Cystic neoplasms
- Serous cystadenoma
- Mucinous cystic neoplasm

Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumours (Islet cell tumours)

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131
Q

Risk factors for pancreatic carcinoma

A

Smoking
BMI and dietary factors
Chronic pancreatitis
Diabetes

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132
Q

Pancreatic ductal carcinoma

A

5% of cancer deaths
Increasingly common with age, 2M: 1F
5 year survival: 5%

Arise from dysplastic ductal lesions:
Pancreatic Intraductal Neoplasia (PanIN)
Intraducal Mucinous Papillary Neoplasm (IMPN)
K-Ras mutations in 95% of cases

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133
Q

Ductal carcinoma histopathology

A

Macroscopic Appearance
- Gritty and grey
- Invades adjacent structures
- Tumours in the head present earlier (early obstruction and clinical presentation)

Microscopic Appearance
Adenocarcinomas: mucin secreting glands set in desmoplastic stroma (response to cancer growing in it)

very aggressive: peri-neural invasion (common way of spread)

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134
Q

Pancreatic ductal carcinoma sites & spread

A

Sites:
Head (60%)
Body
Tail
Diffuse

Spread:
Direct: Bile ducts, duodenum
Lymphatic: Lymph nodes
Blood: Liver
Serosa: Peritoneum

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135
Q

Complications of ductal pancreatic carcinoma

A

Due to spread
Chronic pancreatitis
Venous thrombosis (“migratory thrombophlebitis”) - hypercoagulable state

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136
Q

Cystic tumours

A

Contain serous or mucin secreting epithelium
(cf. ovarian tumours)
Usually benign

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137
Q

Pancreatic endocrine neoplasms

A

usually non-secretory (most common secretion = insulin –> present with hypogylcaemia)
contain neuroendocrine markers e.g. chromogranin (granules) - can stain for it or measure blood levels (for diagnosis and follow-up)
behaviour difficult to predict (usually associated with mitotic index)
may be associated with the Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 1 syndrome

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138
Q

Insulinomas

A

derived from beta cells
= commonest type of secretory tumour

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139
Q

Gall bladder pathology

A
  1. Gall stones
  2. Inflammation
  3. Cancer

All associated with stones
stones are very common: 20% of adults

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140
Q

Risk factors for gall stones

A

Age and gender: increasing age, F>M
Ethnic and geographic: e.g. Native Americans
Hereditary: e.g. disorders of bile metabolism
Drugs e.g. oral contraceptive (increased oestrogen)
Acquired disorders e.g. rapid weight loss (causing more bile secretion and movement)

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141
Q

Types of gall stones

A

Cholesterol (more than 50% cholesterol)
May be single, mostly radiolucent (not picked up on abdo x-ray)

Pigment (contain calcium salts of unconjugated bilirubin)
Multiple, mostly radio-opaque

Mixed type

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142
Q

Complications of gall stones

A

most cause no problems

Bile duct obstruction
Acute and chronic cholecystitis
Gall bladder cancer
Pancreatitis

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143
Q

Acute cholecystitis

A

Acute inflammation
90% associated with gall stones

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144
Q

Chronic cholecystitis

A

Chronic inflammation
Fibrosis (thick and hard GB wall)
Diverticula (mucosa going through muscularis) – Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
90% contain gall stones

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145
Q

Gall bladder cancer

A

Adenocarcinomas
90% associated with gall stones
most common in Chile and Andes, less common in UK

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146
Q

Tumours of the nervous system

A

CNS:
Brain and coverings
Spinal cord and coverings
Pituitary gland

PNS:
Small nerves in any organ – usually neurofibromas of soft tissue or skin
Large nerves – cranial and spinal nerve schwannomas
Most are benign tumours

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147
Q

Classification of CNS tumours by origin

A

Primary:
tumours that originated within CNS

Secondary:
Metastases - 10x more frequent than primary tumours in adults (30% of patients with systemic cancer develop CNS metastases)

NB: primary tumours most common CNS tumours in children

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148
Q

Classification of CNS tumours by location

A

EXTRA-AXIAL (coverings)
Tumours of bone, cranial soft tissue, meninges, nerves

INTRA-AXIAL (parenchyma)
Derived from normal cell populations of the CNS: glia, neurons and neuroendocrine cells
Derived from other cell types: lymphomas, germ cell tumours

WHO grade 1 tend to be more extra-axial
WHO grade 2-4 tend to be more intra-axial
Glioblastomas grade 4 and have worst prognosis

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149
Q

CNS tumours aetiology

A

Largely unknown
Only known environmental factor:
Previous radiotherapy to head and neck associated with increased risk of meningiomas (and rarely gliomas)
Genetic predisposition <5% of primary brain tumours
Familial syndromes:

Autosomal dominant inheritance with frequent de novo mutations
Some examples:
Neurofibromatosis 1 (17q11) neurofibroma, astrocytoma
Neurofibromatosis 2 (22q12) schwannoma, meningioma
Brain Tumour Polyposis syndrome 1 malignant gliomas
Gorlin syndrome (PTCH1, 9q31) medulloblastoma
Von Hippel Lindau (3p25) hemangioblastoma

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150
Q

CNS tumours clinical presentation

A

Not specific but can be subtle in slow growing tumours whereas there may be a very short history for malignant tumours

Intracranial hypertension:
headache
vomiting
change in mental status

Supratentorial:
focal neurological deficit
seizures
personality changes

Infratentorial (posterior fossa):
cerebellar ataxia
long tract signs
cranial nerve palsy

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151
Q

Neuroimaging

A

Modalities:
CT-scan
MR-scan
MR-spectroscopy (metabolism)
Perfusion MRI
Functional MRI
PET-scan

Uses:
Assess tumour type
Guide resection & biopsy
Assess post-surgery
Assess response to treatments
Follow-up recurrence and progression

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152
Q

Management of CNS tumours

A

SURGERY:
Maximal safe resection with minimal damage to adjacent normal tissue gives best outcome
Resection: location, size, number of lesions

RADIOTHERAPY:
Low and high-grade gliomas, metastases, some benign tumours
External fractionated RT, stereotactic radiosurgery

CHEMOTHERAPY:
Mainly for high-grade gliomas (temozolomide) and lymphomas
Biological agents (EGFR inhibitors, PD-L1 inhibitors, etc.)

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153
Q

Types of surgery for CNS tumours

A

Craniotomy for debulking
may be sub-total or complete resections
remove as much tumour as possible

Open biopsy
inoperable but approachable tumours (about 1cm of tissue)
usually representative

Stereotactic biopsy
if open biopsy not indicated (about 0.5cm of tissue)
tissue may be insufficient

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154
Q

WHO classification of CNS tumours

A

Tumour type:
Putative cell of origin or lineage of differentiation

Tumour grade:
Tumour aggressiveness
It is based on morphological criteria of malignancy (proliferative activity, cell differentiation, necrosis) and increasingly on genetic profile

Molecular profile:
Most tumour types have molecular markers

A four-tier system:

Grade 1 – benign – long-term survival (eg. meningiomas)
Grade 2 – more than 5 yrs
Grade 3 – less than 5 yrs
Grade 4 – less than 1 yr (eg. glioblastomas)

Some tumour types have only one possible grade, but others have more than one

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155
Q

CNS cell types and tumours

A

Astrocytes – astrocytoma
Oligodendrocytes – oligodendroglioma
Ependyma – ependymoma
Neurons- neurocytoma
Embryonal cells – medulloblastoma
Meningothelial cells – meningioma
Schwann cells - schwannoma, neurofibroma

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156
Q

Glial tumours

A

Diffuse gliomas:
Grades ≥ 2, adults, supratentorial, malignant progression
Astrocytomas (grades 2-4)
Oligodendrogliomas (grades 2-3)

Circumscribed gliomas:
Grades 1-2, children, often posterior fossa, rare malignant transformation
Pilocytic astrocytoma (grade 1)
Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma (grade1)
Ependymomas (usually)

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157
Q

Pilocytic astrocytoma

A

Usually 1st & 2nd decade (account for 20% CNS tumours below 14 yrs)
Often cerebellar, optic-hypothalamus, brainstem
Genetic profile: BRAF mutation in 70% of PA

MRI – well circumscribed,
cystic, enhancing lesion

Histology:
Piloid “hairy” cells
Very often Rosenthal fibres
Slowly growing, low mitotic activity

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158
Q

IDH mutant diffuse gliomas

A

Patients usually 20-40 yrs
Astrocytoma (IDH mutant) and Oligodendroglioma (IDH mutant)
Pathogenic point mutation in the IDH1/2 gene
IDH mutation is associated with longer survival and a better response to chemotherapy and radiotherapy

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159
Q

Astrocytomas

A

Patients usually 20-40 yrs, cerebral hemispheres
Genetic profile: point mutation in IDH1/2

MRI – T1 hypointense, T2 hyperintense,
non-enhancing lesion. Low choline/creatinine
ratio in MR spectroscopy

Histology: low to moderate cellularity
Mitotic activity is low. No vascular
proliferation or necrosis.
IDH1 mutants can be detected
Immunocytochemically

Progression to higher grades over time

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160
Q

Glioblastoma multiforme

A

Most aggressive and most frequent glioma; incidence increase with age
Most patients >50 yrs, cerebral hemispheres
Median survival 8 months
Genetic profile
IDH1 wildtype
Common mutations in:
TERT, PTEN, EGFR

MRI – heterogenous,
enhancing post contrast

Histology:
High cellularity
Neoangiogenesis
Necrosis

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161
Q

Meningiomas

A

38% of primary CNS tumours
Rare in patients < 40, incidence ↑ with age

Originate from meningothelial cells of the arachnoid mater
Any site of craniospinal axis, can be multiple (NF2)

MRI: extraxial, iso-dense, contrast-enhancing

80% Grade 1: benign, recurrence <25%
20% Grade 2: atypical, recurrence 25-50%
1% Grade 3: malignant, recurrence 50-90%

(Grading is most useful predictor of recurrence)

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162
Q

Mitotic activity (CNS tumours)

A

Determines grade
Mitosis per 10HPF (0.16mm2)
<4 = grade 1
4-20 = grade 2
>20 = grade 3

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163
Q

CNS metastases

A

Most frequent CNS tumour in adults (10 x intrinsic tumours)
Increasing incidence due to longer survival

Often multiple, located at grey/white matter junction and/or leptomeningeal disease

May be the first presentation of the disease
Origin can be challenging to determine: immunohistochemical markers

Any cancer can give CNS metastasis, but most frequent tumours are: lung ca, breast ca, melanoma, renal cell ca

