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histology > histology exam 1 > Flashcards

histology exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

purpose of fixation

A

stop autolysis

prevent bacterial decomposition

stabilize proteins

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2
Q

most common fixation is with

A

formalin

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3
Q

stains are based on

A

electrostatic charges

acid or basic (most common)

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4
Q

stain used for a neutral charge (rarely used)

A

methylene blue picrate

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5
Q

stain used for indifferent charge

A

sudan III, sudan IV (scarlet red)

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6
Q

type of vital stain (live cells)

A

methylene blue

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7
Q

most commonly used stain

A

H&E (hematoxyline and eosin)

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8
Q

characteristics of hematoxylin

A

basic; positive

attaches to negative nucleic acids - stains the nuclei purple

natural dye

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9
Q

other basic stains

A

toluidine blue

methylene blue

fuscin stains

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10
Q

characteristics of eosin

A

acidic, negative

attaches to positive charged cytoplasmic structures

stains cytoplasm pink

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11
Q

other acidic stains (rarely used)

A

orange g

phloxine

aniline blue

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12
Q

what kind of stain was used

A

H&E

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13
Q

the blue line represents what kind of section

A

cross section

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14
Q

the yellow line represents what kind of section

A

longitudinal section

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15
Q

the pink line represents what kind of section

A

oblique or tangential section

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16
Q

what kind of section is good for sectioning small objects and maintaining anatomical structure

A

longitudinal sections

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17
Q

what kind of section is indicated to maintain anatomical structures

A

longitudinal section

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18
Q

what are serial sections for

A

to stain the same tissue with different techniques

ex. use H&E for structure and IHC to test for viral presence and identify if there are antibodies

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19
Q

artifacts are due to

A

processing errors or poor tissue quality

ex. freezing crystals or autolysis

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20
Q

types of stains to observe tissue architecture

colors depend on the tissue/cell type

ex. skin

A

trichrome stain

wright-giemsa and diff quick

orcein - shows elastic fibers

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21
Q

types of stains to observe substances in the sample

A

methylene blue (vital stain)

toluidine blue

congo red (polarizer)

prussian blue (iron detection)

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22
Q

types of stains to detect bacteria

A

gram

ziehl neelsen (acid fast)

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23
Q

types of stains to detect fungi

A

silver stains (GMS, Gamori) - fungal wall

periodic acid schiff (PAS) - polysaccharides

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24
Q

why is counterstaining important

A

to stain the rest of the tissue

usually hematoxylin, sometimes methyl green

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25
Q

what type of stain is this

what does it show

A

trichrome

pink - epithelial

red - muscle

blue - connective

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26
Q

what type of stain was used

A

wright-geimsa and diff quick

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27
Q

what type of stain was used

what is shown

A

orcein

black squiggles - elastic fibers

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28
Q

what type of stain was used

what can you see

A

toluidine blue

bright purple/magenta - mast cell

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29
Q

what type of stain was used

what is shown

A

prussian blue (also known as perl’s stain)

bright blue - iron

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30
Q

the iron detection of the prussian blue stain would be useful for the diagnosis of what disease and why

A

hemochromatosis

a build up of iron in the liver

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31
Q

what stain is shown

what can you see

A

congo red

under polarized light, amyloid will show bright green

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32
Q

what stain was used

what can you see

A

gram stain

pink - gram negative bacteria

purple - gram positive bacteria

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33
Q

what stain was used

what can you see

A

ziehl neelsen (acid fast)

bright pink - mycobacteria

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34
Q

what stain was used

what can you see

A

GMS (silver stain)

black - fungi

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35
Q

what stain was used

what can you see

A

PAS
bright pink - fungi

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36
Q

what stain was used

what can you see

A

PAS

bright pink - polysaccharides

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37
Q

what makes mast cells stain with toluidine blue

A

histamine

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38
Q

what stain was used on these mast cells

A

wright

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39
Q

what stain was used on these mast cells

A

giemsa

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40
Q

what fixative is most often used for electron microscopy

A

glutharaldehyde

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41
Q

what is immunohistochemistry, ihc used to identify

A

cell type

tissue/cell component

pathogens

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42
Q

between H&E, ihc and ish which is the most specific

A

ISH

in IHC, the antibodies can sometimes stick to other things. in ISH, only the target sequence will be marked

