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histology > histo exam 2 > Flashcards

histo exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

epidermis is made of what type of cells

A

stratified squamous; may contain keratinocytes

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2
Q

top to bottom layers of epidermis

A

stratum corneum
stratum lucidum
stratum granulosum
stratum spinosum
stratum basale

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3
Q

which epidermal layer:
single layer of cuboidal/columnar cells
anchored to basement membrane via hemidesmosomes
attached to other cells via desmosomes
actively reproductive

A

stratum basale

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4
Q

which epidermal layer:
multiple layers of polygonal cells
attached to other cells via desmosomes
some reproductive activity

A

stratum spinosum

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5
Q

which epidermal layer:
single to few layers of plump squamous cells
attached to other cells via desmosomes
cytoplasm filled with keratohyaline granules
may be invisible in thin skin

A

stratum granulosum

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6
Q

which epidermal layer:
few to many layers of squamous cells
attached to other cells via desmosomes
terminally differentiated cells
may be preceded by stratum lucidum in thick skin
high amount in paw pads and elbows

A

stratum corneum

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7
Q

cell that synthesizes melanin in melanosomes
share melanin with keratinocytes and macrophages via intercellular processes
usually seen in stratum basale

A

melanocytes

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8
Q

Ag presenting cells in the epidermis

A

langerhans cells

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9
Q

how are hair and hair follicles usually oritented

A

diagonal to surface

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10
Q

base of hair with germinal cell matrix

A

bulb

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11
Q

innermost column of hair
central cuboidal/columnar cells
absent in wool

A

medulla

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12
Q

layer of hair following medulla
contains flat cells longitudinal to axis

A

cortex

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13
Q

layer of hair following medulla
scaly squamous cells
pointing upwards

A

outer cuticle

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14
Q

dermal papilla of hair follicle is (vascular or avascular)?

A

vascular

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15
Q

part of hair follicle:
from germinal cells
scaly squamous cell cuticle
points downwards

A

inner root sheath

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16
Q

part of hair follicle:
abuts (connects to) follicular basement membrane

A

connective tissue sheath

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17
Q

species with single/simple hair follicles

A

ruminants and horses (vertical in sheep)
pigs (in groups of 3)

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18
Q

species with compound hair follicles

A

carnivores

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19
Q

where do compound hair follicles union

A

sebaceous gland opening

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20
Q

sinus hairs
blood filled sinuses in connective tissue sheath
ex. whiskers

A

tactile hairs

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21
Q

how does avian epidermis differ from mammalian epidermis

A

thinner
contains stratum germinativum (basal, intermediate, vacuolated layers) and stratum corneum
no gland except uropygial gland
no papillae

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22
Q

what birds do not have a uropygial gland

A

emus
ostrich

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23
Q

3 main feather types on adult birds

A

contour
down
filoplume

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24
Q

feather type:
hollow central shaft (very vascularized in young birds)
hollow quill (calamus)
thinner rachis (barbs and barbules w/ hooks)

A

contour (and wing/tail feathers)

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25
Q

feather type:
contains hook-less barbules
insulate the body

A

down

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26
Q

feather type:
hair like
no barbules

A

filoplume

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27
Q

feather papilla gives rise to ___; germinative cells in growing feathers

A

feather pulp

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28
Q

layers of feather follicle

A

stratum corneum
stratum germinativum
connective tissue layer

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29
Q

what is absent filoplumes (no movement)

A

arrector plumae smooth muscle

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30
Q

avian appendage with high vascularized dermis rich in mucin; can be stained with

A

wattle and comb
stained with alcian blue stain

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31
Q

thick keratinized outer layer of beaks

A

ramphotheca

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32
Q

what nerve ending do beaks contain

A

herbst’s corpuscles

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33
Q

keratinized epidermis covering distal end of digit

A

hoof

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34
Q

inflammation of laminar dermis

A

laminitis (founder)

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35
Q

types of animals with epidermal scales

A

reptiles
birds
mammals (pangolin)

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36
Q

types of animals with dermal scales

A

fish
reptiles
amphibians
*armadillos

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37
Q

modified and thickened stratum corneum (keratin)
can shed corneal layer

A

epidermal scales

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38
Q

derived from mesenchyme
remnants of dermal skeleton
bony base
cannot be shed

A

dermal scales

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39
Q

collagenous connective tissue with a loose irregular superficial layer and deeper dense irregular layer; vascularized; contains glands and nerves

