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GER Unit 6 > Histology > Flashcards

Histology Flashcards

1
Q
A

neutrophilic band

  • indented nucleus (>1/2 diameter)
  • not capable of mitosis
  • % is rough indicatory of rate of neutrophil production
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2
Q
A

neutrophil

  • 2-5 lobes of heterochromatic (not active) nucleus
  • specific (majority) and azurophilic granules
  • diapedesis via paracellular and transcellular routes
  • phagocytosis: display chemotaxis, specific granules fuse with phagosome and discharge contents (lysozyme, lactoferrin); azurophilic granules fuse with phagosome to form secondary lysosome
  • netosis
  • cytokine production
  • form superoxide anions
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3
Q
A

eosinophil

  • bilobed nucleus, cytoplasmic granules
  • phagocytosis: kill parasite larvae (major basic protein)
  • secretions: histamine, leukotriene C4 and platelet activating factor, cytokines, major basic protein, lysozyme and granulozyme
  • potential role in asthma (histamine)
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4
Q
A

basophil

  • nucleus obscured by azurophilic granules
  • inflammation
  • immediate hypersensitivity reaction: IgE production (anaphylaxis)
  • delayed hypersensitivity reaction
  • produce eosinophilic chemotactic factor
  • similar to mast cells
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5
Q
A

small/medium lymphocyte

  • intensely staining spherical nucleus (azure blue), most frequent size in blood
  • ring of cytoplasm (methylene blue)
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6
Q
A

large lymphocyte

  • cells activated by specific antigens
  • more diffuse nucleus than small/medium size
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7
Q
A

large granular lymphocyte (NK cell)

  • does not have B or T surface molecules
  • large azurophilic granules
  • destroys transplanted, foriegn, and virus invaded cells
  • produces cytokines
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8
Q
A

monocyte​

  • variable shaped euchromatic nucleus, cytoplasm has vacuoles
  • transform into tissue macrophages/histiocytes when outside of circulation: phagocytosis, form osteoclasts, produce cytokines
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9
Q
A

blood platelets (thrombocytes)

  • non-nucleated, fragments of megakaryocytes; usually in clumps
  • seal off small breaks in vessels, play a role in coagulation (surface for clotting reactions, factors that promote coagulation)
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10
Q
A

neutrophilic promyelocyte

  • usually not seen in circulating blood (CML smear)
  • nucleoli, blue cytoplasm with large, primary azurophilic granules
  • looks like a blast with granules (next step in development)
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11
Q
A

blast cell

  • usually not seen in cirulating blood (CML smear)
  • pale blue cytoplasm (ribosomes), no granules
  • nucleus with negatively stained nucleoli
  • monopotential: each blast gives rise to one type of blood cell
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12
Q
A

neutrophilic myelocyte

  • not usually seen in circulating blood (CML smear)
  • round/oval heterochromatic nucleus, pink cytoplasm (more specific granules–lysozyme and lactoferrin)
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13
Q
A

neutrophilic metamyelocyte​​

  • usually not seen in circulating blood (CML smear)
  • indented nucleus, secondary granules
  • not capable of mitosis/synthesize nucleic acids
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14
Q
A

developing eosinophil

  • usually not seen in circulating blood (CML smear)
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15
Q
A

basophilic erythroblast

  • speckled, checkboard nucleus
  • intense navy blue cytoplasm: large increase in ribosomes, preparation to produce globin
  • capable of mitosis
  • bone marrow smear
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16
Q
A

polychromatophilic erythroblasts

  • nucleus is blue (heterochromatin) and pink (euchromatin)
  • blue-gray cytoplasm (baso→eosinophilic because Hb increase and decrease in polysomes)
  • cluster around reticular cells forming erythroblastic islands
  • capable of mitosis
  • bone marrow smear
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17
Q
A

normoblast

  • small condensed nucleus, pink cytoplasm (Hb)
  • no longer capable of mitosis
    • ​80% extrude nucleus and become reticulocytes
    • 20% become orthochromatic erythroblasts
  • bone marrow smear
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18
Q
A

orthochromatic erythroblast

  • looks like RBC with small condensed nucleus
  • usually not seen in circulating blood (CML smear)
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19
Q
A

reticular cell

  • large cell with cytoplasmic processes, ingested material in cytoplasm
  • in erythroblastic islands: play trophic role in RBC maturation
  • bone marrow smear
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20
Q
A

erythroblastic island

  • polychromatophilic erythroblasts clustered around reticular cells
  • areas of RBC maturation
  • bone marrow smear
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21
Q
A

plasma cell

  • eccentric nucleus, clock face distribution of chromatin
  • has nothing to do with blood cells, makes antibodies
  • bone marrow smear
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22
Q
A

megakaryoblast

  • first stage in platelet differentiation
  • homogenous basophilic cytoplasm, polyploid nucleus
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23
Q
A

megakaryocyte

  • second step in platelet differentiation
  • lobulated nucleus, nucleus has increased ploidy compared to megakaryoblast
  • usually found in close association with discontinuous sinusoids
  • bone marrow smear
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24
Q
A

neutrophilic myelocyte and polychromatophilic erythroblasts

  • bone marrow smear
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25
Q

blood

A
  • specialized form of CT
  • composed of
    • formed elements: RBCs, WBCs, platelets
    • **plasma: **ECF
      • albumin: maintains osmotic pressure
      • IgG
      • fibrinogen
      • complement proteins
      • solutes
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26
Q

hematocrit

A

percentage of blood volume occupied by RBCs (41% in women vs. 45% in men)