Very poor prognosis

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164
Q

Medulloblastoma (WHO grade 4)

A

EMBRYONAL TUMOUR: originates from neuroepithelial cells/neuronal precursors of the cerebellum or dorsal brainstem
Rare (2 per 1,000,000 year), but second most common brain malignancy in children; also in young adults
Outcome considerably improved with radio-chemotherapy and subtype stratification

Histology
4 histological subtypes: classic, nodular/desmoplastic, extensive nodularity, large cell anaplastic
3 molecular subtypes by transcriptome or methylome profiling: WNT-activated, SHH-activated, nonWNT/nonSHH

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165
Q

Methylome profile

A

Most tumours have characteristic patterns of DNA methylation of CpG islands

The methylation signature is stable and reflects the tumour cell of origin or early transformed cells
- Gives information on tumour type not progression/grade

The DNA methylation status of a subset of CpG islands is assessed with DNA arrays and compared to a reference dataset (“Classifier”)

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166
Q

Mechanisms of CNS damage

A

Oedema
Hydrocephalus
Raised intracranial pressure
Stroke
- Haemorrhage
- Infarction
Traumatic brain injury

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167
Q

Cerebral Oedema

A

Excess accumulation of fluid in the brain parenchyma
Two main types:
- Vasogenic – disruption of the blood brain barrier
- Cytotoxic – secondary to cellular injury e.g. hypoxia/ ischemia
Result is raised intracranial pressure

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168
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

Non-communicating involves obstruction of flow of CSF (most common site = at cerebral aqueduct)
Communicating involves no obstruction but problems with reabsorption of CSF into venous sinuses (often a complication of meningitis)

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169
Q

Consequences of raised ICP

A

ICP is normally 7–15 mm Hg for a supine adult
Raised ICP due to space occupying lesions, oedema or both
Unyielding bony wall of skull and inflexible dural folds
Herniation of brain structures (subfalcine [supratentorial, cingulate cortex herniation through falx cerebri), transtentorial/uncal [at level of midbrain, medial temporal lobe into posterior fossa] and tonsillar [at level of cerebellum passing through foramen magnum])

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170
Q

Non-traumatic parenchymal haemorrhage

A

Haemorrhage into the substance of the brain - rupture of a small intraparenchymal vessel
Most common in basal ganglia
Hypertension (chronic) account for more than 50% of bleeds
Presentation with severe headache, vomiting, rapid loss of consciousness, focal neurological signs (more acute than tumours)

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171
Q

Arteriovenous malformation (AVM)

A

Close interweaving of arterial and venous vessels
Occur anywhere in the CNS
Present from birth
Become symptomatic between 2nd and 5th decade (mean age 31.2 years)
Present with haemorrhage, seizures, headache, focal neurological deficits
High pressure – MASSIVE BLEEDING!!!
Seen on angiography
Morbidity after rupture 53-81% - high in eloquent areas
Mortality 10-17.6%
Treatment: surgery, embolization, radiosurgery

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172
Q

Cavernous angioma

A

“Well-defined malformative lesion composed of closely packed vessels with no parenchyma interposed between vascular spaces”
Can be found anywhere in the CNS, usually symptomatic after age 50
Pathogenesis unknown
Present with headache, seizures, focal deficits, haemorrhage
Low pressure – recurrent bleeds
Treatment: surgery

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173
Q

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Rupture of a berry aneurysm (present in 1% of general population)
80 % of berry aneurysms- internal carotid artery bifurcation, 20% occur within the vertebro-basilar circulation
30% of patients have multiple aneurysms
Greatest risk of rupture when 6-10mm diameter
Present with sudden onset of severe headache (‘thunderclap’), vomiting, loss of consciousness
Mixed prognosis
Treatment: endovascular platinum coil into aneurysm (radiologists through femoral artery)

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174
Q

Infarction

A

Tissue death due to ischemia
Commonest form of cerebrovascular disease
70-80% of strokes
Cerebral atherosclerosis most common cause
hypertension, diabetes, smoking are major risks factors
Worst atherosclerosis in larger vessels (extracerebral arteries) – thrombosis
Often near carotid bifurcation or in basilar artery
Other cause - emboli (intracerebral arteries)
Usually from heart or atherosclerotic plaques
Embolic occlusion usually in middle cerebral artery branches

a) Focal cerebral ischaemia: defined vascular territory
b) Global cerebral ischaemia: systemic circulation fails

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175
Q

Stroke differential diagnoses

A

Infarct:
Tissue necrosis
Rarely haemorrhagic
Permanent damage in the affected area
No recovery

Haemorrhage:
Bleeding
Dissection of parenchyma
Fewer macrophages
Limited tissue damage
Partial recovery

(really important: don’t want to give thrombolytics to haemorrhagic patients)

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176
Q

Head fractures

A

Fissure fractures often extend into base of skull
May pass through middle ear or anterior cranial fossa (resulting in CSF leakage)
Otorrhea or rhinorrhea (may be mixed with blood and therefore less obvious)
Battle sign: bruising behind ears due to skull base fracture
Infection risk

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177
Q

Head contusions

A

Brain in collision with skull caused by impact
Surface “bruising”
If pia mater torn, then becomes laceration
Lateral surfaces of hemispheres, inferior surfaces of frontal and temporal lobes
Coup or contrecoup (rebound causing damage on both the front and back of skull)

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178
Q

Diffuse axonal injury

A

Occurs at moment of injury
Shear & tensile forces affecting axons causing white matter damage
Commonest cause of coma (when no bleed)
Midline structures particularly affected e.g. corpus callosum, rostral brainstem and septum pellucidum

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179
Q

Chronic traumatic encephalopathy

A

multiple repetitive sub-clinical/sub-concussive impacts initiating a neurodegenerative process
seen in american football players who presented after retirement with psychiatric/early dementia symptoms
now also seen in rugby and football players in the UK

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180
Q

Alzheimer’s neuropathology

A

Extracellular plaques (beta amyloid protein, can be diffuse or classic [target-shaped])

Neurofibrillary tangles (Paired helical filaments (PHF), Tau = a microtubule associated protein (MAP), Stabilization of microtubules dependent on phosphorylation state. In AD, tau hyperphosphorylated)

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) (amyloid in blood vessel walls)

Neuronal loss (cerebral atrophy; cortical and hippocampal)

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181
Q

ABC Alzheimer’s assessment

A

Amyloid: Where are amyloid plaques found in brain? –> 5 phases given score of 0-3

Braak Staging: neurofibrillary tangles and spread –> 0-3

Counting: How many plaques? –> 0-3

score of 333 = high chance of clinical AD

182
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

Loss of dopaminergic neurones in substantia nigra in the midbrain (basal ganglia) causing movement disorders and difficulty to initiate movements

Build-up of lewy bodies (hyaline inclusions within dopaminergic cells in substantia nigra)

Polymeropoulos in 1997 found that mutations in the α-synuclein gene can result in PD
Spillantini reported that Lewy bodies and Lewy neurites are immunoreactive for α-synuclein
Now α-synuclein immunostaining is considered as the diagnostic gold standard

neuro-melanin = by-product of dopaminergic cell metabolism, seen as black line in midbrain sample post-mortem, not seen in parkinson’s brains

183
Q

Parkinson’s Grading

A

Braak staging depending on spread throughout brain (from cerebellum upwards to cortices)

184
Q

Parkinsonism

A

Bradykinesia
Rigidity
Rest tremor
Response to L-dopa

185
Q

Diseases that present with parkinsonism (Parkinsons plus)

A

Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease
Drug-induced parkinsonism
Multiple system atrophy
Progressive supranuclear palsy
Corticobasal degeneration
Vascular pseudo-parkinsonism
Alzheimer’s changes
Frontotemporal neurodegenerative disorders
20 other disorders

186
Q

Multiple system atrophy (MSA)

A

Term covering three disorders:
Olivopontocerebellar atrophy (OPCA)
Shy-Drager syndrome (autonomic presentation eg postural hypotension)
Striatonigral degeneration (exactly like PD)

Now characterised clinically as:
MSA-P – predominant parkinsonism
MSA-C – cerebellar features

Pathology:
Cortical atrophy (motor, premotor)
Cerebellar atrophy
Shrinkage of middle cerebellar peduncle, pons and inferior olivary nucleus
Pallor of locus coeruleus and substantia nigra
Mixed neuronal and glial pathology
α-synuclein immunoreactive glial cytoplasmic inclusions (GCI)
Neuronal cytoplasmic inclusions, neuronal nuclear inclusions, glial nuclear inclusions and neuropil threads

187
Q

Corticobasal degeneration (CBD)

A

Progressive neurodegenerative disorder
Rigidity, clumsiness, stiffness and jerking of arm, “alien limb” (feeling like someone else is controlling limb)
Affects cerebral cortex (fronto-parietal atrophy), deep cerebellar nuclei and substantia nigra
Glial and neuronal inclusions
Neuropil threads particularly prominent

Pathology:
Balloon neurons
Astrocytic plaques
(Tau pathology not alpha-synuclein)

187
Q

Progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP)

A

Most common form of atypical parkinsonism
Often show no response to L-DOPA
Supranuclear gaze palsy & postural instability
Atrophy of basal ganglia, subthalamus & brainstem
Neuronal loss & gliosis
Neuronal & glial tau-positive inclusions

Pathology:
Tufted astrocytes
Coiled bodies (in oligodendrocytes)

188
Q

Pick’s disease

A

Fronto–temporal atrophy
Marked gliosis and neuronal loss
Balloon neurons
Tau positive Pick bodies (small round inclusions within hippocampus) - 3R Tau pathology

189
Q

Prion diseases

A

Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies
A series of diseases with common molecular pathology
Transmissible factor
No DNA or RNA involved
Prion (proteinaceous infectious only)
eg. CJD (Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease)

Pathology:
generalised atrophy
spongiform change (holes in the tissue)
prion protein deposits

Conversion of prion from alpha helical formation into beta-pleated sheet, possibly driving pathology

Rapid progression, death within a year
very rare

190
Q

Pelvic Inflammatory disease (PID)

A

Gonococci, chlamydia, enteric bacteria
usually starts from the lower genital tract and spreads upward via mucosal surface

Staph, strept, coliform bacteria and clostridium perfringens
secondary to abortion
usually start from the uterus and spread by lymphatics and blood vessels upwards
deep tissue layer involvement

Complications:
Peritonitis
Bacteraemia
Intestinal obstruction due to adhesions
Infertility

191
Q

Gynae infections

A

Cause discomfort but no serious complications:
Candida: Diabetes mellitus, oral contraceptives and pregnancy enhance development of infection
Tichomonas vaginalis: protozoan
Gardenerella: gram negative bacillus causes vaginitis