A

dermis

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40
Q

4 types of dermal glands

A

sebaceous
apocrine
mammary
uropygial

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41
Q

secretion type of sebaceous glands

A

holocrine

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42
Q

secretion product of sebaceous glands

A

lipid product - sebum

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43
Q

sebaceous glands open into

A

lumen of hair follicle

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44
Q

sebaceous gland in eyelid
common benign tumor in older dogs

A

meibomian gland

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45
Q

secretion type of sweat (sudoriferous) glands

A

apocrine or merocrine

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46
Q

secretion product of sweat glands

A

aqueous; glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans

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47
Q

sweat glands open into

A

epidermal surface (merocrine)
or lumen of hair follicle (apocrine)

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48
Q

sweat glands are surrounded by

A

myoepithelium
contains actin and myosin

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49
Q

secretion type of mammary glands

A

apocrine

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50
Q

secretion product of mammary glands

A

milk

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51
Q

mammary glands open into

A

intralobular ducts

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52
Q

mammary glands are surrounded by

A

myoepithelium

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53
Q

epithelial type of sebaceous glands

A

stratified cuboidal

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54
Q

epithelial type of sweat glands

A

simple or bistratified cuboidal

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55
Q

epithelial type of mammary glands

A

simple cuboidal

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56
Q

large sebaceous gland in birds for preening

A

uropygial gland

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57
Q

secretion type of uropygial gland

A

holocrine secretion

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58
Q

secretion product of uropygial gland

A

oily sebum

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59
Q

epithelial type of uropygial gland

A

simple tubules or branched alveoli

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60
Q

uropygial gland opens to

A

primary duct through papilla onto epidermal surface

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61
Q

origin of arrector pili muscle

A

superficial dermis

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62
Q

insertion of arrector pili muscle

A

connective tissue sheath of hair follicle

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63
Q

what stain could you use to distinguish an arrector pili muscle from collagen

A

trichrome stain

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64
Q

receptor for tactile stimuli
associated with tactile nerve endings
sensitive to touch

A

merkel cells

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65
Q

receptor found in dermis and visceral organs
detect pressure
looks like an onion

A

pacinian corpuscle

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66
Q

receptor found in dermis of beaks, lower legs
sensory nerve endings with central nerve, fluid filled lamellae surrounded by a capsule
detect pressure

A

herbst’s corpuscles

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67
Q

subcutis contains

A

adipose tissue

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68
Q

what stain can identify fat

A

oil red o

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69
Q

outermost meninges; attached to endosteum of cranium

A

dura mater; pachymeninx

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70
Q

second meninges

A

arachnoid mater

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71
Q

inner most meninges; highly vascular; adherent to brain and spinal cord

A

pia mater

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72
Q

arachnoid + pia mater

A

leptomeninx; leptomeninges

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73
Q

contains CSF

A

subarachnoid space

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74
Q

how is the brain divided

A

forebrain
midbrain
hindbrain

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75
Q

forebrain

A

2 cerebral hemispheres
diencephalon - thalamus and hypothalamus

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76
Q

connection between two cerebral hemispheres

A

corpus collosum

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77
Q

3 parts contained in the cerebral cortex

A

basal nuclei - motor control
hippocampus
amygdala - limbic system

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78
Q

midbrain contains

A

mesencephalon

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79
Q

hindbrain contains

A

metencephalon and medulla oblongata of brain stem

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80
Q

white matter contains

A

myelinated axons and glial cells, blood vessels

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81
Q

where is white matter located

A

peripheral in spinal cord
central in brain

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82
Q

gray matter contains

A

neuronal cell bodies, glial cells and axons, blood vessels

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83
Q

where is gray matter located

A

peripheral in brain
central in spinal cord

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84
Q

functional cells of the nervous system

A

neurons

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85
Q

“neural glue”

A

neurons and glial cells

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86
Q

what “living” properties do neurons possess

A

irritability
conductibility

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87
Q

provide support and myelin sheath to axons in the CNS; can form myelin sheath for several axons at once

