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Histology > Histology 2 - Midterm > Flashcards

Histology 2 - Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?

a. Stomach
b. Small intestine
c. Ascending colon
d. Descending colon
e. Both a and b equally

A

Answer: b

The small intestine is the primary site for absorption of nutrients.

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2
Q

What are the finger like projections of mucosa that are seen in the small intestine?

a. Lacteal
b. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
c. Plicae circulares
d. Striated border
e. Villi

A

Answer: e

Villi are finger like projections of mucosa seen in the small intestine.

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3
Q

What is the outer layer of the GI tract called when it is abutting another organ?

a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Adventitia

A

Answer: e
The outer layer of the GI tract is either an adventitia or serosa. The serosa consists of only a single layer of epithelial cells and underlying connective tissue. The adventitia is the outer layer of the GI tract when it is abutting another organ the posterior abdominal wall.

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4
Q

Where is masticatory mucosa found

a. Tongue underside
b. Hard palate
c. Soft palate
d. Lips
e. Cheek

A

Answer: b
The masticatory mucosa is located on the hard palate and gingiva. Lining mucosa is found on the underside of the tongue, lips, cheek, and soft palate.

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5
Q

What is the surface layer of masticatory mucosa composed of?

a. Non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
b. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
c. Simple squamous epithelium
d. Pseudostratified squamous epithelium
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: e
The surface layer of masticatory mucosa is keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. However, some regions of the masticatory mucosa are non-keratinized and parakeratinized epithelium. Parakeratinized epithelium is similar to keratinized, except that the cell nuclei are present in the stratum corneum.

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6
Q

Which layer is NOT present in masticatory epithelium?

a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum

A

Answer: d
The stratum lucidum is not present in the masticatory epithelium.
Stratum basale contains the dividing cells (= germinativum). Stratum spinosum consists of a layer several cells deep. The cells have pointy or spiny processes. Cells in stratum granulosum contain keratohyaline granules. Stratum lucidum is present only in thick skin. Stratum corneum is the outermost layer. This cells are essentially bags of keratin, with no nuclei or organelles.
(For remembering the layers of the skin: “Californian Ladies Give Superb Backrubs”.)

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7
Q

Which type of papillae on the tongue is the most abundant?

a. Filiform papillae
b. Circumvallate papillae
c. Fungiform papillae
d. Foliate papillae
e. All of the above

A

Answer: a

The filiform papillae are the smallest and most abundant.

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8
Q

What is the innermost layer of the GI tract called?

a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Adventitia

A

Answer: a

The mucosa is the innermost layer of the GI tract. It consists of epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosa.

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9
Q

What is the lymphatic capillary within a villus of the small intestine called?

a. Lacteal
b. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
c. Plicae circulares
d. Striated border
e. Villi

A

Answer: a

The lymphatic capillary within a villus of the small intestine is a lacteal.

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10
Q

Which type of papillae on the tongue is not well developed in man?

a. Filiform papillae
b. Circumvallate papillae
c. Fungiform papillae
d. Foliate papillae
e. All of the above

A

Answer: d

Foliate papillae are not well developed in man and are seen on the edges of the tongue.

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11
Q

What covers the tooth that is embedded within the jaw?

a. Pulp cavity
b. Dentin
c. Dental pulp
d. Cementum
e. Enamel

A

Answer: d

Cementum covers the part of the tooth that is within the jaw.

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12
Q

What is within the pulp cavity?

a. Pulp cavity
b. Dentin
c. Dental pulp
d. Cementum
e. Enamel

A

Answer: c

Within the pulp cavity is a soft tissue, called dental pulp.

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13
Q

What is the central portion of a tooth called?

a. Pulp cavity
b. Dentin
c. Dental pulp
d. Cementum
e. Enamel

A

Answer: a

The central portion of a tooth is the pulp cavity.

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14
Q

What covers the visible portion of a tooth ?

a. Pulp cavity
b. Dentin
c. Dental pulp
d. Cementum
e. Enamel

A

Answer: e

Enamel covers the part of the tooth within the oral cavity.

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15
Q

What surrounds the pulp cavity?

a. Pulp cavity
b. Dentin
c. Dental pulp
d. Cementum
e. Enamel

A

Answer: b

The pulp cavity is surrounded by dentin.