Have serious complications:
Chlamydia: major cause of infertility
Gonorrhoea: major cause of infertility
Mycoplasma: causes spontaneous abortion and chorioamnionitis
HPV: implicated in cancer

192
Q

Salpingitis

A

Acute, Chronic or granulomatous
Usually direct ascent from the vagina (except TB)

Depending on severity and treatment may result in:
Resolution
Complications:
- Plical fusion
- Adhesions to ovary
- Tubo-ovarian abscess
- Peritonitis
- Hydrosalpinx (fluid build-up)
- Infertility
- Ectopic pregnancy

193
Q

Cervical Cancer

A

2nd most common cancer affecting women worldwide

Mean age 45-50 years

Important malignancy to know about:

  1. Role of viruses in aetiology of cancer
  2. Premalignant phase – (Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia)
  3. Role of screening
  4. Intervention possible at preinvasive stage
  5. Possibility of prevention by vaccination
194
Q

Cervical cancer risk factors

A

Human Papilloma Virus -present in 95%
(low and high risk groups)
Many sexual partners
Sexually active early
Smoking
Immunosuppressive disorders

195
Q

Low risk HPVs

A

Most common types: 6, 11

Other types: 40, 42, 43, 44, 54, 61, 72, 73, 81

Genital and oral warts

Low grade cervical dysplasia

195
Q

High risk HPVs

A

Most common types: 16, 18
Other types: 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, 59, 68,82

Low & high grade cervical dysplasia
Cervical cancer
Vulval, vaginal, penile, and anal cancer

196
Q

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)

A

This is the term for dysplasia in this site

Epithelial cells have undergone some phenotypic and genetic changes which are premalignant and preinvasive

Basal membrane immediately deep to the surface epithelium is intact

Squamous epithelium is involved more often (CIN) than glandular epithelium (CGIN)

197
Q

Cervical carcinoma

A

Invasion through the basement membrane defines change from CIN to invasive carcinoma

Two principal types of cervical carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma (almost always HPV dependent)
Adenocarcinoma (20% of all invasive cases)
HPV dependent or independent

Prognosis: Tumour stage: FIGO Stage I (90%) – IV (10%) 5 year survival

198
Q

Latent/ Non-productive HPV infection

A

HPV DNA continues to reside in the basal cells

Infectious virions are not produced

Replication of viral DNA is coupled to replication of the epithelial cells occurring in concert with replication of the host DNA

Complete viral particles are not produced

The cellular effects of HPV infection are not seen

Infection can only be identified by molecular methods

199
Q

Productive HPV infection

A

Viral DNA replication occurs independently of host chromosomal DNA synthesis.

Large numbers of viral DNA are produced and result in infectious virions.

Characteristic cytological and histological features are seen (koilocyte)

200
Q

HPV transformation of cells

A

Two proteins E6 and E7 encoded by the virus have effects on genes.

E6 and E7 bind to and inactivate two tumour suppressor genes:

	Retinoblastoma gene (Rb) (E7)

	P53 (E6)

Both effects interfere with apoptosis and increase unscheduled cellular proliferation both of which contribute to oncogenesis.

201
Q

HPV vaccine

A

Helps protect against cancers caused by HPV (e.g. cervical, anal, head & neck)

Girls and boys aged 12 to 13 years are offered the HPV vaccine as part of theNHS vaccination programme.

In England, they are offered
1st dose in school Year 8
2nd dose offered 6 to 24 months after the 1st dose.

It’s important to have both doses of the vaccine to be properly protected.

202
Q

Indications for uterine biopsies

A

Endometrium:
Infertility
Uterine bleeding
Thickened endometrium on imaging

Uterus or related mass:
Lesion identified on imaging
As part of a wider resection

203
Q

Uterine corpus

A

Congenital anomalies
Inflammation: acute or chronic endometritis
Adenomyosis
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding: e.g. hormonal imbalance
Endometrial atrophy and hyperplasia
Endometrial polyp
Uterine tumours

204
Q

Uterine tumours

A

Endometrial epithelial tumours and precursors

Tumour like lesions; e.g. endometrial polyp

Mesenchymal tumours specific to the uterus

Mixed epithelial and mesenchymal tumours

Miscellaneous tumours

205
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia

A

Perimenopause
Persistent anovulation
Polycystic ovary (PCO)
Ovarian Granulosa cell tumours ov
Oestrogen therapy
May be associated with atypia

206
Q

Endometrial cancers

A

Endometrial cancer is the most common gynaecological malignancy in developed countries, causing 6% of new cancer cases in women.

Risk factors:
Nulliparity
Obesity
Diabetes mellitus
Excessive oestrogen stimulation

Histological subtypes:
Endometrioid
Serous
Clear cell
Undifferentiated
Mixed cell
Mesonephric / mesonephric like
Squamous cell
Mucinous
Carcinosarcoma

207
Q

Endometroid carcinoma

A

Are oestrogen dependent
Often associated with atypical endometrial hyperplasia
Low grade and high grade tumours
Develop through the accumulation of mutations of different genes

208
Q

Serous and clear cell carcinomas

A

Older, postmenopausal
Less oestrogen dependent
Arise in atrophic endometrium
High grade, deeper invasion, higher stage

Endometrial serous carcinoma:
P53 mutations in 90%
PI3KCA mutations in 15% Her-2 amplification

Clear cell carcinoma:
PTEN mutation
CTNNB1 mutation
Her-2 amplification

209
Q

Endometrial cancer tumour grades

A

Serous, clear cell, mixed, undifferentiated, dedifferentiated and carcinosarcoma are considered high grade.

Endometrioid carcinoma:

FIGO 3 tier system: grade 1, 2 and 3 depending on
Architecture: % of gland formation
Cytological atypia

210
Q

TGCA endometrial cancer tumour classifications

A

Group 1: EEC with mutations in POLE (Polymerase E- ultramutated) - better prognosis

Group 2: EEC with MSI (hypermutated)

Group 3: EEC with low copy number alterations

Group 4: (serous-like) tumours show TP53 mutations and high copy number alterations - grades 1,2,3

POLE and MSI sensitive to anti-PD1 checkpoint inhibitor (immunotherapy)

211
Q

Leiomyoma

A

(mesenchymal tumours)
Smooth muscle tumour of myometrium
Commonest uterine tumour
20% of women >35yrs
Lay term is fibroid
Usually multiple
May be intramural, submucosal or subserosal

212
Q

Leiomyosarcoma

A

Malignant counterpart of leiomyoma - rare
Usually solitary
Usually postmenopausal
Local invasion and blood stream spread
5yr survival 20-30%

213
Q

Endometriosis

A

Presence of endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus

Common – 10% of premenopausal women

Origin:
Metaplasia of pelvic peritoneum
Implantation of endometrium, retrograde menstruation

Ectopic endometrial tissue is functional and bleeds at time of menstruation > pain, scarring and infertility

Can develop hyperplasia and malignancy

214
Q

Ovarian cysts

A

(mainly) Non neoplastic cysts:
Follicular and luteal cysts
Polycystic ovarian disease:
3-6% of reproductive age women
patients have persistent anovulation
obesity and hirsutism / virilism

Endometriotic cyst

215
Q

Ovarian tumours (classification)

A

Primary tumours:
Epithelial tumours
Sex cord-stromal tumours
Germ cell tumours
Miscellaneous tumours

Secondary tumours

216
Q

Ovarian tumours by age

A

Epithelial tumours:
make up 65% of all ovarian tumours & 95% of malignant ovarian tumours

50% found in 45-65 age group

Germ cell tumours:
have bimodal distribution; one peak 15-21 year olds and one peak at 65-69

Sex cord stromal tumours:
most commonly seen in post-menopausal women but some sub-types peak in 25-30 year age group

217
Q

Benign epithelial tumours (ovarian)

A

Serous Cystadenomas
Cystadenofibromas
Mucinous cystadenomas
Brenner tumour

218
Q

Borderline epithelial tumours (ovarian)

A

(Serous, mucinous, endometrioid, clear cell, seromucinous & Brenner)

Tumours whose biologic behaviour cannot be predicted on histologic grounds

Tumours that have very low but definite metastatic potential

Morphologically similar tumours may behave differently

To date, there are no reliable histological or molecular predictive markers for the behaviour of these tumours

219
Q

Malignant ovarian epithelial tumours

A

Worldwide is the 6th most common cancer in women

2nd commonest female cancer causing death in women
Difficult to diagnosis at an early stage
Develops resistance to therapeutic agents

Risk factors:

Nulliparity, infertility, early menarche, late menopause.

Genetic predisposition: Family history of ovarian and breast cancers

220
Q

Heredity & Ovarian cancer

A

Up to 10% of epithelial ovarian cancer cases are familial

3 familial syndromes: All are transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion
familial breast-ovarian cancer syndrome
site-specific ovarian cancer
cancer family syndrome (Lynch type II)

Familial breast-ovarian cancer and site-specific ovarian cancer syndromes
Associated with mutations of the BRCA1 and BRCA2; account for 90% of familial ovarian cancers

Hereditary ovarian cancer occurs at a younger age than sporadic

Carriers have 15 fold increase risk of ovarian carcinoma to non-carriers

> 90% cancers are of serous: ovarian, peritoneal, fallopian tube.

221
Q

Lynch II syndrome

A

HNPCC is responsible for 3% of ovarian carcinomas

Ovarian cancers associated are mainly of the endometrioid and clear cell types

222
Q

High grade serous (ovarian) carcinoma

A

Most common type of malignant tumours (80%)

Aggressive

Alteration in P53, in virtually all

BRCA1 or BRCA2 abnormalities (germline and somatic mutations; BRCA1 promoter methylation)
These genes encode proteins that play important roles in DNA repair (homologous recombination).

223
Q

BRCA mutations

A

Identification of hereditary cases.

Current data suggests that BRCA2 mutations confer an overall survival advantage compared with either being BRCA-negative or having a BRCA1 mutation in high-grade serous ovarian cancer.

BRCA mutation status has a major influence on response to chemotherapy.

Patients can benefit from targeted therapy by PARP inhibitors.

224
Q

Low grade serous (ovarian) carcinoma

A

Distinct pathogenesis from high grade serous carcinoma.

Low grade, relatively indolent, arise de novo or from borderline ovarian tumours.

Mutations in KRAS, BRAF.

No association with BRCA mutations.

225
Q

Mucinous ovarian tumours

A

Morphological features similar to mucinous tumours of the gastrointestinal tract.

KRAS mutations.