A

oligodendrocytes

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88
Q

neurons are sensitive to

A

hypoxia

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89
Q

oligodendrocytes can be destroyed by ___ resulting in demyelination

A

viruses or toxins

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90
Q

functions of microglial cells

A

immunosurveillance
immunoregulation
reparative (phagocytic) - role in healing

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91
Q

activated microglial cells; swollen after phagocytizing debris

A

gitter cells

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92
Q

microglial cells are derived from

A

blood borne monocyte

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93
Q

CNS counterpart to the fibroblast; protoplasmic in the GM; fibrillar in the WM

A

astrocytes

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94
Q

what stain can be used as a marker for astrocytes

A

GFAP

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95
Q

function of astrocytes

A

transport nutrients from parenchyma to neurons
part of blood brain barrier
antigen presentation

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96
Q

BBB is made up of

A

basement membrane of endothelial cells
feet of astrocytes
tight junctions of endothelial cells

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97
Q

components of the CNS that originate from the ectoderm and are sensitive to hypoxia

A

neurons
astrocytes
oligodendrocytes

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98
Q

components of the CNS that originate from the mesoderm and are not as sensitive to hypoxia

A

microglia
vascular endothelium

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99
Q

nissl substance

A

remnants of ER

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100
Q

cluster of neuron cell bodies in the CNS with a common function

A

nucleus

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101
Q

how do nuclei communicate with each other

A

tracts - pathways of large groups of axons

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102
Q

presence of lipofuscin indiactes

A

oxidative damage to organelles/cell

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103
Q

release of synaptic vesicles

A

induces depolarization

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104
Q

neurotransmitter released in a stimulatory synapse

A

acetylcholine

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105
Q

neurotransmitter released in inhibitory synapse

A

GABA

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106
Q

thermoreceptors sense

A

heat and cold

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107
Q

meissner’s corpuscle senses

A

touch

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108
Q

nociceptor senses

A

pain

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109
Q

pacinian corpuscle senses

A

pressure

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110
Q

glial cell that covers papillary projections within the lateral, 3rd and 4th ventricles; line the central canal of the spinal cord and produce CSF

A

ependymal cells

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111
Q

choroid plexus is composed of

A

capillaries

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112
Q

ependymal cells appear to be cuboidal epithelial but do not have a ___

A

basement membrane

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113
Q

function of CSF

A

nourishes CNS tissue; cushions

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114
Q

where can samples of CSF be taken from

A

atlanto-occipital area
lumbosacral area

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115
Q

CSF has to be reabsorbed to prevent

A

hydrocephalus

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116
Q

cells in the molecular layer of the cerebellum GM; outer layer

A

basket cells

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117
Q

cells in the ganglionic layer of the cerebellum GM; single middle layer

A

purkinje cells

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118
Q

cells in the granular layer of the cerebellum GM; inner layer

A

granule cells

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119
Q

what additional layer may infants have in the cerebellum GM

A

internal granular cell layer; located deep to the molecular cell layer

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120
Q

what fibers travel down the dorsal nerve root of the spinal cord

A

sensory afferent fibers

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121
Q

dorsal root ganglia contains

A

afferent cell bodies and dendrites that determine sensory input

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122
Q

what fibers travel up the ventral nerve root of the spinal cord

A

motor efferent fibers

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123
Q

collection of axons/dendrites in PNS; contains endothelial cells, fibroblasts and schwann cells

A

nerve

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124
Q

collection of neuronal cell bodies in the PNS

A

ganglia

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125
Q

thin-like extensions of small glial cells that surround neurons within ganglia

A

satellite cells

126
Q

function of ganglia

A

relay stations to transmit nerve impulses

127
Q

direction of nerve impulse determines

A

whether ganglion is sensory or autonomic

128
Q

slides can be fixed with __ to preserve myelin sheath and appear black with EM

A

osmium

129
Q

main purpose of cardiovascular system

A

deliver oxygen and nutrients; remove CO2 and waste products for metabolization

130
Q

efferent vessels from the heart; transfer blood with nutrients and oxygen to tissues

A

arteries

131
Q

afferent vessels into the heart; transport blood with waste and CO2 to lungs

A

veins

132
Q

thin connections between arteries and veins

A

capillaries

133
Q

simple squamous epithelium
line all cardiovascular organs
arises from the mesoderm

A

endothelial cells

134
Q

capillaries are composed of

A

simple squamous endothelium
basement membrane - no smooth muscle
tight junctions (zona occludens) and terminal bars (zona adherens)