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16
Q

Which layer contains the lamina propria in the GI tract?

a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Adventitia

A

Answer: a

The mucosa is the innermost layer of the GI tract. It consists of epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosa.

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17
Q

What is another term for the valve of Kerckring?

a. Lacteal
b. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
c. Plicae circulares
d. Striated border
e. Villi

A

Answer: c

The plica circulares is also called the valve of Kerckring.

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18
Q

Which type of papillae on the tongue is the smallest?

a. Filiform papillae
b. Circumvallate papillae
c. Fungiform papillae
d. Foliate papillae
e. All of the above

A

Answer: a

The filiform papillae are the smallest and most abundant.

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19
Q

Where are Peyer’s patches located?

a. Esophagus
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
e. Rectum

A

Answer: c

Peyer’s patches are large nodules of lymphatic tissue. They are seen in the small intestine.

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20
Q

What type of muscle makes up the muscularis externa in the esophagus?

a. Smooth
b. Striated
c. Cardiac
d. both a and b
e. a, b, and c.

A

Answer: d
The muscularis externa in the upper third of the esophagus is composed of striated muscle and in the lower third it is smooth muscle. The middle third is a blend.

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21
Q

What are mucous surface cells in the stomach?

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Transitional epithelium

A

Answer: c

The epithelium on the stomach is lined by mucous surface cells which are a simple columnar epithelium.

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22
Q

Which layer consists of only a single layer of epithelial cells and underlying CT in the GI tract?

a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Adventitia

A

Answer: d

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23
Q

What is another term for the brush border?

a. Lacteal
b. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
c. Plicae circulares
d. Striated border
e. Villi

A

Answer: d

Microvilli that are seen on the epithelial cells in the small intestine form the brush border or striated border.

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24
Q

Which type of papillae on the tongue is arranged in a “V” shape on the tongue?

a. Filiform papillae
b. Circumvallate papillae
c. Fungiform papillae
d. Foliate papillae
e. All of the above

A

Answer: b

Circumvallate papillae large papillae arranged in a “V” shape.

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25
Q

Which cells secrete intrinsic factor?

a. Parietal cells
b. Oxyntic cells
c. Chief cells
c. Mucous neck cells
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: e

Parietal cells are also called oxyntic cells. They secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor.

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26
Q

Which layer contains the lining epithelium in the GI tract?

a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Adventitia

A

Answer: a

The mucosa is the innermost layer of the GI tract. It consists of epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosa.

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27
Q

Which type of papillae on the tongue does NOT contain taste buds?

a. Filiform papillae
b. Circumvallate papillae
c. Fungiform papillae
d. Foliate papillae
e. All of the above

A

Answer: a
Filiform papillae are the only papillae on the tongue which do not contain taste buds. Taste buds are found on cicumvallate, fungiform, and foliate papillae.

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28
Q

Which layer contains Auerbach’s plexus in the GT tract?

a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Adventitia

A

Answer: c

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29
Q

Which cells secrete hydrochloric acid?

a. Parietal cells
b. Oxyntic cells
c. Chief cells
d. Mucous neck cells
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: e

Parietal cells are also called oxyntic cells. They secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor.

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30
Q

What is another term for the intestinal glands?

a. Lacteal
b. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
c. Plicae circulares
d. Striated border
e. Villi

A

Answer: b

Crypts of Lieberkuhn are the intestinal glands.

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31
Q

Which organ has a mucosa lined by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

a. Esophagus
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
e. Rectum

A

Answer: a

The mucosa of the esophagus is mucosa lined by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

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32
Q

What are the folds of the stomach called?

a. Ruffled border
b. Taeniae coli
c. Gastric glands
d. Rugae
e. Gastric pits

A

Answer: d

The folds of the empty stomach are called rugae.

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33
Q

Which type of papillae on the tongue is mushroom shaped?

a. Filiform papillae
b. Circumvallate papillae
c. Fungiform papillae
d. Foliate papillae
e. All of the above

A

Answer: c

Fungiform papillae are mushroom shaped.

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34
Q

Which layer contains the muscularis mucosa in the GI tract?

a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Adventitia

A

Answer: a

The mucosa is the innermost layer of the GI tract. It consists of epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosa.

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35
Q

What are microvilli called that are seen in the small intestine?

a. Lacteal
b. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
c. Plicae circulares
d. Striated border
e. Villi

A

Answer: d

Microvilli that are seen on the epithelial cells in the small intestine form the brush border or striated border.