226
Q

Secondary ovarian tumours

A

Metastatic colorectal carcinoma:
Ovaries, an anatomic site prone to involvement by metastatic colorectal adenocarcinoma.
4-10% of CRC go to ovary.
Ovarian lesions are identified prior to the primary tumor in 14-32% of cases.

Krukenberg tumours:
Bilateral metastases composed of mucin producing signet ring cells.
Most often of gastric origin or breast.

227
Q

Endometrioid Carcinoma

A

10-20% associated with endometriosis, but most others thought to be derived from surface epithelium

Co-existence with endometrioid carcinoma in uterus common

Molecular changes
CTNNB1 (38%-50%)
PTEN (15-20%)
KRAS and BRAF (4%-36%)
MSI (8-38%)
PIK3Ca in (20%)
P53 >60% and usually in high Endometriosis is a precursor

228
Q

Clear cell carcinoma

A

Strong association with endometriosis

Molecular changes:
MSI (6-21%)
PTEN (6%)
P53 (8.3%)
BRAF (6.3%)
PIK3Ca (20-25%)
B-catenin (3%)

229
Q

Sex cord stromal tumours

A

Pure stromal tumours:
e.g. Fibroma, Thecoma, microcystic stromal tumour

Pure sex cord cells:
e.g. Adult type and juvenile granulosa cell tumour

Mixed sex cord-stromal tumours:
e.g. Sertoli Leydig cell tumour

Fibroblasts: Fibromas:
benign, no endocrine production

Granulosa cells: Granulosa cell tumor
variable behaviour, may produce estrogen

Thecal cells: Thecoma:
benign, may secrete oestrogen, or rarely androgens

Sertoli-Leydig cells: Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
variable behaviour, may be androgenic

230
Q

Molecular changes in sex cord stromal tumours

A

Adult type granulosa cell tumour (GCT):
97% of adult GCT show somatic mutation of the Forkhead transcription factor FOXL2, is a master transcription factor that regulates cell proliferation and apoptosis.

FOXL2 mutation can be done in AGCT to confirm the diagnosis in cases where the diagnosis is in question.

Mutation in CTNNB1

231
Q

Hereditary predisposition to sex cord stromal tumours

A

DICER1 Syndrome:
Germline mutation in DICER1, a gene encoding an RNAse III endoribonuclease.
Familial multinodular goitre with sertoli / leydig cell tumour, and tumour susceptibility includes pleuropulonry blastoma in childhood.
Found in up to 60% of seroli-Leydig cell tumours.

Peutz Jeghers syndrome:
Germline mutations of STK11
Sex cord stromal tumour with annular tubules
Cases occurring in PJS usually show indolent behaviour.

232
Q

Mature Teratoma (dermoid)

A

Benign
Solid or cystic
May show many lines of differentiation but all mature adult type tissues
Teeth and hair very common
type of germ cell tumour

233
Q

Immature teratoma

A

Indicates presence of embryonic elements
Neural tissue particularly conspicuous
A malignant neoplasm that grows rapidly, penetrates the capsule and forms adhesions to the surrounding structures
Spreads in the peritoneal cavity by implantation
Metastasis to lymph nodes, lung, liver and other organs
Three tier grading system according to amount of primitive elements

234
Q

Mature cystic teratoma with malignant changes

A

Malignant transformation is rare occurring in 2% of cases, usually in
post menopausal women

Most frequently squamous cell carcinoma

Also carcinoid, thyroid carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma, intestinal adenocarcinoma, leiomyosarcoma, chondrosarcoma and angiosarcoma

235
Q

Hirschsprungs disease

A

Absence of ganglion cells in the submucosal and myenteric plexuses
Starts in the rectum which fails to dilate]
80% male
Associated with Down’s syndrome (2%)
RET proto-oncogene mutation
Treatment: resection of affected (constricted) segment with frozen section to identify when the ganglion cells

236
Q

Functions of kidney

A

excretion
fluid and electrolyte balance
regulation of blood pressure (renin)
regulation of calcium (1,25 alpha hydroxylase)
regulation of haematocrit (erythropoieitin)

237
Q

Filtration in glomerulus

A

high hydrostatic pressure (60mmHg)
podocytes create charge-dependent (anionic) and size-dependent barrier
normal rate: 125 mL/min

238
Q

Filtration in PCT

A

sodium actively resorbed
hydrogen is exchanged to allow carbonate resorption
co-transport of amino acids, phosphate and glucose
potassium is also resorbed

239
Q

Filtration in loop of henle

A

descending/thin ascending limb are permeable to water but not ions or urea, ascending limb actively resorbs sodium and chloride
countercurrent multiplier: aligned with vasa recta

240
Q

Filtration in DCT

A

(impermeable to water)
regulates pH via active transport (proton/bicarb)
regulates sodium, potassium via active transport (aldosterone)
regulates calcium (PTH, 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol)

241
Q

Filtration in collecting duct

A

resorbs water (principal cell, ADH)
regulates pH (intercalated cells, proton excretion)

242
Q

Immune complexes in kidney

A

latticework of antibody and antigen (antigen may be endogenous or exogenous)
may deposit in glomerulus and cause: inflammatory response, complement activation, stimulation of inflammatory cells
may deposit at different rates and sites

243
Q

Polycystic kidney disease

A

1:500
Adult dominant
10% of end-stage renal failure
presents in adulthood with hypertension, flank pain and haematuria
Genetic element: PKD1, PKD2
associated with berry aneurysms

244
Q

Cystic diseases of the kidney

A

cysts commonly develop in patients with end-stage renal disease who are on dialysis
can be: multiple, bilateral, cortical and medullary
increased risk of malignancy development (7% risk at 10 years, papillary renal cell carcinoma)

245
Q

Medical renal disease syndromes

A

acute renal failure (AKI)
nephrotic syndrome
isolated urinary abnormalities
chronic kidney disease

246
Q

Acute renal failure

A

rapid deterioration in renal function (hours, days)
common, often in setting of pre-existing disease
causes:
- pre-renal: failure of perfusion
- renal: acute tubular injury, acute glomerulonephritis, thrombotic microangiopathy
- post-renal: obstruction
presentation and prognosis are variable

247
Q

Acute tubular injury

A

commonest cause of AKI
tubular epithelial cells are damaged by ischaemia, toxins (contrast, Hb, myoglobin, ethylene glycol), drugs
common in critical illness
drugs that inhibit vasodilatory prostaglandins (NSAIDs) predispose

248
Q

ATI pathogenesis

A

normal epithelium with brush border
ischaema/toxins cause loss of polarity and brush border
apoptosis and sloughing of viable and dead cells
proliferation, differentiation, re-polarisation
spreading and dedifferentiation of viable cells

249
Q

ATI causing glomerular filtration failure

A

blockage of tubules by casts
leakage of tubules into interstitial space
secondary haemodynamic changes

250
Q

Acute Tubulo-interstitial nephritis (ATIN)

A

immune injury to tubules and interstitium
can also be due to infection and drugs: NSAIDs, Abx, diuretics, allopurinol, PPIs
heavy interstitial inflammatory infiltrate with tubular injury (can see eosinophils and granulomas)

251
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis

A

acute inflammation of glomeruli
presents with oliguria with urine casts, containing erythrocytes and leucocytes
when sufficient to cause AKI, there are almost always crescents (proliferation of cells within Bowman’s space)

252
Q

Acute crescentic glomerulonephritis

A

immune complex
anti-GBM disease
Pauci-immune (anti-neutrophil cytoplasm antibodies)
leads rapidly to irreversible renal failure
correct diagnosis and treatment urgent

253
Q

Immune complex associated crescentic glomerulonephritis

A

aetiologies include SLE, IgA nephropathy and post-infectious
immune complexes can be identified and localised with IHC and electron microscopy

254
Q

Anti-GBM disease

A

rare and severe
caused by Abs directed against glomerular basement membrane
c-terminal domain of type IV collagen
may cross react with alveolar BM leading to pulmonary haemorrhage
Abs may be detected with serology
linear deposition of IgG demonstrable on GBM

255
Q

Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis

A

only scanty glomerular Ig deposits
usually ANCA-associated; trigger neutrophil activation and glomerular necrosis
vasculitis everywhere

256
Q

Thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA)

A

damage to endothelium in glomeruli, arterioles, arteries leading to thrombosis
red cells may be damaged by fibrin: MAHA, HUS

Diarrhoea associated: bacterial gut infections ie E.coli, toxins released that target renal endothelium

Non-diarrhoea associated: defectes in complement regulation, ADAMTS13 def, drugs (calcineurin inhib), radiation, HTN, scleroderma, APL Ab syndrome

257
Q

Nephrotic syndrome

A

breakdown in selectivity of glomerular filtration barrier leading to protein leak

Presentation: proteinuria, hypoalbuminaema, oedema, hyperlipidaemia

258
Q

Minimal change disease

A

(non-immune complex mediated)
glomeruli look normal by light microscopy
effacement of foot processes on EM
common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children
generally responds to immunosuppression

259
Q

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

A

(non-immune complex mediated)
some glomeruli are partially scarred
less likely to respond to immunosuppression
must exclude possible other diseases that can produce similar appearance (tend to not be nephrotic)

260
Q

Membranous glomerulonephritis

A

(immune complex mediated)
associated with immune deposits on outside of GBM (subepithelial)
common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults
primary disease is autoimmune (Ab against PLA2R)
need to exclude possibility of secondary disease (epithelial malignancy, drugs, infections, SLE)

261
Q

Diabetic nephropathy

A

(systemic nephrotic syndrome)
high glucose levels directly injurious
typically starts as microalbuminuria before progression to proteinuria and nephrotic syndrome
Nodular glomerulosclerosis:
- stage 1: thickening of BM on EM
- stage 2: increase in mesangial matrix, without nodules
- stage 3: nodular lesions / kimmelstiel-wilson
- stage 4: advanced glomerulosclerosis

commonest cause of renal replacement therapy

262
Q

Amyloidosis

A

(systemic nephrotic syndrome)
deposition of extracellular proteinaceous material exhibiting beta-sheet structure
commonest forms in kidney are:
- AA; derived from SAA protein, an acute phase protein; tends to have chronic inflammatory state
- AL; derived from Ig light chains, 80% have multiple myeloma

NB: congo red stain

263
Q

Isolated urinary abnormalities

A

Microscopic haematuria:
- thin basement membranes
- IgA nephropathy

Asymptomatic proteinuria:
- may be associated with broad range of glomerular structural abnormalities or immune complex deposition
- diagnosis often requires renal biopsy for histology, IHC or EM