135
Q

capillaries function as the sites of

A

gas exchange
nutrient exchange
immune cell exit into interstitium

136
Q

3 types of capillaries

A

continuous
fenestrated
sinusoidal

137
Q

capillary type that lacks pores or openings
site of minimal to no substance exchange
ex. in BBB, blood-testis barrier

A

continuous

138
Q

capillary type that has pores <100nm in the wall of endothelial cells usually closed by a diaphragm; sites of high fluid substance exchange
ex. in intestinal villi, ciliary body, choroid plexus, glomeruli

A

fenestrated

139
Q

capillary type that is discontinuous; large pores and large spaces between endothelial cells; discontinuous basement membrane; sites of high particle and cell exchange
ex. in spleen, bone marrow, liver

A

sinusoidal

140
Q

cells with elongated nucleus and cytoplasmic projections, with their own basal lamina; partially encircle cells in capillaries and venules; capable of contractility and paracrine communication for angiogenesis

A

pericytes

141
Q

where are capillary beds abundant

A

organs with a high metabolic rate
ex. kidney, liver, cardiac and skeletal muscle

142
Q

proportion of capillaries w/ open lumen depends on

A

metarterioles’ sphincters

143
Q

narrowest branches of arterioles surrounded by smooth muscle and branch into capillaries

A

metartioles

144
Q

3 layers of the intima

A

endothelium
subendothelium
internal elastic membrane

145
Q

cell type of subendothelium

A

fibroblasts and minimal ECM

146
Q

cell type of internal elastic membrane

A

elastic fibers

147
Q

layers of the media

A

smooth muscle
connective tissue - fibroblasts, collagen, elastic fibers

148
Q

layers of the adventitia

A

connective tissue - fibroblasts, collagen, elastic fibers

149
Q

arterioles and venules that supply blood to media/adventitial layers

A

vasa vasorum

150
Q

structure of arterioles

A

intima layer has no subendothelial membrane and very thin or absent elastic membrane
median layer has 4-5 smooth muscle layers, no outer elastic membrane
thin adventitial layer

151
Q

structure of median layer of small-medium caliber arteries

A

up to 40 smooth muscle layers
elastic layer present - >caliber = >thickness

152
Q

muscular arteries

A

small-medium caliber arteries

153
Q

elastic arteries

A

large caliber arteries
ex. aorta

154
Q

elastic arteries have an indistinguishable ___ layer; are mostly made of media

A

outer elastic

155
Q

venules participate in

A

metabolite exchange and inflammtion

156
Q

structure of intima layer of venules

A

endothelium only
some pericytes

157
Q

structure of median layer of venules

A

few layers of smooth muscle

158
Q

structure of adventitial (tunica externa) layer of venules

A

thin collagenous connective tissue

159
Q

majority of veins are

A

small-medium caliber

160
Q

veins have ___; extensions of the intima, mostly elastic covered by endothelium

A

valves

161
Q

structure of intimal layer of veins

A

+/- subendothelial membrane

162
Q

structure of median layer of veins

A

few layers of smooth muscle and collagenous fibers

163
Q

structure of adventitial layer of sm-med. caliber veins

A

prominent collagenous connective tissue

164
Q

structure of adventitial layer of large caliber veins

A

prominent collagenous connective tissue plus smooth muscle fibers (vasa vasorum)

165
Q

lymphatic vessels are filled with ___ lymph

A

protein rich

166
Q

structure of lymphatic capillaries

A

blind ended vessels
lined by endothelial cells
openings between cells
overlapping edges prevent backflow

167
Q

structure of lymphatic vessels

A

endothelium
valves present
minimal smooth m. or connective tissue

168
Q

where does the R atrium get CO2 rich blood from

A

the body via cranial and caudal vena cava

169
Q

where does the R ventricle send CO2 rich blood

A

lungs via pulmonary arteries

170
Q

where does the L atrium get O2 rich blood from

A

lungs via pulmonary veins

171
Q

where does the L ventricle send O2 rich blood

A

body via aorta

172
Q

the mammalian heart has 4 chambers which allows for

A

complete separation of de/oxygenated blood
- more efficient than in 3 chamber hearts