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43
Q

medium inside the limits of the cells where organelles are located

A

cytoplasm

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44
Q

components of plasma membrane

A

proteins, lipids, hydrocarbons, glycolipids, glycoproteins

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45
Q

cell type specific modifications of the plasma membrane include

A

microvilli

glycocalyx

intermembranous junctions

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46
Q

microvilli

A

apical, brush border

gives more surface area for absorption

ex. sm intestinal mucosal cells

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47
Q

glycocalyx

A

gel on surface of cell to make them glide more easily

ex. in the endothelium, keeps cells from sticking to lumen

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48
Q

intermembranous junctions

A

anchor one cell to another

ex. epidermal cell desmosomes

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49
Q

3 main functions of the mitochondria

A

oxidative phosphorylation

respiratory chain

krebs cycle

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50
Q

where does oxidative phosphorylation and the respiratory chain occur

A

inner rough membrane/crests of the mitochondria

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51
Q

where does the krebs cycle occur

A

mitochondrial matrix

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52
Q

forms the nuclear membrane, is covered with ribosomes to create proteins for export

A

rough ER

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53
Q

produces enzymes for lipid synthesis/metabolism, steroid hormone synthesis and glycogen metabolsim

A

smooth ER

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54
Q

connects the ER and cell membrane

produces polysaccharides

stores products from SER and RER

forms zymogen granules and vesicles to export products

forms lysosomes

A

golgi apparatus

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55
Q

full of digestion enzymes

numerous in immune cells and renal tubular epithelium

A

lysosomes

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56
Q

cytoskeleton functions

A

structure, movement, transport

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57
Q

regulates protein synthesis

contains and transfers genomes

A

nucleus

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58
Q

double membrane formed by RER

disappears during cell division

A

nuclear membrane

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59
Q

types of chromatin

A

euchromatin (dispersed and in use)

heterochromatin (condensed, not in use)

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60
Q

site of rRNA assembly

disappears during parts of cell division

largest in fast growing and reproductive cells

A

nucleolus

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61
Q

changes that make spermatids to spermatozoa

A

nucleus condenses in head

golgi acrosomic granules surround nucleus

centrioles to mid piece base of flagellum

mitochondria surround centrioles

cytosol and other organelles removed in residual body

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62
Q

what is the spermatozoa head composed of

A

condensed haploid nucleus

acrosome with hyaluronidase and cathepsin

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63
Q

what is the spermatozoa neck composed of

A

centrioles of 9 triplets of microtubules

mitochondria

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64
Q

what is the spermatozoa tail composed of

A

9 pairs of microtubules plus 1 central pair

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65
Q

formation of ___ at the end of gastrulation

A

notochord

66
Q

notochord

A

will become intervertebral discs

forms axis that guides body into what goes on the R, L, front, back

serves as the “spinal cord” of embryo

67
Q

the morula differentiates into

A

embryobast or trophoblast

68
Q

gastrulation

bilaminar embryo

A

embryoblast divides into endoderm and ectoderm

69
Q

gastrulation

elongated embryo

A

primitive node extends in ectoderm, extends a sulcus caudally

mesoderm forms between ectoderm and endoderm

70
Q

gastrulation

trilaminar embryo

A

notochord forms

makes embryo symmetrical

induces formation of neuroectoderm

forms intervertebral discs later

71
Q

embryo acquires final shape and organs begin differentiating and developing

A

body shape acquisition

72
Q

phases of body shape acquisition

A

neurulation

mesoderm differentiation

somatopleural tubulation

73
Q

body shape acquisition

formation of neural plate (neuroectoderm)

neural groove

neural tube

neural crest cells migrate from neural tube into the mesoderm and differentiate

A

neurulation

74
Q

the neural crest cells will form

A

PNS and medullary portion of adrenal gland

75
Q

mesodermal differentiation

paraxial mesoderm differentiates into ____ based on location

A

somitomeres (cranial aspect of embryo)

somites (caudal aspect of embryo)

76
Q

paraxial mesoderm

somitomeres become

A

cranial structures

77
Q

paraxial mesoderm

somites become

A

axial skeleton

  • dorsal vertebrae, muscles, bones, dermis, connective tissue
78
Q

mesodermal differentiation

intermediate mesoderm differentiates into

A

mesonephros

79
Q

intermediate mesoderm

mesonephros becomes

A

urinary and reproductive organs

80
Q

mesodermal differentiation

lateral mesoderm divides into ___ based on location

A

somatopleure (closer to outside ectoderm)

splachnopleure (closer to inside ectoderm)

81
Q

lateral mesoderm

somatopleure becomes

A

thoracic and abdominal structures (mesothelium and limbs); makes the walls of things

82
Q

lateral mesoderm

splachnopleure becomes

A

epithelium and connective tissue covering organs; respiratory, digestive, thyroid and parathyroid glands