264
Q

Thin basement membranes

A

hereditary defect in type IV collagen synthesis
basement membrane <250nm thickness
haematuria is only consequence in most cases

Alport’s syndrome:
- X-linked dominant mutations affecting alpha5 subunit
- forms exist in which mutation affect alpha3 or 4 subunit
- typically progressive, renal failure in middle age
- often have deafness, ocular disease

265
Q

IgA nephropathy

A

commonest glomerulonephritis
IgA predominant mesangial immune complex deposition
aetiology not well understood in primary form
- secondary forms observed in lover, bowel, skin
- can be seen with henoch-schonlein purpura
- 30% develop end stage renal failure
Scoring: oxford classification

266
Q

CKD

A

can be caused by a large number of diseases
significant cause of morbidity and mortality
associated with ischaemic heart disease (HTN, hyperlipidaemia, calcification of blood vessels)
association with calcium and phosphate metabolic derangement (hyper PTH, osteomalacia, osteoporosis)

267
Q

Hypertensive nephropathy

A

pathophysiology not fully understood
- narrowing of arteries and arterioles leading to scarring and ischaemia of glomeruli
- hypertension in glomeruli leading to altered haemodynamic environment, stress and segmental scarring
shrunken kidneys with granular cortices
histopath may show nephrosclerosis (arteriolar hyalinosis, arterial intimal thickening, ischaemic glomerular changes, segmental and global glomerulosclerosis)

268
Q

SLE & the kidney

A

= systemic autoimmune disease
affects kidney, skin, joints, heart, serosal surfaces, CNS
affects 1/2500 people
9:1 f:m
deposition of immune complexes in kidney is common
- Abs directed at a broad range of intracellular and extracellular antigens
- anti-nuclear and anti-dsDNA Abs are typical

269
Q

SLE classification

A

I - minimal mesangial disease, near normal on light microscopy
II - mesangial proliferative disease; mesangial hypercellularity, at most isolated subepithelial or subendothelial depositis
III - focal disease; active or inactive segmental

270
Q

Urinary calculi

A

crystal aggregates that form in renal CDs - can eb deposited anywhere in urinary tracts

271
Q

Calcium oxalate urinary calculi

A

related to hypercalciuria

272
Q

Urinary calculi - triple stones

A

magnesium, ammonium, phosphate

273
Q

Uric acid urinary calculi

A

hyperuricaemia: gout or rapid cell turnover
most patients don’t have hyperuricaemia

274
Q

Urinary calculi complications

A

small stones that stay in kidney may be asymptomatic (otherwise detected during investigation of haematuria or recurrent UTIs)

275
Q

Papillary adenoma

A

benign epithelial kidney tumour composed of papillae or tubules

276
Q

Renal oncocytoma

A

benign epithelial kidney tumour composed of oncocytic cells
- well circumscribed
-

277
Q

Angiomyolipoma

A

benign mesenchymal kidney tumour composed of thick-walled blood vessels, smooth muscle and fat

278
Q

Renal cell carcinoma

A

malignant epithelial kidney tumour

279
Q

Renal cell carcinoma subtypes

A
280
Q

Clear cell renal cell carcinoma

A
281
Q

Papillary renal cell carcinoma

A

(no longer divided into two types based on morphology)

282
Q

Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma

A
283
Q

RCC prognosis

A
284
Q

Nephroblastoma

A

(Wilm’s tumour)

285
Q

Urothelial carcinoma

A

(aka TCC)

286
Q

UC subtypes

A
287
Q

Non-invasive papillary UC

A
288
Q

Infiltrating UC

A
289
Q

Flat UC in-situ

A

by definition; high grade

290
Q

BPH

A

benign enlargement of prostate as a consequence of increase in cell number

291
Q

BPH presentation

A
292
Q

Prostatic adenocarcinoma

A

most common malignant epithelial tumour in men

293
Q

Prostatic adenocarcinoma prognosis

A
294
Q

Testicular germ cell tumours

A

highly sensitive to platinum-based chemo
excellent prognosis

295
Q

Subtypes of testicular germ cell tumours

A

seminoma
embryonal carcinoma
post-pubertal teratoma
yolk sac tumour
choriocarcinoma

296
Q

Testicular non-germ cell tumours

A

much less common that germ cell tumours

297
Q

Paratesticular diseases

A
298
Q

Penile diseases

A
299
Q

Urethral diseases

A
300
Q

Scrotal diseases

A
301
Q

Lower GI mechanical disorders

A

Obstruction:
Adhesions
Herniation
Extrinsic mass
Volvulus

Diverticular disease

302
Q

Volvulus

A

Complete twisting of a loop of bowel at mesenteric base around vascular pedicle
Intestinal obstruction +/- infarction
Small bowel (infants)
Sigmoid colon (elderly)

303
Q

Diverticular disease

A

High incidence in West
Low fibre diet
High intraluminal pressure needed to push stool through
‘Weak points’ in wall of bowel where muscular coating is less present
90% occur in left colon

304
Q

Complications of diverticular disease

A

Pain
Diverticulitis
Gross perforation
Fistula (bowel, bladder, vagina)
Obstruction

305
Q

Inflammatory disorders of lower GI tract

A

Acute colitis:
Infection
Drug/toxin (especially antibiotic)
Chemotherapy
Radiation

Chronic colitis:
Crohn’s
Ulcerative colitis
TB

306
Q

Infectious colitis causes

A

Viral e.g. CMV (can colonise and exacerbate IBD)
Bacterial e.g. Salmonella
Protozoal e.g. Entamoeba hystolytica
Fungal e.g. candida

307
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis

A

Follows antibiotic theraapy
Acute colitis with pseudomembrane formation
Caused by protein exotoxins of Clostridium difficile
Histology: Characteristic microscopic features on biopsy
Laboratory: C. difficile toxin stool assay

308
Q

Ischaemic colitis / infarction

A

Acute or chronic
Usually occurs in segments in “watershed” zones, e.g. splenic flexure (SMA and IMA) and the rectosigmoid (IMA and internal iliac artery)
Mucosal, mural, transmural (perforation)

309
Q

Ischaemic colitis aetiology

A

Arterial Occlusion: atheroma, thrombosis, embolism
Venous Occlusion: thrombus, hypercoagulable states
Small Vessel Disease: emboli, vasculitis
Low Flow States: congestive cardiac failure, haemorrhage, shock
Obstruction: hernia, intussusception, volvulus, adhesions

310
Q

Chronic IBD aetiology

A

?Genetic predisposition (familial aggregation, twin studies, HLA )
?Infection (Mycobacteria, Measles etc)
?Abnormal host immunoreactivity
?Microbiome

311
Q

Chronic IBD clinical features

A

Diarrhoea +/- blood
Fever
Abdominal pain
Acute abdomen
Anaemia
Weight loss
Extra-intestinal manifestations

312
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

Western populations
Occurs at any age but peak onset in teens/twenties
White 2-5x > non-white
Higher incidence in Jewish population
Smoking
Whole of GI tract can be affected (mouth to anus)
‘Skip lesions’
Transmural inflammation
Fissure/ sinus/fistula formation
Non-caseating granulomas (organised collection of activated macrophages)

313
Q

Extra-intestinal features of Crohn’s

A

Arthritis
Uveitis
Stomatitis/cheilitis
Skin lesions:
- Pyoderma gangrenosum
- Erythema multiforme
- Erythema nodosum

314
Q

Ulcerative colitis

A

Slightly more common than Crohn’s
Whites > non-whites
Peak 20-25 years but can affect any age
Involves rectum and colon in contiguous fashion.
May see mild ‘backwash ileitis’ (‘reflux’ of toxins - only when whole colon involved) and appendiceal involvement but small bowel and proximal GI tract not affected.
Inflammation confined to mucosa
Bowel wall normal thickness
Shallow ulcers

315
Q

Ulcerative colitis complications

A

Severe haemorrhage
Toxic megacolon
Adenocarcinoma (20-30 x risk)
(adenocarcinoma risk also in Crohn’s but less significant)

316
Q

Ulcerative colitis extra-intestinal features

A

Arthritis
Myositis
Uveitis/iritis
Erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum
Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (5.5% in pancolitis) –> increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma

UC and PSC screened for when the other is present

317
Q

Crypt abscesses

A

marker of active inflammation in Crohn’s and Ulcerative colitis

caused by accumulation of neutrophils in lumen

318
Q

Lower GI tumours

A

Non-neoplastic polyps
Neoplastic epithelial lesions
- Adenoma
- Adenocarcinoma (arise from adenomas)
- Neuro-endocrine Tumours
Mesenchymal lesions
- Lipoma
- Leiomyoma etc
Lymphoma
Stromal tumours

319
Q

Colon and rectum tumours

A

Polyps - Non-neoplastic:
Hyperplastic polyps and Sessile Serrated Lesions
Inflammatory (“pseudo-polyps”)
Hamartomatous (Juvenile, Peutz Jeghers)

Polyps – Neoplastic (adenomas) :
Tubular adenoma (completely flat)
Tubulovillous adenoma
Villous adenoma (have finger-like projections)

320
Q

Sessile serrated lesions

A

subset of hyperplastic polyps (excessive epithelial proliferation)
Hyperplastic polyp with architectural abnormalities (horizontal crypts at the base rather than vertical)
May show dysplasia as well

321
Q

Adenomas

A

Excess epithelial proliferation + dysplasia

20-30% prevalence before age 40
40-50% prev. after age 60

Types
Tubular
Villous
Tubulovillous

322
Q

Prognostic factors for polyps (cancer risk factors)

A

Size (bigger = worse)
Proportion of villous component (more = worse)
Degree of dysplasia (high grade worse than low grade)

323
Q

Adenomas clinical features

A

Usually none
Bleeding/anaemia

324
Q

Familial syndromes with lower GI polyps

A

(Peutz Jeghers) - hamartomatous (usually no increased cancer risk)
Familial adenomatous polyposis
Gardner’s
Hereditary non polyposis (<10 polyps) colon cancer

325
Q

Family adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

A

Autosomal dominant - average onset is 25 years old
Adenomatous polyps, mostly colorectal
Minimum 100 polyps, average ~1,000 polyps
chromosome 5q21, APC tumour suppressor gene
virtually 100% will develop cancer within 10 to 15 years
5% periampullary (duodenum) Ca

326
Q

Gardner’s syndrome

A

subset of FAP
FAP plus extra-intestinal manifestations e.g:
osteomas
desmoid tumors

327
Q

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)