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27
Q

centrifugation of blood

A
  • RBCs at bottom (hemotocrit: 41-45%)
  • buffy coat in middle: WBCs and platelets (1%)
  • plasma at top (>50%)
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28
Q

erythrocyte (RBC)

A
  • biconcave discs without nuclei
    • provides large surface to volume ratio, facilitates gas exchange
  • binds eosin deeply around periphery
  • membrane skeleton comprised of spectrin connected to actin via protein 4.1
  • HbA1: major form of Hb in adults
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29
Q

types of hemoglobin in humans

A

HbA1: majority of Hb in adults (95%)

HbA2: <5% of Hb
Hb F: produced during intrauterine period
HbS: single nucleotide mutation in DNA→sickle cell disease

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30
Q

reticulocyte

A

RBC recently released from bone marrow, contains small amount of ribsomal RNA (stains with brillian cresyl blue)

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31
Q

leukocyte

A

functions outside of blood vessels as main line of defense against bacteria, virus, and parasites

  • leaves vessels by diapedesis between and through cells
  • granulocytes (have specific granules)
    • neutrophils 60-70%
    • eosinophils 2-4%
    • basophils 0-1%
  • agranulocytes (lack specific granules)
    • lymphocytes 20-30%
    • monocytes 3-8%
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32
Q

what are the types of lymphocytes?

A
  • B lymphocytes: humoral immunity, carries surface immunoglobulins
  • T lymphocytes: cell-mediated immunity, carries surface T-cell receptors
  • Natural killer cells: destroys foreign/virus invaded cells
  • Helper T: secretes factors that stimulate T and B lymphocytes
  • Suppressor T: dampens responses to foreign antigens
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33
Q

Romanovsky type stain

A

2 basic dyes and 1 acid dye

  • azure B (base): DNA and glycosaminoglycans
  • methylene blue (base): RNA
  • eosin (acid): proteins
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34
Q

monophyletic theory

A

all blood cells arise from a common pluripotential stem cell, ageing reduces their ability to regenerate blood cell lineages; divide more frequently in women

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35
Q

stages of neutrophil differentiation

A

takes 9-14 dates, mostly spent in bone marrow;

  1. blast
  2. promyelocyte
  3. myelocyte
  4. metamyelocyte
  5. band (normally found in peripheral blood)
  6. neutrophil (normally found in peripheral blood)
36
Q

granulopoiesis

A
  • differentiation of leukocytes
  • takes 9-14 days
  • takes place in bone marrow
37
Q

erythropoesis

A
  • differentiation of RBCs
  • in adults: takes place in red bone marrow
  • in fetus: takes place in the liver
38
Q

red bone marrow

A
  • site of hematopoiesis
  • made of blood vessels, discontinuous sinusoids, cords of hematopoietic cells (site of blood cell maturation)
    • hematopoietic stem cell niche: interactive structural unit that nurtures stem cells, alterations can lead to myeloproligerative disease
39
Q

yellow bone marrow

A

not active in hematopoiesis, almost entirely adipocytes

40
Q

features of erythrocyte differentiation

A
  1. decrease in cell volume
  2. nuclear changes (nucleoli disappear except in fetus)
  3. cytoplasmic changes (decrease in basophilia, increase in acidophila as Hb increases)
41
Q

what are the stages of erythrocyte differentiation?

A
  1. blast
  2. basophilic erythroblast
  3. polychromatic erythroblast
  4. normoblast
  5. reticulocyte
  6. orthochromatic erythrocyte
  7. mature erythrocyte (RBC)
42
Q

two theories of platelet differentiation

A
  • invaginations of plasma membrane develop throughout cytoplasm forming demarcation channels
  • pseudopodformation and elongation to form proplatelets, demarcation channes are membrane reservoir
43
Q

fate of lymphoblasts

A
  • thymus→T lymphocytes→lymphoid organs
  • remain in bone marrow→B lymphocytes→lymphoid organs
44
Q

what is the average life span of an RBC?

A

120 days

45
Q

why are neutrophils called polys?

A

they are polymorphonuclear (nucleus has 3-5 lobes)

46
Q

what type of granules are most numerous in a mature neutrophil?

A

specific granules

47
Q

what is contained in the azurophilic granules of neutrophils?

A

primary lysosomes

48
Q

what component of an eosinophilic granule is cytotoxic for larvae of parasitic worms?

A

major basic protein

49
Q

which granulocyte plays a role in airway remodeling during an asthma attack?

A

eosinophil

50
Q

which granulocyte has heparin and histamine in its cytoplasmic granules?

A

basophil

51
Q

which granulocyte plays a major role in development of anaphylactic shock?