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36
Q

Which layer of the GI tract contains the gut associated lymphatic tissue?

a. Mucosa
b. Submucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Muscularis mucosae
e. Serosa

A

Answer: a

Gut associated lymphatic tissue (GALT) is found in the mucosa and sometimes extends into the submucosa.

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37
Q

Which cells secrete pepsinogen?

a. Parietal cells
b. Oxyntic cells
c. Chief cells
d. Mucous neck cells
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: c

Chief cells secrete pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is the precursor for pepsin.

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38
Q

Which layer in the GI tract contains Meissner’s plexus?

a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Adventitia

A

Answer: b

Meissner’s plexus is located in the submucosa.

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39
Q

What type of tissue lines most of the GI tract?

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Transitional epithelium

A

Answer: c

The lining of the gastrointestinal tract is simple columnar epithelium.

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40
Q

What type of tissue lines the upper esophagus?

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Transitional epithelium

A

Answer: d

The lining of the upper esophagus is stratified squamous epithelium.

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41
Q

What are the modifications of the muscularis externa that is seen on the large intestine?

a. Teniae coli
b. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
c. Plicae circulares
d. Striated border
e. Villi

A

Answer: a

The modifications of the muscularis externa seen on the large intestine are called teniae coli.

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42
Q

Where are Brunner’s glands located?

a. Esophagus
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
e. Rectum

A

Answer: c

Brunner’s glands are glands in the submucosa of the small intestine.

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43
Q

What is the primary cell of the intestinal epithelium of the large intestine?

a. Columnar absorptive cell
b. Goblet cell
c. Parietal cells
d. Paneth cells
e. Chief cells

A

Answer: a

The major cell of the lining epithelium of the large intestine is the columnar absorptive cell.

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44
Q

Which region are goblet cells most numerous?

a. Esophagus
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
e. Anus

A

Answer: d

Goblet cells are most numerous in the large intestine

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45
Q

Where is mesothelium found?

a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Adventitia

A

Answer: d

The serosa consists of only a single layer of epithelial cells (mesothelium) and underlying connective tissue.

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46
Q

Which of the following is the exocrine portion of the pancreas?

a. Islets of Langerhans
b. Alpha cells
c. Beta cells
d. Delta cells
e. Acini

A

Answer: e

The acini is the exocrine portion of the pancreas.

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47
Q

What are divertiuclae of the mucosa of the gallbladder called?

a. Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
b. Ducts of Luschka
c. Duct of Wirsung
d. Ampulla of Vater
e. Sphincter of Oddi

A

Answer: a

Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses are divertiuclae of the mucosa of the gallbladder.

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48
Q

What structure is in the middle of the hepatic lobule?

a. Hepatic artery
b. Portal triad
c. Central vein
d. Portal vein
e. Sinusoids

A

Answer: c

In the middle of the liver lobule is a central vein.

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49
Q

What is the space between the liver sinusoids and the hepatocytes called?

a. Space of Disse
b. Space of Mall
c. Vacuole
d. Lacuna
e. Howship’s lacuna

A

Answer: a
The space of Disse is in the liver. The space of Disse is also called the perisinosoidal space. It is the space between the liver sinusoids and the hepatocytes.

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50
Q

What is the name of the cellular mass for the endocrine portion of the pancreas?

a. Islets of Langerhans
b. Alpha cells
c. Beta cells
d. Delta cells
e. Acini

A

Answer: a

The endocrine portion of the pancreas is housed in the islets of Langerhans.

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51
Q

Which structures are part of the portal triad?

a. Portal vein
b. Hepatic artery
c. Central vein
d. Sinusoids
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: e

The portal triad is composed of a branch of the hepatic artery, portal vein, and bile duct.

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52
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

a. Metabolism of bilirubin
b. Deamination of amino acids
c. Storage of iron
d. Storage of copper
e. Storage of calcium

A

Answer: e

The storage site for calcium is in the bones.

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53
Q

What is the functional unit of the liver?

a. Lobule
b. Portal triad
c. Central vein
d. Hepatocyte
e. Sinusoids

A

Answer: a

Hepatocytes are arranged to form a liver lobule, which is the functional unit of the liver.