A

= lynch syndrome
Autosomal dominant
May have polyps
3-5% of all colorectal cancers
At least 1 of 4 DNA mismatch repair genes involved
Numerous DNA replication errors
Onset of colorectal cancer at an early age
High frequency of carcinomas proximal to splenic flexure
Poorly differentiated and mucinous carcinoma more frequent
Multiple synchronous cancers
Presence of extracolonic cancers (endometrium, prostate, breast, stomach)

328
Q

Colorectal carcinoma

A

98% are adenocarcinoma
Age: 60-79 years
If < 50yrs consider familial syndrome
Western population

aetiology:
Familial
Diet (low fibre, high fat etc)
Lack of exercise
Obesity

Predisposing conditions:
- Chronic Inflammatory bowel disease
- Adenomas

329
Q

Symptoms of colorectal carcinoma

A

Change of bowel habit
Bleeding
Anaemia
Weight loss
Pain

330
Q

Cells of the liver

A

Hepatocytes
Bile ducts
Blood vessels
Endothelial cells
Kupffer cells
Stellate cells

331
Q

Stellate cell activation

A

stellate cells lie between the hepatic sinusoid endothelial cells and the hepatocytes
they store vitamin A

when they become activated they become myofibroblasts (leading to collagen secretion and cirrhosis in chronic liver disease and also leads to decreased blood supply to hepatocytes due to barrier created between them and sinusoid)

332
Q

Cirrhosis definition

A
  1. whole liver involved
  2. fibrosis
  3. nodules of regenerating hepatocytes
  4. distortion of liver vascular architecture: intra- and extra- hepatic (e.g. gastro-oesophageal) shunting of blood
333
Q

Cirrhosis classification

A

a) according to nodule size:
micronodular or macronodular

b) according to aetiology:
1) alcohol (tend to cause micronodular) / insulin resistance
2) viral hepatitis (usually macronodular) etc.

334
Q

Complications of cirrhosis

A
  1. Portal hypertension
  2. Hepatic encephalopathy (toxins into systemic circulation instead of being taken up and broken down by kupffer cells)
  3. Liver cell cancer
335
Q

Acute hepatitis

A

Aetiology: viruses and drugs

Histology: spotty necrosis (little foci of hepatocyte damage)

336
Q

Chronic hepatitis

A

> 6 months
Aetiology: viral (B,C,D), drugs, auto-immune

inflammation severity = grade
fibrosis severity = stage

histology: portal inflammation, interface hepatitis (piecemeal necrosis), lobular inflammation (spotty necrosis), fibrosis (bridging between portal tracts and central vein = intrahepatic shunting)

337
Q

Alcohol related liver disease

A

1) fatty liver (reversible)

2) alcohol-related hepatitis

3) cirrhosis (potentially reversible)

(somewhat sequential)

338
Q

Alcohol-related hepatitis

A

Ballooning ( +/- Mallory Denk Bodies = cytoskeleton clumps)
Fat
Pericellular fibrosis
Mainly seen in Zone 3 (most metabolically active cells so where most alcohol is converted to acetaldehyde which is the toxic compound causing damage)

339
Q

NAFLD and NASH

A

Now MAFLD (metabolic associated fatty liver disease) and
MASH(metabolic associated steatohepatitis)

Histologically looks like alcoholic liver disease
Due to insulin resistance associated with raised BMI and diabetes
Becoming recognised as one of the commonest causes of liver disease, world-wide

340
Q

Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

A

Previously primary biliary cirrhosis.
Autoimmune
F> M
Bile duct loss associated with chronic inflammation (with granulomas)
Diagnostic test is detection of anti-mitochondrial antibodies
associated with raised levels of IgM in blood

341
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

A

M > F
Periductal bile duct fibrosis leading to loss
Associated with ulcerative colitis
Increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma
Diagnostic test is bile duct imaging

342
Q

Haemochromatosis

A

Genetically determined increased gut iron absorption (2mg instead of 1mg)
manifests earlier in men because iron balance is more borderline in women
Gene on chromosome 6 (HFe) - common mutation in celtic population
Parenchymal damage to organs secondary to iron deposition (bronzed diabetes)
causes liver cirrhosis (accumulation or iron in hepatocytes), cardiomyopathy, pancreatitis etc.

343
Q

Haemosiderosis

A

accumulation of iron in macrophages (better at dealing with excess iron than hepatocytes)

caused by blood transfusion

344
Q

Wilson’s disease

A

Accumulation of copper due to failure of excretion by hepatocytes into the bile
Assessed by biopsy or biochemistry
Genes on chromosome 13
Accumulates in the liver and CNS (hepato-lenticular degeneration - choreiform movements) including Kayser-Fleishcer rings (deposition in cornea)

345
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis

A

F>M
Active chronic hepatitis with plasma cells
Anti-smooth muscle actin or anti-liver kidney microsomal antibodies in the serum
Responds to steroids

346
Q

Alpha-one antitrypsin deficiency

A

Failure to secrete alpha-one antitrypsin
Intra-cytoplasmic inclusions due to misfolded protein
Hepatitis and cirrhosis

347
Q

Drug related liver injury

A

“any kind of liver disease can be caused by a drug”
ie. hepatocellular and / or cholestatic
10% of drug reactions involve the liver
May be dose-related or idiosyncratic

Paracetamol toxicity: damage in zone 3 (most metabolically active cells)

348
Q

Hepatic granulomas

A

Specific causes:
PBC
drugs

General causes
TB
Sarcoid etc

349
Q

Benign liver tumours

A

1) liver cell adenoma
2) bile duct adenoma
3) haemangioma

(sharply circumscribed)

350
Q

Malignant liver tumours

A
  1. secondary tumours (metastasis through portal circulation)
  2. primary tumours:
    hepatocellular carcinoma
    hepatoblastoma
    cholangiocarcinoma
    haemangiosarcoma
351
Q

Hepatocellular carcinomas

A

Usually associated with cirrhosis especially in the West.
Raised alpha-fetoprotein
Poor prognosis

352
Q

Cholangiocarcinomas

A

Associated with:
PSC
Worm infections
Cirrhosis

Can arise from:
intrahepatic ducts
extrahepatic ducts (including gall bladder)

353
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

characterised by atheromatous deposits in and fibrosis of the inner layer of the arteries
can cause occlusion and protrude through lumen

354
Q

RFs for atherosclerosis

A
  • age (progressive between 40->60 incidence x5)
  • sex (M>F, premenopausal women protected, postmenopausal risk increases, older age F>M)
    genetics (family history, familial hypercholesterolaemia, genetic polymorphisms)
  • hyperlipidaemia (modifiable)
  • hypertension (motifiable, alone increases risk of IHD by 60%)
  • smoking (prolonged doubles death rate from IHD, stopping reduces risk considerably)
  • diabetes mellitus (increases hyperchol and atherosclerosis)

risk factors have multiplicative effect

other RFs: inflammation, metabolic syndrome, lipoprotein, haemostasis (procoagulation), lack of exercise, stress, obesity

355
Q

Atherosclerosis pathogenesis

A

chronic inflammatory and healing response of arterial wall to endothelial injury

Lesion progression occurs through interaction of modified lipoproteins, monocyte-derived macrophages, and T lymphocytes with endothelial cells and smooth muscle cells of the arterial wall.

  1. endothelial injury and dysfunction
  2. LDL accumulation
  3. Monocyte adhesion to endothelium
  4. Monocyte migration into intima –> macrophages and foam cells
  5. platelet adhesion
  6. factor release and smooth muscle cell recruitment
  7. wall thickening
356
Q

Fatty streaks

A

earliest lesions
lipid-filled foamy macrophages
no flow disturbance
in virtually all children
relationship to plaques uncertain
same sites as plaques

357
Q

Atherosclerotic plaques

A

patchy - cause local flow disturbances
only involve portion of wall
rarely circumferential
appear eccentric
composed of: cells, lipid, matrix

358
Q

Consequences of atheroma

A

stenosis: critical when demand>supply, occurs at approx 70% occlusion, causes stable angina, can lead to chronic IHD, acute plaque rupture can occur

acute plaque change: rupture, erosion, haemorrhage (rupture and erosion expose prothrombogenic components)

359
Q

Vulnerable plaques

A

adrenalin increases blood pressure and causes vasoconstriction
increases physical stress on plaque
hence emotional stress increases risk of sudden death
circadian periodicity to sudden death (6am-noon)

(thin fibrous cap and large lipid core: more likely to rupture)

360
Q

IHD

A

group of conditions resulting from MI
imbalance of supply to demand for oxygenated blood
less nutrients and less waste removal
less well tolerated than pure hypoxia
gradual progression before symptoms

Presentation:
- angina pectoris
- MI
- chronic IHD with heart failure
- sudden cardiac death

361
Q

IHD pathogenesis

A

insufficient coronary perfusion relative to myocardial demand due to chronic progressive atherosclerotic narrowing of epicardial coronary arteries and variable degrees of superimposed plaque change, thrombosis, vasospasm
75% stenosis or more needed to cause symptoms precipitated by exercise, vasodilation cannot compensate above this level of stenosis
90% stenosis can lead to pain at rest

362
Q

ACS

A

stable plaque becomes unstable
due to rupture, erosion, haemorrhage
can lead to superimposed thrombus which increases occlusion

363
Q

Angina pectoris

A

transient ischaemia not producing myocyte necrosis
includes: stable, Prinzmetal, Unstable
stable comes on with exertion, relieved by rest
no plaque disruption
Prinzmetal is uncommon and is due to artery spasm

364
Q

Unstable angina

A

more frequent
longer
onset with less exertion or at rest
disruption of plaque
superimposed thrombus
possible embolisation or vasospasm
warning of impending infarction

365
Q

MI

A

death of cardiac muscle due to prolonged ischaemia
= necrosis
incidence increases with age
M>F
IHD most common cause of death in postmenopausal women

366
Q

MI pathogenesis

A

(artery occlusion)
1. sudden change to plaque
2. platelet aggregation
3. vasospasm
4. coagulation
5. thrombus evolves

myocardial response: blood supply compromised –> ichaemia –> loss of contractility within 60 seconds
(heart failure can precede myocyte death)
potentially reversible but irreversible after 20-30 minutes

367
Q

Reperfusion injury

A

clinical importance uncertain
due to oxidative stress, calcium overload and inflammation
mitochondrial swelling and apoptosis
leukocyte aggregation and occlusion of microvasculature
arrhythmias common
biochem abnormalities last days-weeks
thought to cause stunned myocardium - reversible cardiac failure lasting several days

