Histology Flashcards

1
Q
A

neutrophilic band

  • indented nucleus (>1/2 diameter)
  • not capable of mitosis
  • % is rough indicatory of rate of neutrophil production
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2
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neutrophil

  • 2-5 lobes of heterochromatic (not active) nucleus
  • specific (majority) and azurophilic granules
  • diapedesis via paracellular and transcellular routes
  • phagocytosis: display chemotaxis, specific granules fuse with phagosome and discharge contents (lysozyme, lactoferrin); azurophilic granules fuse with phagosome to form secondary lysosome
  • netosis
  • cytokine production
  • form superoxide anions
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3
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eosinophil

  • bilobed nucleus, cytoplasmic granules
  • phagocytosis: kill parasite larvae (major basic protein)
  • secretions: histamine, leukotriene C4 and platelet activating factor, cytokines, major basic protein, lysozyme and granulozyme
  • potential role in asthma (histamine)
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4
Q
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basophil

  • nucleus obscured by azurophilic granules
  • inflammation
  • immediate hypersensitivity reaction: IgE production (anaphylaxis)
  • delayed hypersensitivity reaction
  • produce eosinophilic chemotactic factor
  • similar to mast cells
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5
Q
A

small/medium lymphocyte

  • intensely staining spherical nucleus (azure blue), most frequent size in blood
  • ring of cytoplasm (methylene blue)
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6
Q
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large lymphocyte

  • cells activated by specific antigens
  • more diffuse nucleus than small/medium size
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7
Q
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large granular lymphocyte (NK cell)

  • does not have B or T surface molecules
  • large azurophilic granules
  • destroys transplanted, foriegn, and virus invaded cells
  • produces cytokines
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8
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A

monocyte​

  • variable shaped euchromatic nucleus, cytoplasm has vacuoles
  • transform into tissue macrophages/histiocytes when outside of circulation: phagocytosis, form osteoclasts, produce cytokines
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9
Q
A

blood platelets (thrombocytes)

  • non-nucleated, fragments of megakaryocytes; usually in clumps
  • seal off small breaks in vessels, play a role in coagulation (surface for clotting reactions, factors that promote coagulation)
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10
Q
A

neutrophilic promyelocyte

  • usually not seen in circulating blood (CML smear)
  • nucleoli, blue cytoplasm with large, primary azurophilic granules
  • looks like a blast with granules (next step in development)
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11
Q
A

blast cell

  • usually not seen in cirulating blood (CML smear)
  • pale blue cytoplasm (ribosomes), no granules
  • nucleus with negatively stained nucleoli
  • monopotential: each blast gives rise to one type of blood cell
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12
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A

neutrophilic myelocyte

  • not usually seen in circulating blood (CML smear)
  • round/oval heterochromatic nucleus, pink cytoplasm (more specific granules–lysozyme and lactoferrin)
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13
Q
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neutrophilic metamyelocyte​​

  • usually not seen in circulating blood (CML smear)
  • indented nucleus, secondary granules
  • not capable of mitosis/synthesize nucleic acids
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14
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developing eosinophil

  • usually not seen in circulating blood (CML smear)
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15
Q
A

basophilic erythroblast

  • speckled, checkboard nucleus
  • intense navy blue cytoplasm: large increase in ribosomes, preparation to produce globin
  • capable of mitosis
  • bone marrow smear
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16
Q
A

polychromatophilic erythroblasts

  • nucleus is blue (heterochromatin) and pink (euchromatin)
  • blue-gray cytoplasm (baso→eosinophilic because Hb increase and decrease in polysomes)
  • cluster around reticular cells forming erythroblastic islands
  • capable of mitosis
  • bone marrow smear
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17
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A

normoblast

  • small condensed nucleus, pink cytoplasm (Hb)
  • no longer capable of mitosis
    • 80% extrude nucleus and become reticulocytes
    • 20% become orthochromatic erythroblasts
  • bone marrow smear
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18
Q
A

orthochromatic erythroblast

  • looks like RBC with small condensed nucleus
  • usually not seen in circulating blood (CML smear)
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19
Q
A

reticular cell

  • large cell with cytoplasmic processes, ingested material in cytoplasm
  • in erythroblastic islands: play trophic role in RBC maturation
  • bone marrow smear
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20
Q
A

erythroblastic island

  • polychromatophilic erythroblasts clustered around reticular cells
  • areas of RBC maturation
  • bone marrow smear
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21
Q
A

plasma cell

  • eccentric nucleus, clock face distribution of chromatin
  • has nothing to do with blood cells, makes antibodies
  • bone marrow smear
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22
Q
A