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54
Q

What are the valves which regulates the flow of bile into the intestine?

a. Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
b. Ducts of Luschka
c. Duct of Wirsung
d. Ampulla of Vater
e. Sphincter of Oddi

A

Answer: e

The valves which regulates the flow of bile into the small intestine is the sphincter of Oddi.

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55
Q

What cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin?

a. Islets of Langerhans
b. Alpha cells
c. Beta cells
d. Delta cells
e. Gamma cells

A

Answer: d

The delta cells secrete somatostain.

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56
Q

What is the opening of the pancreatic duct into the duodenum?

a. Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
b. Ducts of Luschka
c. Duct of Wirsung
d. Ampulla of Vater
e. Sphincter of Oddi

A

Answer: d

The opening of the pancreatic duct into the duodenum is at the ampulla of Vater.

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57
Q

Which of the following clotting factors is NOT produced in the liver?

a. Factor I
b. Factor II
c. Factor IV
d. Factor IX
e. Factor X

A

Answer: c
The liver makes clotting Factors I, II, VII, IX, and X. Fibrinogen is Factor I. Prothrombin is Factor II. Factor IV is calcium, which is not produced in the liver.

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58
Q

In what structure does blood run through between the hepatocytes?

a. Hepatic artery
b. Portal triad
c. Central vein
d. Portal vein
e. Sinusoids

A

Answer: e

Hepatic sinusoids run between the hepatocytes.

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59
Q

What is the space called that is located at the portal canal between the hepatocytes and CT in the liver?

a. Space of Disse
b. Space of Mall
c. Vacuole
d. Lacuna
e. Howship’s lacuna

A

Answer: b
The space of Mall is located at the portal canal and is the region between the connective tissue and the liver parenchymal cells. It is the site where lymph is formed within the liver.

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60
Q

What layer is NOT found in the gallbladder?

a. Mucosa
b. Muscularis mucosa
c. Muscularis
d. Adventita
e. Serosa

A

Answer: b
The gallbladder is comprised of three layers: mucosa, muscularis, and adventita or serosa. There is no muscularis in the mucosa of the gallbladder.

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61
Q

What cell type makes up the mucosa of the gallbladder?

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Transitional epithelium

A

Answer: c

The mucosa of the gallbladder is made of simple columnar epithelium.

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62
Q

What is the classification of the pancreas?

a. Mixed
b. Endocrine
c. Exocrine
d. Both endocrine and exocrine
e. None of the above

A

Answer: d

The pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine organ.

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63
Q

Which cell is a hepatic macrophage?

a. Kupffer cells
b. Histiocyte
c. Dust cell
d. Langerhans cell
e. Microglia

A

Answer: a

Kupffer cells are the hepatic macrophages.

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64
Q

Where in the pancreas are islets of Langerhans most numerous?

a. Head
b. Body
c. Tail
d. Evenly distributed
e. Depends on the individual

A

Answer: c

Islets of Langerhans are most numerous in the tail of the pancreas

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65
Q

What cells of the pancreas secrete insulin?

a. Islets of Langerhans
b. Alpha cells
c. Beta cells
d. Delta cells
e. Gamma cells

A

Answer: c

The beta cells secrete insulin.

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66
Q

What is the pancreatic duct?

a. Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
b. Ducts of Luschka
c. Duct of Wirsung
d. Ampulla of Vater
e. Sphincter of Oddi

A

Answer: c

The duct of Wirsung is the pancreatic duct.

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67
Q

What structure is at the angle of the liver lobule?

a. Lobule
b. Portal triad
c. Central vein
d. Hepatocyte
e. Sinusoids

A

Answer: b

At the angles of the liver lobule are portal triads.

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68
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

a. Cholecystokinin production
b. Bile production
c. Detoxification
d. Albumin production
e. Synthesis of clotting factors

A

Answer: a

Cholecystokinin is produced by the mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract.

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69
Q

What cells of the pancreas secrete glucagon?

a. Islets of Langerhans
b. Alpha cells
c. Beta cells
d. Delta cells
e. Gamma cells

A

Answer: b

The alpha cells secrete glucagon.

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70
Q

What are the connection between the cystic duct and liver?

a. Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
b. Ducts of Luschka
c. Duct of Wirsung
d. Ampulla of Vater
e. Sphincter of Oddi

A

Answer: b

The small bile ducts which connec between the cystic duct and liver are the ducts of Luschka

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71
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

a. Conversion of glucose into glycogen
b. Storage of glycogen
c. Storage of bile
d. Storage of fat soluble vitamins
e. Cholesterol synthesis

A

Answer: c

Once bile is produced by the liver, it is stored in the gallbladder.