173
Q

fibrous tissue sac enclosing the heart

A

pericardium

174
Q

extension of the blood vessels’ intima layer; tunica intima of the heart

A

endocardium

175
Q

lines all internal surfaces of the heart

A

endothelium

176
Q

tissue layers of endocardium

A

endothelium
subendothelium
subendocardium

177
Q

structure of subendothelium

A

dense compact collagenous tissue + elastic fibers

178
Q

structure of subendocardium

A

loose collagenous connective tissue
impulse conducting system - purkinje fibers, blood vessels and nerves

179
Q

thickest tissue layer of the heart

A

myocardium

180
Q

why is the myocardium of the L ventricle thicker than the R

A

more force is required to pump blood to all the body than just to the lungs

181
Q

wear and tear pigment sometimes seen in cardiac muscle

A

lipofuscin

182
Q

outermost tissue layer, visceral capsule of the heart
serosal membrane

A

epicardium

183
Q

tissues of the epicardium

A

mesothelium
subepicardium

184
Q

structure of mesothelium in epicardium

A

simple squamous
supported by loose collagenous connective tissue
continuous with inner surface of pericardial sac

185
Q

structure of subepicardium

A

loose collagenous connective tissue with nervous ganglia, adipose tissue, blood vessels and nerves

186
Q

tissue of cardiac valves

A

dense fibrous connective tissue covered with endothelium

187
Q

3 types of cardiac valves include

A

atrioventricular
aortic
pulmonary

188
Q

dense irregular connective tissue that provides shape and support for the heart

A

cardiac skeleton

189
Q

where is the cardiac skeleton found

A

base of pulmonary trunk, aorta, AV valves
w/in the interventricular and interatrial septa
w/in valve cusps and chordae tendinae
insertion points of atrial and ventricular myocardium

190
Q

how does the conducting system keep the heart’s beat

A

generate and conduct waves of depolarization to stimulate myocardial contractions

191
Q

conducting fibers of the heart

A

purkinje fibers

192
Q

3 components of the conducting system

A

sinoatrial (SA node)
atrioventricular (AV node)
atrioventricular bundle of His (AV bundle)

193
Q

where is the SA node located

A

R atrial wall near vena cava

194
Q

where is the AV node located

A

R atrial wall near AV valve

195
Q

where is the AV bundle located

A

in interventricular septum

196
Q

SA node is responsible for

A

atrial contraction

197
Q

purkinje fibers responsible for

A

ventricular contraction

198
Q

modified myocardial fibers
sarcoplasm rich
myofibrils poor
small with few intercalated disks

A

SA and AV nodes

199
Q

continuation of AV node
myofibers differentiate into purkinje fibers
glyogen rich cytoplasm
few peripheral myofibers

A

AV bundle

200
Q

what stain could be used to distinguish the AV bundle (due to its glycogen rich cytoplasm)

A

PAS

201
Q

inflammation of lymphatics

A

lymphagiectasia

202
Q

hardening of the arteries

A

atherosclerosis

203
Q

necropsy findings for atherosclerosis

A

thickened aorta and pulmonary arteries
reduced lumen

204
Q

what stain can be used to observe atherosclerosis

A

weigert’s resorcin fuchsin

205
Q

possible causes of atherosclerosis in birds

A

genetic predisposition
lack of exercise
diet - low antioxidants; marek’s disease affects lipid metabolism

206
Q

embryonic origin of cardiovascular structures

A

mesoderm (splanchnic mesoderm)
ectoderm (neural crest cells) - cardiac septa and valves

207
Q

one of the first functional systems to form in the embryo

A

cardiovascular system

208
Q

end of vasculogenesis

A

endothelial cell differentiation

209
Q

end of angiogenesis

A

formation of vessels

210
Q

order of vasculogenesis

A

mesodermal cells -> FGF-2 -> hemangioblasts -> VEGF angioblasts -> VEGF ->endothelial cells

211
Q

angiogenesis is regulated by

A

PDGF and Tgf-B

212
Q

endothelial cells’ growth factors induce

A

differentiation of mesenchymal cells into smooth muscle (tunica media)

213
Q

from splanchnic mesoderm, the cardiogenic plaque gets pushed backwards by neural tube and starts differentiating into