megakaryoblast

  • first stage in platelet differentiation
  • homogenous basophilic cytoplasm, polyploid nucleus
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23
Q
A

megakaryocyte

  • second step in platelet differentiation
  • lobulated nucleus, nucleus has increased ploidy compared to megakaryoblast
  • usually found in close association with discontinuous sinusoids
  • bone marrow smear
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24
Q
A

neutrophilic myelocyte and polychromatophilic erythroblasts

  • bone marrow smear
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25
blood
* specialized form of CT * composed of * **formed elements:** RBCs, WBCs, platelets * **plasma: **ECF * **albumin:** maintains osmotic pressure * IgG * fibrinogen * complement proteins * solutes
26
hematocrit
percentage of blood volume occupied by RBCs (41% in women vs. 45% in men)
27
centrifugation of blood
* RBCs at bottom (hemotocrit: 41-45%) * buffy coat in middle: WBCs and platelets (1%) * plasma at top (\>50%)
28
erythrocyte (RBC)
* biconcave discs without nuclei * provides large surface to volume ratio, **facilitates gas exchange** * binds eosin deeply around periphery * membrane skeleton comprised of spectrin connected to actin via protein 4.1 * HbA1: major form of Hb in adults
29
types of hemoglobin in humans
HbA1: majority of Hb in adults (95%) HbA2: \<5% of Hb Hb F: produced during intrauterine period HbS: single nucleotide mutation in DNA→sickle cell disease
30
reticulocyte
RBC recently released from bone marrow, contains small amount of ribsomal RNA (stains with brillian cresyl blue)
31
leukocyte
functions outside of blood vessels as main line of defense against bacteria, virus, and parasites * leaves vessels by **diapedesis** between and through cells * granulocytes (have specific granules) * neutrophils 60-70% * eosinophils 2-4% * basophils 0-1% * agranulocytes (lack specific granules) * lymphocytes 20-30% * monocytes 3-8%
32
what are the types of lymphocytes?
* **B lymphocytes:** humoral immunity, carries surface immunoglobulins * **T lymphocytes:** cell-mediated immunity, carries surface T-cell receptors * **Natural killer cells:** destroys foreign/virus invaded cells * **Helper T:** secretes factors that stimulate T and B lymphocytes * **Suppressor T:** dampens responses to foreign antigens
33
Romanovsky type stain
2 basic dyes and 1 acid dye * azure B (base): DNA and glycosaminoglycans * methylene blue (base): RNA * eosin (acid): proteins
34
monophyletic theory
all blood cells arise from a common pluripotential stem cell, ageing reduces their ability to regenerate blood cell lineages; divide more frequently in women
35
stages of neutrophil differentiation
takes 9-14 dates, mostly spent in bone marrow; 1. blast 2. promyelocyte 3. myelocyte 4. metamyelocyte 5. band (normally found in peripheral blood) 6. neutrophil (normally found in peripheral blood)
36
granulopoiesis
* differentiation of leukocytes * takes 9-14 days * takes place in bone marrow
37
erythropoesis
* differentiation of RBCs * in adults: takes place in red bone marrow * in fetus: takes place in the liver
38
red bone marrow
* site of hematopoiesis * made of blood vessels, discontinuous sinusoids, **cords of hematopoietic cells (site of blood cell maturation)** * **hematopoietic stem cell niche:** interactive structural unit that nurtures stem cells, alterations can lead to myeloproligerative disease
39
yellow bone marrow
not active in hematopoiesis, almost entirely adipocytes
40
features of erythrocyte differentiation
1. decrease in cell volume 2. nuclear changes (nucleoli disappear except in fetus) 3. cytoplasmic changes (decrease in basophilia, increase in acidophila as Hb increases)
41
what are the stages of erythrocyte differentiation?
1. blast 2. basophilic erythroblast 3. polychromatic erythroblast 4. normoblast 5. reticulocyte 6. orthochromatic erythrocyte 7. mature erythrocyte (RBC)
42
two theories of platelet differentiation
* invaginations of plasma membrane develop throughout cytoplasm forming demarcation channels * pseudopodformation and elongation to form proplatelets, demarcation channes are membrane reservoir
43
fate of lymphoblasts
* thymus→T lymphocytes→lymphoid organs * remain in bone marrow→B lymphocytes→lymphoid organs
44
what is the average life span of an RBC?
120 days
45
why are neutrophils called polys?
they are polymorphonuclear (nucleus has 3-5 lobes)
46
what type of granules are most numerous in a mature neutrophil?
specific granules
47
what is contained in the azurophilic granules of neutrophils?
primary lysosomes
48
what component of an eosinophilic granule is cytotoxic for larvae of parasitic worms?
major basic protein
49
which granulocyte plays a role in airway remodeling during an asthma attack?
eosinophil
50