368
Q

MI complications

A

contractile dysfunction
arrhythmia (myocardial irritability and conduction disturbance)
myocardial rupture (LV free wall most common, septum less common, papillary muscle least common, at mean 4-5 days)
pericarditis (dressler syndrome)
RV infarction
Infarct extension (necrosis spread)
Infarct expansion (necrotic muscle stretches)
mural thrombus

369
Q

Chronic IHD

A

progressive HF due to ishaemic myocardial damage
may not be prior infarction
can arise with severe obstructive CAD
enlarged heavy heart, hypertrophied, dilated LV
atherosclerosis
maybe mural thrombi
microscopic fibrosis

370
Q

sudden cardiac death

A

unexpected death from cardiac causes in individuals without symptomatic heart disease or early (1hr) after symptoms onset
usually due to lethal arrhythmia (sustained AF or asystole)
usually on background of IHD
ischaemia induced electrical instability
marked atherosclerosis

371
Q

Bone tumours

A
  • Very rare
  • can be benign or malignant
  • malignant tumours 60x less common than lung
    cancer
  • primary malignant bone tumours most common in children and young adults
  • Site predilection - around knee most common
  • Different tumours have different site and age
    predilection
  • Clinical information and ‘team’ approach to diagnosis
    essential
372
Q

Bone tumour diagnosis

A

Clinical presentation:
* pain, swelling, deformity, fracture

History:
* age, site, duration, ?hx of trauma
* ?multiple lesions, ?associated disease

X ray:
* Evaluate site, size, margin
* ?solitary or multiple, ?soft tissue extension
* ?associated disease or fracture

  • Optimal treatment is early referral to specialist centre

Biopsy:
* Needle biopsy preferred option
* Performed by radiologist usually with Jamshidi needle
* +/- US or CT guidance
* Open biopsy for sclerotic or inaccessible lesions
* Imprint (cytology) preparations are very useful

373
Q

Bone tumour-like conditions

A
  • Fibrous dysplasia
  • Metaphyseal fibrous cortical defect/non-ossifying fibroma
  • Reparative giant cell granuloma
  • Ossifying fibroma
  • Simple bone cyst
374
Q

Fibrous dysplasia

A
  • F>M mono-ostotic > polyostotic
  • Age: 1st 3 decades
  • Site: any bone, ribs, prox femur commonest
  • Xray: ‘soap bubble’ osteolysis
  • polyostotic disease can be associated with endocrine problems and rough border café au lait spots on skin
    (McCune Albright syndrome)
  • <1% malignant transformation
  • Somatic mutation in guanine-nucleotide binding protein
    (G-protein). (GNAS mutation chr 20 q13)
  • histology: trabecular bone (chinese letters)
  • complications: shepherd’s crook deformity
375
Q

Benign bone tumours

A
  • Cartilaginous differentiation
  • Osteochondroma (age 10-20, M:F 2:1, common sites = at ends of long bones)
  • Enchondroma (age 10-40, M:F equal, common sites = hands and fingers, popcorn calcification on x-ray)
  • Chondroblastoma
  • Bone forming
  • Osteoid osteoma
  • Osteoblastoma
  • Osteoma
376
Q

Giant cell bone tumours

A

borderline malignancy

Site: epiphysis with metaphyseal extension
Age: 20-40 y F>M
X-ray: Lytic
Histo: osteoclasts on a background of spindle/ovoid cells
Locally aggressive, may recur, can metastasise
Mx: excision with narrow margins

377
Q

Commonest malignant bone tumours

A

= metastases (unusual below knee/elbow)

Adults:
* Breast
* Prostate
* Lung
* Kidney
* Thyroid

Children:
* Neuroblastoma
* Wilm’s tumour
* Osteosarcoma
* Ewings
* Rhabdomyosarcoma

378
Q

Malignant bone tumours

A

Osteosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma
Ewing’s sarcoma/PNET (primitive peripheral neuroectodermal tumour)

379
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

Commonest primary bone sarcoma
Age: peak in adolescence (75% patients are <20y)
M:F 2:1
Site: 60% occur around the knee
X-ray: usually metaphyseal, lytic, permeative, elevated periosteum(Codman’s Triangle)
Histo: malignant mesenchymal cells +/- bone and cartilage formation
Prognosis: poor- 60% 5 year survival. Treatment is usually chemo and limb salvage surgery

380
Q

Osteosarcoma classification

A
  1. According to site within bone:-
    i.e. intramedullary, intracortical, surface

2.Degree of differentiation:-
i.e. high, intermediate or low grade

  1. Multicentricity:-
    i.e. synchronous or metachronous

4.Primary or secondary.

381
Q

Chondrosarcoma

A

Malignant cartilage producing tumour
Age: 40y and over
M:F 5:4
Site: pelvis, axial skeleton, prox femur, prox tibia
X-ray: lytic with fluffy calcification
Histo: malignant chondrocytes +/- chondroid matrix
may dedifferentiate to high grade sarcoma
Prognosis: 70% 5y survival (depends on grade & size)

382
Q

Chondrosarcoma classification

A
  1. According to site intramedullary, juxtacortical
  2. Histologically
    conventional (myxoid or hyaline), clear cell, dedifferentiated, mesenchymal
383
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma/PPNET

A

Highly malignant small round cell tumour
Age: usually < 20y (80%)
M:F 4:3
Site: diaphysis/metaphysis of long bones, pelvis
X-ray: onion skinning of periosteum, lytic +/- sclerosis
Histo: sheets of small round cells, MIC2 stain positive
Prognosis : - 75% 5y survival 50% longterm
Specific chromosome translocation 11:22 (EWS/Fli1)

384
Q

Soft tissue tumours

A

Defined as mesenchymal proliferations which occur in the extraskeletal, non-epithelial tissues of the body - excluding meninges and lymphoreticular system

Site:
Anywhere. Majority occur in large muscles of extremities, chest wall,
mediastinum, retroperitoneum

Age:
Any age. Majority older patients
15% < 15yrs
50% > 55yrs

Sex:
M>F overall, but sex and age varies between histological types

Race:
No proven racial variation
Ewing’s and clear cell sarcoma rare in Afrocaribbean population

385
Q

Soft tissue tumours aetiology

A
  • uncertain

Factors Include:
- Genetic Predisposition
- Chemical carcinogens
- Physical ( asbestos, foreign body )
- Viruses
- Immunodeficiency

386
Q

Types of soft tissue tumours

A

liposarcoma/myxoid tumours
spindle cell tumours
pleomorphic sarcoma
synovial sarcoma

387
Q

Soft tissue tumours diagnosis

A

Immunohistochemistry
EM
Cytogenetics (conventional & interphase)
FISH
M-FISH
SKY
CGH
PCR
RT-PCR

388
Q

Soft tissue tumours prognostic factors

A

GOOD BAD
Size <5cm >5cm
Depth superficial to deep
deep fascia to deep fascia
Histological grade low high
Excision margin clear involved
Vascular invasion absent present
Ploidy diploid aneuploid/
hyperdiploid
Proliferation Index low high
Tu. Supressor gene present absent
Tu. Promoter gene absent present

389
Q

Soft tissue tumour staging

A

Stage
0 3 good prognostic signs
1 2 good 1 bad
2 1 good 2+ bad
3 3+ bad
4 metastases, regional or distant

390
Q

Pituitary gland structure

A

anterior: epithelial cells (derived from oral cavity), with blood supply from pituitary portal system
releases hormones under stimulation from hypothalamus

posterior: neuroendocrine cells with blood supply from nerves from hypothalamus

391
Q

Pituitary diseases

A

Hyperpituitarism: excess secretion of trophic hormones (usually due to functional adenoma)
- classified on basis of hormones produced (most common are prolactin)

Hypopituitarism: deficiency of trophic hormones

Local mass effects

392
Q

Pituitary adenomas symptoms

A

Prolactinomas:
- amenorrhoea, galactorrhoea, loss of libido, infertility
- usually diagnosed earlier in females of reproductive age

Growth hormone adenomas:
- in prepubertal children: gigantism
- in adults: acromegaly
- diabetes mellitus, muscle weakness, hypertension, congestive cardiac failure

Corticotroph cell adenomas: - Cushing’s syndrome

393
Q

Hypopituitarism

A

most are caused by:

non-secretory pituitary adenomas

Ischaemic necrosis (most commonly post-partum)
- can also be causes by DIC, sickle cell anaemia, elevated ICP, shock

Ablation of pituitary by surgery or irradiation

394
Q

Hypopituitarism symptoms

A

Children: growth failure (pituitary dwarfism)

Gonadotrophin deficiency: amenorrhea and infertility in women, decreased libido and impotence in mean

TSH & ACTH deficiency: hypothyroidism and hypoadrenalism

Prolactin deficiency: failure of lactation post-partum

395
Q

Posterior pituitary syndromes

A

(mainly involves ADH)
Diabetes insipidus (too little ADH)
SIADH (due to brain trauma usually, will present with profound hyponatraemia)

396
Q

Local mass effects of pituitary tumours

A

compression of optic chiasm leading to bitemporal hemianopia

signs and smptoms of elevated ICP (headaches and papilloedema)

Obstructive hydrocephalus (late stage, compression of brain stem and herniation through foramen magnum)

397
Q

Thyroid gland histology

A

(2 lobes connected by isthmus)
colloid-filled follicles with interstitial tissue between them
follicles lined by epithelial cells
scattered cells between follicles: parafollicular cells/C cells (synthesis calcitonin)

398
Q

Non-toxic thyroid goitre

A

= enlargement of thyroid

common if impaired synthesis of thyroid hormone (most often due to iodine deficiency)

commonly seen in puberty in females

may be caused by ingestion of substances that interfere with thyroid hormone synthesis (eg brassicas) or hereditary enzyme defects (thyroglobulin)

may progress to multinodular goitre which can be large in mass and cause airway/oesophageal obstruction

399
Q

Papillary thyroid carcinoma

A

may occur at any age
may have papillary architecture
diagnosis based on nuclear features:
- optically clear nuclei
- intranuclear inclusions
May have psammoma bodies (little foci of calcification)

nonfunctional –> present as painless mass in neck, may present with metastasis in cervical lymph nodes
10 year survival 90% with appropriate treatment

400
Q

Follicular thyroid carcinoma

A

peak incidence in middle age
follicular morphology (look similar to normal tissue)
may be well demarcated with minimal invasion or clearly infiltrative
usually metastasise via bloodstream to lungs, bone and liver

401
Q

anaplastic thyroid carcinoma

A

occur in elderly patients
very aggressive
metastases common
most cause death within one year due to local invasion

(may just be very aggressive follicular carcinomas)