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72
Q

What cells of the pancreas secrete pancreatic polypeptide?

a. Islets of Langerhans
b. Alpha cells
c. Beta cells
d. Delta cells
e. Gamma cells

A

Answer: e

The gamma cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide.

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73
Q

Which cell is a also called a septal cell?

a. Clara cell
b. Type I pneumocyte
c. Type II pneumocyte
d. Dust cell
e. Brush cell

A

Answer: c

The type II pneumocyte is also called a septal cell.

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74
Q

Which cell is a respiratory macrophage?

a. Kupffer cells
b. Histiocyte
c. Dust cell
d. Langerhans cell
e. Microglia

A

Answer: c

Dust cells are alveolar macrophages found in the respiratory tract.

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75
Q

Which cell is a type of neuron?

a. Basal cells
b. Brush cells
c. Olfactory cells
d. Sustentacular cells
e. All of the above

A

Answer: c

Olfactory cells are bipolar neurons that are the receptors for smell.

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76
Q

What cell types are found in the respiratory mucosa?

a. Ciliated cells
b. Goblet cells
c. Basal cells
d. Brush cells
e. All of the above

A

Answer: e

Respiratory mucosa contains several cell types: ciliated cells, goblet cells, basal cells, and brush cells.

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77
Q

What type of tissue makes up the epiglottis?

a. Compact bone
b. Spongy bone
c. Hyaline cartilage
d. Fibrocartilage
e. Elastic cartilage

A

Answer: e

The epiglottis is part of the larynx. It is composed of elastic cartilage.

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78
Q

What is the smallest airspace of the respiratory tree?

a. Alveolar duct
b. Alveoli
c. Alveolar sac
d. Respiratory bronchiole
e. Terminal bronchiole

A

Answer: b
An alveoli sac is a cluster of alveoli, much like a cluster of grapes. Alveoli are individual sacs where gas exchange occurs.

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79
Q

What type of epithelium lines the trachea?

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Pseudostratified epithelium

A

Answer: e

The trachea is lined by pseudostratified squamous epithelium.

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80
Q

Which structure is part of the conducting portion of the airway?

a. Bronchi
b. Alveolar ducts
c. Alveoli
d. Alveolar sacs
e. Respiratory bronchioles

A

Answer: a
The conducting portion of the airway is where air is moved, warmed and moistened. The nasal cavities, pharynx, larynx, trachea and bronchi are all part of the conducting portion of the airway.

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81
Q

What type of epithelium lines the vestibule?

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple columnar epithelium
c. Stratified squamous epithelium
d. Ciliated pseudostratified epithelium with goblet cells
e. Transitional epithelium

A

Answer: c

The vestibule is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.

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82
Q

Which cartilage of the larynx is made of hyaline cartilage?

a. Thyroid cartilage
b. Cricoid cartilage
c. Arytenoid cartilage
d. Corniculate cartilage
e. All of the above

A

Answer: e
Thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, arytenoid cartilages, corniculate cartilages and cuneiform cartilages are all composed of hyaline cartilage. The epiglottis is elastic cartilage. There is no fibrocartilage in the larynx.

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83
Q

What part of the respiratory tree is the functional unit where gas exchange occurs?

a. Alveolar duct
b. Alveoli
c. Alveolar sac
d. Respiratory bronchiole
e. Terminal bronchiole

A

Answer: b

Alveoli are individual sacs where gas exchange occurs.

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84
Q

Which cell type is involved in general sensation of the olfactory mucosa?

a. Basal cells
b. Brush cells
c. Olfactory cells
d. Sustentacular cells
e. All of the above

A

Answer: b

Brush cells are involved with general sensation of the olfactory mucosa.

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85
Q

What type of cells are found in the olfactory mucosa?

a. Basal cells
b. Brush cells
c. Olfactory cells
d. Sustentacular cells
e. All of the above

A

Answer: e

It contains several cell types: basal cells, brush cells, olfactory cells and sustentacular cells.

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86
Q

What type of tissue makes up the rings of the trachea?

a. Compact bone
b. Spongy bone
c. Hyaline cartilage
d. Fibrocartilage
e. Elastic cartilage

A

Answer: c

The rings of the trachea are composed of hyaline cartilage.