83
Q

body shape acquisition

embryo folding or tubulation

A

endoderm

makes tubular structures that will later become the trachea, lungs and GIT

edges come together and make tubular structure

84
Q

what is folded during endoderm tubulation

A

somatopleure or splachnopleure

85
Q

embryo folding/tubulation

ways of folding

A

cranio-caudal (median plane)

lateral (horizontal plane)

occur at the same time for rapid growth of embryo

86
Q

embryonic origin of epithelium

A

ecto, meso and endoderm

87
Q

embryonic origin of musculoskeletal tissue

A

mesoderm

88
Q

embryonic origin of connective tissue

A

mesoderm

89
Q

embryonic origin of nervous tissue

A

ectoderm

90
Q

main structures formed from endoderm

A

GI and pulmonary

91
Q

main structures formed from mesoderm

A

muscles

skeletal

genitourinary

92
Q

main structures formed from ectoderm

A

skin and related structures

nervous

93
Q

messenger that can specify a cell’s differentiation pathway as a function of its concentration in the microenvironment of the target cell

A

morphogen

94
Q

embryonic origin of skeletal muscle

A

paraxial mesoderm (somites and somitomeres)

95
Q

embryonic origin of cardiac muscle and purkinje fibers

A

lateral mesoderm (splacnopleura)

96
Q

embryonic origin of smooth muscle

A

lateral mesoderm (splacnopleura)

97
Q

bundles of type 1 collagen fibers connecting periosteum to bone

A

sharpey’s fibers

98
Q

stem cell line of osteoblasts, bone lining cells and osteocytes

A

mesenchymal

99
Q

stem cell line of osteoclasts

A

hematopoieitic

100
Q

intramembranous ossification

A

mesenchyme to bone

forms flat bones, heals fractures and seen when bones need to grow very fast

101
Q

endochondral ossification

A

mesenchyme to cartilage anlage to bone

forms most long, short and irregular bones

ends at puberty, leaving an epiphyseal line when growth plates fuse

102
Q

outcomes of bone remodeling

A

cutting cone

howship’s lacuna

103
Q

a cylindrical structure called secondary osteon or haversian system

A

cutting cone

104
Q

a group of lamellae called a hemi-osteon or trabecular packet

A

howship’s lacuna

105
Q

secondary osteons and trabecular packets are surrounded by a ___; functions to stop the progress of microcracks

A

cement line

106
Q

remnant of older osteons that were left behind after remodeling

A

interstitial lamellae

107
Q

where is woven bone most common

A

young animals - mainly large mammals

fracture calluses

some bone tumors

108
Q

where is fibrolamellar bone most common

A

large and rapidly growing mammales

109
Q

where is circumferential lamellar bone most common

A

reptiles’ long bones

110
Q

area where blood vessels run between osteons connecting to the periosteum and endosteum

A

volkmann’s canals

111
Q

primary osteons

A

primary bone tissue made by replacing cartilage

no cement line

112
Q

secondary osteons

A

“haversian system”

secondary bone tissue made by replacing existing bone

encircled by cement line

most common structure in small animal long bones

113
Q

extracellular matrix composed of

A

fibrous material (type 2 collagen and elastin fibers)

gel like ground substance (sulfated glycosaminoglycans GAG, hyaluronic acid, water)

114
Q

peripheral layer of vascularized, dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds hyaline and elastic cartilage; contains type 1 collagen, fibroblasts and blood vessels and nerves in the outer fibrous layer; contains undifferentiated mesenchymal cells in the inner chondrogenic layer

A

perichondrium

115
Q

what types of cartilage lack perichondrium

A

articular hyaline and fibrocartilage

116
Q

2-4 chondrocytes in small clusters within the same lacunae due to cell division; only in hyaline cartilage