A

cardiac tube

214
Q

endocardial cushions differentiate into ___ to form L and R chambers

A

septum intermedium

215
Q

first internal cardiac septum completed
divides R and L ventricles

A

interventricular septum

216
Q

division of R and L atria
forms foramen ovale which closes after birth

A

interatrial septum

217
Q

function of foramen ovale

A

so most of the O2 rich blood bypasses the lungs in the fetus

218
Q

what is the problem if the foramen ovale does not close after birth

A

unoxygenated blood goes into circulation

219
Q

vascular arterial valves

A

aorta
pulmonary artery

220
Q

L AV valve

A

bicuspid

221
Q

R AV valve

A

tricuspid

222
Q

valves are formed from

A

mesenchymal tissue (neural crest cells)
and cavitations of myocardium

223
Q

cavitations of myocardium made of

A

papillary muscles
chordae tendinae

224
Q

the ductus arteriosis should

A

become a ligament; close

225
Q

patent ductus arteriosis (PDA)

A

ductus arteriosis remains open

226
Q

results of PDA

A

mixing O2 and non-O2 blood
increased output - heart works harder
murmur

227
Q

PDA is hereditary in which dog breeds

A

poodle
collie
german shepherd

228
Q

persistent right aortic arch

A

obstructs the lumen of the esophagus

229
Q

results of persistent right aortic arch

A

megaesophagus
regurgigation

230
Q

(valvular or arterial) pulmonary stenosis is more common?

A

valvular

231
Q

results of valvular stenosis

A

R heart failure
syncope
systolic murmur

232
Q

results of aortic stenosis

A

L ventricular dilation/hypertrophy
systolic murmur

233
Q

septal defects include

A

inter-atrial septal defect
inter-ventricular septal defect

234
Q

tetralogy of fallot

A

pulmonary stenosis
enlarged aorta
dilation and hypertrophy of R ventricle
inter-ventricular septal defect

235
Q

results of tetralogy of fallot

A

stunted growth and exercise induced cyanosis

236
Q

blood is about __% cells and about __ liquid

A

45
55

237
Q

3 classes of blood cells

A

erythrocytes
leukocytes
platelets (thrombocytes)

238
Q

function of RBC

A

O2, CO2 transport

239
Q

hematocrit (Ht)

A

% of RBCs in blood

240
Q

problem with polycythemia (high Ht)

A

more viscous blood
could form blood clots
heart has to work harder to pump

241
Q

biconcave structure of RBC

A

inc surface area for gas exchange

242
Q

flexible structure of RBC allows

A

can go through thin vessels like capillaries

243
Q

rouleaux

A

RBCs stacked like coins
most common in horses and cats

244
Q

histology structure of RBC

A

filled with Hb
minimal organelles and microtubules to keep shape

245
Q

crenation

A

spiky RBCs
most common in pigs

246
Q

function of platelets

A

hemostasis - blood clotting

247
Q

how do platelets clot blood

A

release fibrinogen granules
fibrinogen turns to fibrin

248
Q

light and peripheral region of platelet

A

hyalomere region
-OCS (open canicular system)
-microtubules and actin filaments (rapid degranulation)

249
Q

dark and central region of platelet

A

granulomere region
- granules

250
Q

platelets do not have a nucleus and are fragments of ___

A

megakaryocytes’ cytoplasm

251
Q

nucleated cells with small pink granules +/- vacuoles; may not come from megakaryocytes

A

thrombocytes

252
Q

thrombocytes’ OCS

A

surface connected cannicular system
amplifies surface area
inc metabolite exchange

253
Q

cellular components of the immune system that act mostly outside of the blood/vasculature

A

WBC

254
Q

mononuclear cells

A

lymphocytes
monocytes

255
Q

PMN cells (granulocytes)

A

neutrophils (heterophils)
eosinophils
basophils

256
Q

nucleus shape in granulocytes

A

lobulated

257
Q

types of granules

A

azurophilic - primary
specific - secondary

258
Q

what cell type are terminally differentiated

A

leukocytes

259
Q

neutrophil function

A

acute inflammation
bacterial infections
pus

260
Q

most numerous PMN cell in dogs cats and horses

A

neutrophil

261
Q

band neutrophils

A

less mature
not fully segmented nucleus

262
Q

granules in neutrophils

A

primary (lysosomes)
secondary - neutral stain, pale pink or blue, sometimes invisible