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87
Q

Which cell is a squamous pulmonary epithelial cell?

a. Clara cell
b. Type I pneumocyte
c. Type II pneumocyte
d. Dust cell
e. Brush cell

A

Answer: b

The type I pneumocyte is a squamous epithelial cell. It covers most of the surface of the alveoli.

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88
Q

Which cell is also called an alveolar phagocyte?

a. Clara cell
b. Type I pneumocyte
c. Type II pneumocyte
d. Dust cell
e. Brush cell

A

Answer: d

The dust cell is also called the alveolar phagocyte.

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89
Q

Which is structure is NOT part of the conducting portion of the airway?

a. Bronchi
b. Larynx
c. Trachea
d. Larynx
e. Respiratory bronchioles

A

Answer: e
The nasal cavities, pharynx, larynx, trachea and bronchi are all part of the conducting portion of the airway.
The respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs and alveoli are all part of the respiratory portion.

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90
Q

What type of tissue lines the pharynx?

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple columnar epithelium
c. Stratified squamous epithelium
d. Ciliated pseudostratified epithelium with goblet cells
e. Both c and d

A

Answer: e

The pharynx is lined by both stratified squamous epithelium and ciliated pseudostratified epithelium with goblet cells.

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91
Q

What is an olfactory cell?

a. Unipolar neuron
b. Bipolar neuron
c. Multipolar neuron
d. Supporting cell
e. None of the above

A

Answer: b

An olfactory cell is a bipolar neuron.

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92
Q

What structure is similar to a “bunch of grapes?

a. Alveolar duct
b. Alveoli
c. Alveolar sac
d. Respiratory bronchiole
e. Terminal bronchiole

A

Answer: c

An alveoli sac is a cluster of alveoli, much like a cluster of grapes.

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93
Q

Which cell is found in large numbers in the terminal bronchioles?

a. Clara cell
b. Type I pneumocyte
c. Type II pneumocyte
d. Dust cell
e. Brush cell

A

Answer: a

The Clara cell is found in the terminal bronchioles.

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94
Q

Which cell type is located at the basal lamina of the olfactory mucosa?

a. Basal cells
b. Brush cells
c. Olfactory cells
d. Sustentacular cells
e. All of the above

A

Answer: a

Basal cells are located in the basal lamina.

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95
Q

Which cell type is most numerous in olfactory mucosa?

a. Basal cells
b. Brush cells
c. Olfactory cells
d. Sustentacular cells
e. None of the above

A

Answer: d

Sustentacular cells are most numerous cell type in the olfactory epithelium.

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96
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the respiratory mucosa of man?

a. Non-ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells
b. Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Transitional epithelium

A

Answer: b

In man, respiratory mucosa is composed of ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells.

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97
Q

What type of tissue makes up the “Adam’s apple”?

a. Compact bone
b. Spongy bone
c. Hyaline cartilage
d. Fibrocartilage
e. Elastic cartilage

A

Answer: c
The “Adam’s apple” is a nickname for part of the larynx formed by the thyroid cartilage. The thyroid cartilage is composed of hyaline cartilage.

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98
Q

What type of tissue forms the alveoli in the lung?

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Pseudostratified epithelium

A

Answer: a

The alveoli are formed by simple squamous epithelium.

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99
Q

What type of tissue lines the paranasal sinuses?

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple columnar epithelium
c. Stratified squamous epithelium
d. Ciliated pseudostratified epithelium with goblet cells
e. Transitional epithelium

A

Answer: d

The paranasal sinuses are lined by ciliated pseudostratified epithelium with goblet cells.

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100
Q

In which structure does gas exchange NOT occur?

a. Alveolar duct
b. Alveoli
c. Alveolar sac
d. Respiratory bronchiole
e. Terminal bronchiole

A

Answer: e
The terminal bronchioles are the last part of the airway in which gas exchange does not occur. Terminal bronchioles lead to the respiratory bronchioles. The respiratory bronchioles are the first section of the respiratory tree that gas exchange can occur.

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101
Q

Which cell secretes surfactant?

a. Clara cell
b. Type I pneumocyte
c. Type II pneumocyte
d. Dust cell
e. Brush cell

A

Answer: c

The type II pneumocyte secretes surfactant.