A

basophil

52
Q

what lymphocyte differentiates into plasma cells upon antigenic challenge?

A

B lymphocytes

53
Q

cell-mediated immunity is a characteristic of which lymphocyte?

A

T-lymphocytes

54
Q

the specific targets for HIV are…

A

helper T cells

55
Q

what type of T cell suppresses the immune response to self molecules?

A

suppressor T cells

56
Q

why are natural killer cells called as such?

A

they contain cytotoxic granules containing perforin and granzymes, exocytosis of these granules towards targets leads to target cell apoptosis

57
Q

osteoclasts are formed by the fusion of…

A

macrophages

58
Q

erythropoietin

A

hormone produced in the kidney that stimulates the production of erythrocytes in bone marrow

59
Q

where are three regions where host defense occurs in the respiratory system?

A
  • respiratory epithelium-mucociliary elevator
  • alveoli-macrophages, BALT
  • nose-vibrissae
60
Q

where is cartilage found in the respiratory system?

A

larynx, trachea, and bronchi

61
Q

where is smooth muscle found in the respiratory system?

A

trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveolar sac

62
Q

specific vs. azurophilic granules

A

specific (secondary, definitive, neutrophilic)

  • small
  • stain cytoplasm pink
  • 80% of granule population
  • specific functions

azurophilic (primary)

  • large
  • stain with azure B
  • primary lysosomes with lysozyme and granulozyme
63
Q
A

A. capsule

B. reticular cells

64
Q
A

A. secondary lymphatic nodule

B. proliferation, selection, apoptosis, differentiation, and storage of B lymphocytes

65
Q
A

A. post-capillary venule with tall endothelium (HEV)

  • vascular addressins to direct lymphocytes

B. reticular cells (macrophages)

66
Q
A

A. HEV (post-capillary venule with tall endothelium)

  • vascular addressins to direct lymphocytes

B. lymphocytes

67
Q
A

A. capsule

B. splenic sinuses

68
Q
A

A. thymus

B. epithelium and mesenchyme

69
Q
A

A. Hassall’s corpuscles (calcified) in medulla; no one knows what they do, they can keratinize or calcify

B. adipose tissue

70
Q
A

A. splenic sinuses

B. central arteries

C. red pulp: discontinuous sinusoids and cords

D. white pulp: lymphatic nodules (B lymphocytes) and PALS (with T lymphocytes)

71
Q
A

A. tonsil

B. yes

72
Q
A

A. arteriole

B. venule

C. post capillary venule with tall endothelium (HEV)

73
Q

what are the functions of reticuar cells of mesenchymal origin?

A

synthesize and maintain reticular fibers and ground substances (ECM); macrophages; trophic role in erthyroblastic islands; ferritin storage; APC

74
Q

3 basic types of lymphoid tissues

A
  • loose: open mesh of cells and fibers; fixed cells (reticular cells) are most numerous
  • dense: dense mesh of cells and fibers; lymphocytes are most numerous
  • nodular: spherical aggregates of cells; no CT capsule; lymphocytes (usually B) predominate
75
Q

describe the flow of lymph through a lymph node

A

capsule→trabeculae→cortex→medulla

76
Q

what is the role of post-capillary venules in the recirculation of lymphocutes in lymphoid organs?

A

90% of lymphocutes return to nodes via post-capillary venules (HEVs)

77
Q

which regions of lymph node are T dependent and which are B dependent?

A

paracortical zone: T cells, nodules and medulla: B cells

78
Q

how do epithelial reticular cells differ from reticular cells of mesenchymal origin?

A
  • no phagocytic
  • do no make reticular fibers
  • originate from branchial pouch endoderm
79
Q

what is the cytoreticulum of the thymus?

A

supporting framework of thymus, has no fibers

80
Q

what are the major functions of the thymus?

A
  • development of T lymphocytes
  • supports development of lymphoid system in general
81
Q

what is the difference between PALS and lymphatic nodules?

A
  • PALS: surround major arterial branches, T dependent area
  • lymphatic nodules: within PALS, mostly B lymphocytes, may/not have germinal centers
82
Q

what is the pattern of blood flow through the spleen?

A

splenic artery at hilus→trabecular arteries→central arteries→penicilli→capillaries→splenic sinus→red pulp veins→trabecular veins→splenic vein leaves via hilus

83
Q

what is the difference between the “open” and “closed” theories of splenic circulation?

A
  • open: capillaries→cords→sinus (slower)
  • closed: capillaries→sinuses (faster)
84
Q

how does the structure of sinus wall facilitate free exchange of material between splenic sinuses and splenic cords?

A

there are spaces between endothelial cells and discontinuous basement membrane

85
Q

what are the major functions of the spleen?

A
  • production of lymphocytes
  • immune response to blood borne pathogens
  • RBC destruction
  • blood storage
86
Q

what is the basic histological organization of a tonsil?

A

epithelium→aggregates of lymphoid tissue

87
Q

what is the basic histological organization of the thymus?

A

capsule→septae→lobes→lobules→cortex→medulla

GER Unit 6 (5 decks)

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