which granulocyte has heparin and histamine in its cytoplasmic granules?
basophil
51
which granulocyte plays a major role in development of anaphylactic shock?
basophil
52
what lymphocyte differentiates into plasma cells upon antigenic challenge?
B lymphocytes
53
cell-mediated immunity is a characteristic of which lymphocyte?
T-lymphocytes
54
the specific targets for HIV are...
helper T cells
55
what type of T cell suppresses the immune response to self molecules?
suppressor T cells
56
why are natural killer cells called as such?
they contain cytotoxic granules containing perforin and granzymes, exocytosis of these granules towards targets leads to target cell apoptosis
57
osteoclasts are formed by the fusion of...
macrophages
58
erythropoietin
hormone produced in the kidney that stimulates the production of erythrocytes in bone marrow
59
where are three regions where host defense occurs in the respiratory system?
* respiratory epithelium-mucociliary elevator * alveoli-macrophages, BALT * nose-vibrissae
60
where is cartilage found in the respiratory system?
larynx, trachea, and bronchi
61
where is smooth muscle found in the respiratory system?
trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveolar sac
62
specific vs. azurophilic granules
**specific (secondary, definitive, neutrophilic)** * small * stain cytoplasm pink * 80% of granule population * specific functions **azurophilic (primary)** * large * stain with azure B * primary lysosomes with lysozyme and granulozyme
63
A. capsule B. reticular cells
64
A. secondary lymphatic nodule B. proliferation, selection, apoptosis, differentiation, and storage of B lymphocytes
65
A. post-capillary venule with tall endothelium (HEV) * vascular addressins to direct lymphocytes B. reticular cells (macrophages)
66
A. HEV (post-capillary venule with tall endothelium) * vascular addressins to direct lymphocytes B. lymphocytes
67
A. capsule B. splenic sinuses
68
A. thymus B. epithelium and mesenchyme
69
A. Hassall's corpuscles (calcified) in medulla; no one knows what they do, they can keratinize or calcify B. adipose tissue
70
A. splenic sinuses B. central arteries C. red pulp: discontinuous sinusoids and cords D. white pulp: lymphatic nodules (B lymphocytes) and PALS (with T lymphocytes)
71
A. tonsil B. yes
72
A. arteriole B. venule C. post capillary venule with tall endothelium (HEV)
73
what are the functions of reticuar cells of mesenchymal origin?
synthesize and maintain reticular fibers and ground substances (ECM); macrophages; trophic role in erthyroblastic islands; ferritin storage; APC
74
3 basic types of lymphoid tissues
* loose: open mesh of cells and fibers; fixed cells (reticular cells) are most numerous * dense: dense mesh of cells and fibers; lymphocytes are most numerous * nodular: spherical aggregates of cells; no CT capsule; lymphocytes (usually B) predominate
75
describe the flow of lymph through a lymph node
capsule→trabeculae→cortex→medulla
76
what is the role of post-capillary venules in the recirculation of lymphocutes in lymphoid organs?
90% of lymphocutes return to nodes via post-capillary venules (HEVs)
77
which regions of lymph node are T dependent and which are B dependent?
paracortical zone: T cells, nodules and medulla: B cells
78
how do epithelial reticular cells differ from reticular cells of mesenchymal origin?
* no phagocytic * do no make reticular fibers * originate from branchial pouch endoderm
79
what is the cytoreticulum of the thymus?
supporting framework of thymus, has no fibers
80
what are the major functions of the thymus?
* development of T lymphocytes * supports development of lymphoid system in general
81
what is the difference between PALS and lymphatic nodules?
* PALS: surround major arterial branches, T dependent area * lymphatic nodules: within PALS, mostly B lymphocytes, may/not have germinal centers
82
what is the pattern of blood flow through the spleen?
splenic artery at hilus→trabecular arteries→central arteries→penicilli→capillaries→splenic sinus→red pulp veins→trabecular veins→splenic vein leaves via hilus
83
what is the difference between the "open" and "closed" theories of splenic circulation?
* open: capillaries→cords→sinus (slower) * closed: capillaries→sinuses (faster)
84
how does the structure of sinus wall facilitate free exchange of material between splenic sinuses and splenic cords?
there are spaces between endothelial cells and discontinuous basement membrane
85
what are the major functions of the spleen?
* production of lymphocytes * immune response to blood borne pathogens * RBC destruction * blood storage
86
what is the basic histological organization of a tonsil?
epithelium→aggregates of lymphoid tissue
87
what is the basic histological organization of the thymus?
capsule→septae→lobes→lobules→cortex→medulla