A

isogenous group

117
Q

where is hyaline cartilage found

A

embryonic bone templates

growth plate

articular cartilage

larynx, tracheal rings, bronchi

costal cartilage

nose

118
Q

articular cartilage

chondrocytes and collagen alignment in the superficial zone

A

elongated, inactive chondrocytes

collagen aligned parallel to joint surface

119
Q

chondrocytes and collagen alignment in the middle (transitional) zone

A

spherical chondrocytes

collagen aligned randomly

120
Q

chondrocytes and collagen alignment in the deep (radial) zone

A

chondrocytes arranged in column

collagen aligned vertical to joint surface

121
Q

chondrocytes and collagen alignment in the calcified cartilage zone

A

transition to bone

collagen insert into calcified cartilage

122
Q

interstitial growth; done by hyaline cartilage in growth plate

A

increase in length

123
Q

towards which end of the growth plate does oxygen tension decrease

A

metaphyseal end

124
Q

growth plate

reserve cartilage zone

A

resting chondrocytes

type 2 collagen randomly oriented

125
Q

growth plate

cell proliferation zone

A

chondrocytes divide, create columns of flat lacunae

collagen fibers form longitudinal septa in between lacunae

126
Q

growth plate

cell hypertrophy/maturation zone

A

chondrocytes stop dividing and start hypertrophying

cartilage walls between lacunae are thinning

127
Q

growth plate

calcification zone

A

mineral deposited in the collagen matrix between chondrocyte columns

cartilage is calcified

128
Q

growth plate

bone deposition zone

A

chondrocytes die and horizontal walls between the lacunae break down

osteoblasts arrive and start to deposit osteoid on the calcified cartilage creating the primary spongiosa

129
Q

growth plate

metahpyesis

A

osteoblasts deposit concentric lamellae which will create the secondary spongiosa (trabeculae); concurrently chondroclasts remove the temporarily mineralized cartilage

130
Q

contributes chondrocytes to the growth plate for the growth in diameter (appositional growth)

A

groove of ranvier

131
Q

provides mechanical support for the weak bone-cartilage interface of the growth plate

A

ring of lacroix

132
Q

where is elastic cartilage found

A

epiglottis

larynx

ear pinna

auditory tube

133
Q

cartilage with alternating layers of collagen type 2 and type 1; collagen fibers oriented in the direction of stress; provides tensile and compressive strength and resist deformation

A

fibrocartilage

134
Q

where is fibrocartilage found

A

intervertebral discs

pubic/pelvic symphysis

menisci

entheses

135
Q

long, non-motile microvilli that lack filamentous core; remove polar residual bodies, absorb extra water; ex. hair cells in the inner ear

A

stereocilia

136
Q

epithelial intercellular junctions

cells with tight junctions (zona occludens)

A

columnar cells, apical border

ex. intestinal mucosa

137
Q

epithelial intercellular junctions

cells with terminal bars (zona adherens)

A

cuboidal and columnar cells; various tissues

138
Q

epithelial intercellular junctions

cells with desmosomes (macula adherens)

A

squamous epithelium of epidermis

139
Q

epithelial intercellular junctions

cells with gap junctions

A

cuboidal epithelium; tissues that need quick signaling

ex. renal tubule

140
Q

merocrine secretion

A

release through vesicles by exocytosis, cytoplasm intact

141
Q

holocrine secretion

A

secretion is terminal, cells disintegrate afterwards

142
Q

apocrine secretion

A

membrane bound blebs of cytoplasm

143
Q

mucus secretion

A

mucins (glycosylated proteins)

lubrication and protection

ex. goblet cells

144
Q

what stain could you use to identify mucus cells

A

PAS

145
Q

serous secretion

A

non-glycosylated proteins; digestive enzymes

ex. pancreas

146
Q

seromucous glands (complex secretion)

A

combination of digestive enzymes and mucus

ex. salivary gland

147
Q

spindle to stellate shape

open face nucleus with nucleoli; surrounded b amorphous ground substance

stem cell for other connective tissue types and smooth muscle

A

mesenchymal cells

148
Q

originate from mesenchymal cell

does not make ECM

surrounded and supported by reticular collagen and fibroblasts

A

adipocytes

149
Q

most common connective tissue cell

fusiform shape with elongated nucleus

produce ECM

A

fibroblasts

150
Q

ECM amorphous ground substance contains

A

GAGs

proteoglycans

adhesive glycoproteins

151
Q

ECM protein fibers include

A

collagen

reticulin

elastin

152
Q

amorphous ECM functions

A

lubrication

diffusion

blockage

adhesion

153
Q

GAGs

A

hyaluronic acid

eases cell migration, molecular diffusion and lubrication

154
Q

GAGs plus proteoglycans

A

dermatan (chondroitin, keratan, heparan) sulfate

lubricant, space filling

155
Q

adhesive glycoproteins in ECM

A

laminin

found in basal lamina, endomysium, subendothelium

156
Q

collagen type 3

A

reticulin

157
Q

most abundent collage type

A

collagen type 1

158
Q

stains for reticulin

A

silver

PAS

159
Q

interspersed with collagen, provide stretching; produced by fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells

A

elastic fibers

160
Q

stain for mucinous matrix

A

alcian blue stain

161
Q

stain for elastin fibers

A

orcein stain

162
Q

stain for adipocytes

A

oil red O

histology (2 decks)

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