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102
Q

Which cartilage of the larynx is made of elastic cartilage?

a. Thyroid cartilage
b. Cricoid cartilage
c. Arytenoid cartilage
d. Epiglottis
e. Corniculate cartilage

A

Answer: d

The epiglottis is elastic cartilage.

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103
Q

Which cell is rarely found in the alveolus?

a. Clara cell
b. Type I pneumocyte
c. Type II pneumocyte
d. Dust cell
e. Brush cell

A

Answer: e

Brush cells are occasionally, but rarely, seen in the alveolar epithelium.

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104
Q

What are the alveolar pores called?

a. Pores of Luschka
b. Pores of Descemet
c. Pores of Mall
d. Pores of Kohn
e. Pores of Disse

A

Answer: d

The alveolar pores are the pores of Kohn. These are openings between adjacent alveoli.

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105
Q

What is the first portion of the respiratory tree where gas exchange can occur?

a. Alveolar duct
b. Alveoli
c. Alveolar sac
d. Respiratory bronchiole
e. Terminal bronchiole

A

Answer: d

The respiratory bronchioles are the first section of the respiratory tree that gas exchange can occur.

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106
Q

What is the glomerulus?

a. Afferent arteriole
b. Efferent arteriole
c. Capillary tuft
d. Peritubular capillaries
e. Vasa recta

A

Answer: c

The glomerulus is a capillary tuft.

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107
Q

What is a renal pyramid and its associated cortex referred to?

a. Medulla
b. Lobe
c. Renal columns
d. Nephron
e. Medullary ray

A

Answer: b

A kidney lobe consists of a medullary pyramid, its overlying cortex, and the associated renal column.

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108
Q

Approximately how many nephrons are there in each kidney?

a. 1,000
b. 10,000
c. 100,000
d. 1,000,000
e. 10,000,000

A

Answer: d

There are approximately one million (1,000,000) nephrons in each kidney.

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109
Q

What is the Malpighian corpuscle?

a. Glomerulus
b. Bowman’s capsule
c. Renal corpuscle
d. Loop of Henle
e. Distal convoluted tubule

A

Answer: c

Another term for the renal corpuscle is Malpighian corpuscle.

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110
Q

What are the ducts of Bellini?

a. Collecting tubules
b. Distal convoluted tubule
c. Proximal convoluted tubule
d. Loop of Henle
e. Medullary ray

A

Answer: a

Large collecting tubules near the apex of the pyramid are the ducts of Bellini. The ducts of Bellini are also called a papillary ducts.

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111
Q

What are the foot processes on podocytes?

a. Visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule
b. Parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule
c. Pedicels
d. Juxtaglomerular cells
e. Macula densa

A

Answer: c

Pedicels are the foot processes on the podocytes.

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112
Q

What vessel is a branch of the interlobular artery?

a. Afferent arteriole
b. Efferent arteriole
c. Capillary tuft
d. Peritubular capillaries
e. Vasa recta

A

Answer: a

The afferent arteriole branches off the interlobular artery. The afferent arteriole supplies blood to the glomerulus.

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113
Q

What type of tissue lines the bladder?

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Transitional epithelium

A

Answer: e

The lining of the bladder is transitional epithelium.

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114
Q

What is the projection of the medulla into the renal cortex called?

a. Medulla
b. Lobe
c. Renal columns
d. Nephron
e. Medullary ray

A

Answer: e

A region where a portion of the medulla project into the renal cortex are referred to as medullary ray.

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115
Q

Which structure does the proximal convoluted lead to?

a. Glomerulus
b. Bowman’s capsule
c. Renal corpuscle
d. Loop of Henle
e. Distal convoluted tubule

A

Answer: d

The proximal convoluted tubule leads to the loop of Henle.

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116
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney?

a. Erythropoietin production
b. Vitamin D modification
c. Acid base balance
d. Aldosterone production
e. Renin production

A

Answer: d

Aldosterone is produced in the adrenal gland.

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117
Q

What is the space between the renal pyramids called?

a. Medulla
b. Lobe
c. Renal columns
d. Nephron
e. Medullary ray

A

Answer: c

The renal columns are the tissue in between the pyramids.

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118
Q

What is the capillary tuft of the nephron?

a. Glomerulus
b. Bowman’s capsule
c. Renal corpuscle
d. Loop of Henle
e. Distal convoluted tubule

A

Answer: a

The capillary tuft of the nephron is referred to as the glomerulus.