402
Q

Parathyroid glands

A

derive from developing pharyngeal pouches
usually 4 of them
usually to upper and lower poles of thyroid but may be in thymus or anterior mediastinum

activity controlled by level of free calcium in blood –> decreased calcium stimulates release of PTH

403
Q

PTH actions

A
  • activates osteoclasts
  • increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
  • increases conversion of vitamin D to its active form
  • increases urinary phosphate excretion
  • increases intestinal calcium absorption
404
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A

most commonly due to solitary benign adenoma
less commonly due to hyperplasia of all 4 glands (sporadic or MEN1)
very rarely due to carcinoma

increased level of serum ionised calcium (usually incidental finding)

405
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism manifestations

A

Osteitis fibrosa cystica (bone resorption with cortex thinning and cyst formation)
Renal stones and obstructive uropathy
GI disturbances; constipation, pancreatitis, gallstones
CNS alterations; depression, lethargy, fits
neuromuscular abnormalities; weakness
polyuria and polydipsia

406
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

caused by any condition associated with chronic depression of serum calcium
renal failure is most common cause
parathyroid glands are enlarged (may be asymmetrical)
leads to bone changes as with primary disease

407
Q

Hypoparathyoidism

A

causes:
- surgical ablation
- congenital absence
- autoimmune

clinical manifestations:
- neuromuscular irritability (tingling, muscle spasms, tetany)
- cardiac arrhythmias
- fits
- cataracts

408
Q

Adrenal gland

A

Cortex surrounds medulla
cortex is made up of epithelial cells
medulla made up of neural cells and secretes noradrenaline and adrenaline

409
Q

3 zones of adrenal cortex

A

outer: zona glomerulosa, secretes aldosterone

middle: zona fasciculata, secretes glucocorticoids

inner: zona reticularis, secretes androgens and glucocorticoids

410
Q

Causes of primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Acute:
- sudden withdrawal of steroids
- haemorrhage (neonates)
- sepsis with DIC

Chronic:
- autoimmune (Addison’s)
- TB
- HIV
- metastatic tumour (esp lung and breast)
- rarely amyloid, fungal infections, haemochromatosis, sarcoidosis

411
Q

Function of bone

A

Mechanical: support and site for muscle attachment

Protective: vital organs and bone marrow

Metabolic: calcium reserve

412
Q

Bone composition

A

Inorganic (65%):
- calcium hydroxyapatite
- storehouse for 99% of Ca in body
- 85% of phosphorous and 65% of Na and Mg

Organic (35%):
- bone cells and protein matrix

413
Q

Bone geography

A

Outside to in: periosteum, cortex, medulla

Diaphysis (longer) and Epiphysis separated by metaphysis

414
Q

Types of bone

A

Cortical:
- long bones
- 80% of skeleton
- appendicular
- 80-90% calcified
- mainly mechanical and protective

Cancellous:
- vertebrae & pelvis
- 20% of skeleton
- axial
- 15-25% calcified
- mainly metabolic
- large surface

415
Q

Cortical bone microanatomy

A

Haversian canals going up and down
surround haversian canals: concentric lamallae
in between those units: interstitial lamallae
surrounding (outside): circumferential lamallae
deeper inside: trabecular lamallae

416
Q

Cancellous bone microanatomy

A

trabecular lamallae and haematopoietic cells on H&E staining

417
Q

Bone cells

A

Osteoblasts:
build bone by laying down osteoid
(smaller cells, single nucleus)

Osteoclasts:
multinucleate cells of macrophage family resorb or chew bone

Osteocytes:
osteoblast-like cells which sit in lacunae
(small, single nucleus)

418
Q

Osteoprotegrin

A

Blocks RANK-RANK ligand interaction to prevent osteoclast differentiation for precursor

419
Q

Metabolic bone disease

A

= disordered bone turnover due to imbalance of chemicals in body

overall effect: osteopenia –> fractures with little trauma

420
Q

3 main categories of bone disease

A
  1. Non-endocrine (eg. age-related osteoporosis)
  2. related to endocrine abnormality (Vit D, PTH)
  3. Disuse osteopenia
421
Q

Histology for metabolic bone disease

A

bone biopsy from iliac crest; processed in un-decalcified form for histomorphometry

‘static’ parameters:
- cortical thickness and porosity
- trabecular bone volume
- thickness, number & separation of trabeculae

bone mineralisation is studied using osteoid parameters

‘histodynamic parameters’ are obtained from fluorescent tetracycline labelling

422
Q

Osteoporosis

A

90% of cases due to insufficient Ca intake and post-menopausal oestrogen deficiency
(primary - age & post-menopause, secondary - drugs, systemic disease)

high turnover = increased bone resorption
low turnover = decreased bone formation

fracture pathogenesis: low initial bone mass or accelerated bone loss can reduced bone mass below fracture threshold

423
Q

Risk factors for Osteoporosis

A

advanced age
female sex
smoking
excess alcohol
early menopause
long-term immobility
low BMI
poor diet (low vit D and Ca)
malabsorption
thyroid disease
low testosterone
chronic renal disease
steroids

424
Q

Typical osteoporosis presentation

A

back pain +
wrist (Colles’), hip (NOF, intertrochanteric) or pelvis fracture
(may be asymptomatic)

compression fractures can also occur at T11-12 level

425
Q

Ix for osteoporosis

A

Lab:
- serum calcium, phosphorous, alk phos
- urinary calcium
- collagen breakdown products

Imaging

Bone densitometry:
- T score 1-2.5 = osteopenia
- T score >2.5 = osteoporosis

426
Q

Parathyroid abnormalities

A

4 organs affected which control Ca metabolism:
Parathyroid glands
bones
kidneys
proximal small intestine

427
Q

Osteomalacia

A

= defective bone mineralisation

2 types: deficiency of Vit d or phosphorous

sequelae:
bone pain/tenderness
fracture (horizontal in looser’s zone)
proximal weakness
bone deformity (eg. bowing in rickets)

428
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A
  • increased Ca and PO4 excretion in urine
  • hypercalcaemia
  • hypophosphataemia
  • skeletal changes of osteitis fibrosa cystica
429
Q

Causes of hyperparathyroidism

A

Primary:
- parathyroid adenoma (85-90%)
- chief cell hyperplasia

Secondary:
- chronic renal deficiency
- vit d deficiency
- malabsorption

430
Q

Hyperparathyroidism symptoms

A

stones (renal), bones (osteitis fibrosa cystica), abdominal groans (constipation, pancreatitis), psychic moans (psychosis, depression)

431
Q

Renal osteodystrophy

A

= all skeletal changes of chronic renal disease:
- osteitis fibrosa cystica
- osteomalacia
- osteosclerosis
- growth retardation
- osteoporosis

432
Q

Paget’s disease

A

= disorder of bone turnover

3 phases:
1. osteolytic
2. osteolytic-osteosclerotic
3. quiescent osteosclerotic

onset>40y
M=F

433
Q

Paget’s disease aetiology

A

unknown
autosomal pattern of inheritance with incomplete penetrance
parvomyxovirus type particles

sites affected: mainly pelvis and skull

434
Q

Paget’s disease clinical presentation

A

pain
microfractures
nerve compression
skull changes (may put medulla at risk)
haemodynamic changes (cardiac failure)
development of sarcoma in area of involvement (1%)

435
Q

Types of fractures

A

simple, compound, greenstick (children), comminuted (trauma), impacted

436
Q

Fracture repair stages

A
  1. organisation of haematoma at fracture site (pro-callus)
  2. formation of fibrocartilaginous callus
  3. Mineralisation callus
  4. Remodelling of bone along weight-bearing lines
437
Q

Factors influencing fracture healing

A

type
presence of infection
pre-existing systemic condition (tumour, metabolic disorder, drugs, vitamin deficiency)

438
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

malaise, fever, chills, leucocytosis
pain, swelling, redness

60% positive blood cultures

XR: mixed picture, eventually lytic

almost always bacterial

routes: haematogenous, direct extension, traumatic (incl. surgery)

439
Q

Causative organisms of osteomyelitis

A

mainly staph aureus

also: E. coli, klebsiella, salmonella, psuedomonas, haemphilus influenzae, group b strep

440
Q

Osteomyelitis X-ray changes

A

10 days post-onset
mottled rarefaction and lifting of periosteum
Involucrum: irreg sub-periosteal new bone formation (>1week)
Irregular lytic destruction (10-14 days)
sequestra: necrotic cortex areas become detached (3-6 weeks)

441
Q

TB affects on bone (osteomyelitis)

A

spinal disease may result in psoas abscess and severe skeletal deformity (Pott’s disease)

systemic amyloidosis

442
Q

Syphilis osteomyelitis

A

(rare)

congenital skeletal lesions:
- osteochondritis
- osteoperiostitis
- diaphyseal osteomyelitis

acquired (late) skeletal lesions:
- non-gummatous periostitis
- gummatous inflammation of bone and joints
- neuropathic joints
- neuropathic shaft fractures

443
Q

Lyme disease

A

inflammatory arthropathy from tick bite

organism: borrelia burgdorferi
Tick species: Ixodes dammini

skin rash: erythema chronicum migrans

Musculoskeletal effects seen in early disseminated phase and late/persistent phase dominated by arthritis

Mx: prevention & vaccination, Abx for proven disease, clinical diagnosis

444
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

Primary: age-related

Secondary: any age, previously damaged or congenitally abnormal joint

aetiology unknown but results in:
cartilage degeneration, fissuring, abnormal matrix calcification, osteophytes

main sites: vertebrae, hips, knees

445
Q

OA XR features

A

loss of joint space
subchondral sclerosis
cystic lesions
osteophytes

446
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

severe chronic relapsing synovitis
unpredictable course
F:M = 3:1
Age 30-40y

aetiology: most likely autoimmune, some genetic predisposition, association with HLA DR4 & DR1

80% RF +ve
(RF forms immunocomplexes with IgG)

447
Q

RA clinical features

A

mild anaemia
raised ESR
RF +ve
+/- rheumatoid nodules

multisystem disease

sites: small joints, hands, feet, sparing of DIPJ
wrists, elbows, ankles, knees

448
Q

RA characteristic deformities

A

radial deviation of wrist
ulnar deviation of fingers
‘swan neck’ and ‘boutonniere’ deformity of fingers
‘Z’ shaped thumb

449
Q

RA XR features

A

soft tissue swelling
joint space narrowing
erosions
subchondral cysts

450
Q

RA histology

A

Proliferative synovitis with:
1. thickening of synovial membranes
2. hyperplasia of surface synoviocytes
3. intense inflammatory cell infiltrate
4. fibrin deposition and necrosis

Pannus formation with exuberant inflamed synovium overlying the articular surface