263
Q

enzymes in primary granules in neutrophils

A

myeloperoxidase
lysozyme
defensins

264
Q

enzymes in secondary granules in neutrophils

A

collagenases, ones that degrade ECM
bactericidal compounds

265
Q

secondary granules in heterophils

A

large acidophilic

266
Q

eosinophil function

A

anti-parasitic response
allergy modulation

267
Q

eosinophilic granules

A

primary
secondary - acidophilic, major basic protein anti-helminthic

268
Q

basophil function

A

allergic response (IgE receptors)
histamine release

269
Q

basophilic granules

A

primary
secondary - basophilic, heparin, histamine

270
Q

mononuclear cell granules

A

primary azurophilic granules but they don’t stain
no secondary

271
Q

in tissues, mononuclear cells

A

replicate
specialize/differentiate

272
Q

lymphocyte function

A

cellular and humoral immunity

273
Q

most numerous mononuclear cell and most numerous leukocyte in herbivores

A

lymphocyte

274
Q

lymphocyte granules

A

generally absent except in granular lymphocytes
primary azurophilic

275
Q

monocyte (macrophage) function

A

phagocytosis
immune regulation

276
Q

monocyte granules

A

primary azurophilic; usually too small

277
Q

monocyte cytoplasm contains

A

vacuoles

278
Q

leukogram - absolute counts

A

all WBCs

279
Q

leukogram - differential counts

A

each WBC

280
Q

anticoagulant for mammals

A

EDTA

281
Q

anticoagulant for non-mammals

A

heparin

282
Q

where is bone marrow found in adults

A

long bones
sternum
ribs
vertebrae
skull
ilia

283
Q

components of red marrow in mammals

A

hematopoietic cords (islands) for hematopoiesis
leaky sinusoidal capillaries
stroma
phagocytic macrophages

284
Q

yellow marrow

A

adipose tissue

285
Q

components of red marrow in birds

A

hematopoietic cords for myelopoiesis
leaky sinusoidal capillaries
stroma

286
Q

how do leukocytes move from cords to circulation

A

active migration

287
Q

how do erythrocytes move from cords to circulation

A

pushed by pressure gradient

288
Q

how do platelets move from cords to circulation

A

shed from tips of megakaryocytes

289
Q

stem cell that can give rise to any and all types of blood cells

A

pluripotent cell

290
Q

stem cell committed to a specific lineage or series

A

progenitor cell

291
Q

committed cell that will mature into a terminally differentiated form

A

precursor cell

292
Q

order of erythroid series

A

proerythroblast
basophilic erythroblast
polychromatophilic erythroblast
orthochromatophilic erythroblast
reticulocyte
erythrocyte

293
Q

nucleus changes through erythroid series

A

chromatin condenses
nuclear pyknosis and extrusion

294
Q

cytoplasm changes through erythroid series

A

loses ribosomes (basophilic)
loses other organelles
accumulates hemoglobin (eosinophilic)

295
Q

erythropoietin (EPO) promotes

A

replication
differentiation

296
Q

EPO mainly produced in

A

kidney

297
Q

order of myeloid granulocyte series (same for neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils)

A

myeloblast
promyelocyte
(granulocytic) myelocyte
(granulocytic) metamyelocyte
band (granulocyte)
(granulocyte)

298
Q

nucleus changes through meyloid granulocyte series

A

chromatin condenses
round - ovoid - band - segmented

299
Q

cytoplasm changes through myeloid granulocyte series

A

early on basophilic, later clear
primary azurophilic granules develop
secondary eosinophilic or basophilic granules develop

300
Q

first identifiable stage of granulocyte

A

myelocyte

301
Q

compartments of nuetrophils

A

granulopoietic compartment (bone marrow)
storage compartment (bone marrow)
circulating pool (blood vessel moving)
marginating pool (blood vessel, wall)

302
Q

inc in neutrophils in circulating pool

A

neutrophilia

303
Q

monocytes leave circulation to become

A

macrophages

304
Q

compared to monocytes, macrophages are

A

larger
inc protein synthesis, golgi and lysosomes
can replicate in tissues

305
Q

macrophage in liver

A

kupffer cell

306
Q

macrophage in CNS

A

microglial cell

307
Q

macrophage in skin

A

langerhans cell

308
Q

macrophage in LN, spleen

A

dendritic cell

309
Q

macrophage in bone

A

osteoclasts

310
Q

macrophage in lesions

A

multinucleated giant cell

311
Q

where is thrombopoietin produced

A

liver and kidney

312
Q

platelet cytoplasm contains

A

mitochondria
ribosomes
ER
granules

histology (2 decks)

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