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119
Q

What vessel supplies blood to the glomerulus?

a. Afferent arteriole
b. Efferent arteriole
c. Capillary tuft
d. Peritubular capillaries
e. Vasa recta

A

Answer: a

The afferent arteriole supplies blood to the glomerulus.

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120
Q

What type of tissue composes the kidney tubules?

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Transitional epithelium

A

Answer: b

The kidney tubules are simple cuboidal epithelium.

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121
Q

Where is renin secreted from?

a. Visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule
b. Parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule
c. Pedicels
d. Juxtaglomerular cells
e. Macula densa

A

Answer: d

The juxtaglomerular cells secrete renin.

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122
Q

What are the “straight vessels”?

a. Afferent arteriole
b. Efferent arteriole
c. Capillary tuft
d. Peritubular capillaries
e. Vasa recta

A

Answer: e

Vasa recta are the “straight vessels” which arise from some of the efferent arterioles.

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123
Q

What is the inner region of the kidney called?

a. Medulla
b. Lobe
c. Renal columns
d. Nephron
e. Medullary ray

A

Answer: a

The kidney can be divided into an outer cortex and an inner medulla.

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124
Q

What is the double layered cap on the glomerulus?

a. Glomerulus
b. Bowman’s capsule
c. Renal corpuscle
d. Loop of Henle
e. Distal convoluted tubule

A

Answer: b

Bowman’s capsule is a double layered cap surrounding the glomerulus.

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125
Q

Where are podocytes seen?

a. Visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule
b. Parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule
c. Pedicels
d. Juxtaglomerular cells
e. Macula densa

A

Answer: a

The inner layer of Bowman’s capsule is the visceral layer. It consists of cells called podocytes.

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126
Q

What vessel is formed from an aggregation of the glomerular capillaries?

a. Afferent arteriole
b. Efferent arteriole
c. Capillary tuft
d. Peritubular capillaries
e. Vasa recta

A

Answer: b
The afferent arteriole branches off the interlobular artery. The afferent arteriole supplies blood to the glomerulus. The glomerulus is a capillary tuft. The glomerular capillaries converge to form the efferent arteriole. The peritubular capillaries is a second capillary network which arise after the efferent arteriole. They surround the proximal tubule, loop of Henle, and distal tubule. Vasa recta are the “straight vessels” which arise from some of the efferent arterioles.

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127
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney?

a. Medulla
b. Lobe
c. Renal columns
d. Nephron
e. Medullary ray

A

Answer: d

The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney.

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128
Q

Which structure leads to the collecting duct?

a. Glomerulus
b. Bowman’s capsule
c. Renal corpuscle
d. Loop of Henle
e. Distal convoluted tubule

A

Answer: e

The distal convoluted tubule leads to the collecting duct.

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129
Q

What cells are sensitive to sodium concentration?

a. Visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule
b. Parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule
c. Pedicels
d. Juxtaglomerular cells
e. Macula densa

A

Answer: e

The macula densa are specialized cells in the distal convoluted tubule that are sensitive to sodium.

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130
Q

What are developing gametes called?

a. Oogenesis
b. Ovary
c. Ovulation
d. Oocyte
e. Ova

A

Answer: d

Gametogenesis in the female is referred to as oogenesis.

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131
Q

What is the inner part of the ovary?

a. Follicle
b. Germinal epithelium
c. Medulla
d. Tunica albuginea
e. Cortex

A

Answer: c

The inner region of the ovary is called the medulla.

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132
Q

Which stage of the follicle is arrested in prophase?

a. Primordial follicle
b. Primary follicle
c. Secondary follicle
d. Mature follicle
e. Graffian follicle

A

Answer: a
A primordial follicle is a primary oocyte in the outer region of the cortex. It is arrested in the first meiotic prophase.

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133
Q

What is the cavity within a secondary follicle?

a. Graffian follicle
b. Theca folliculi
c. Granulosa cells
d. Zona pellucida
e. Antrum

A

Answer: e

A cavity within the follicle is the antrum.

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134
Q

During the first week to 10 days, what is the main hormone which stimulates the growth of the follicles?

a. FSH
b. LH
c. HCG
d. Estrogen
e. Progesterone

A

Answer: a

During the first week to 10 days, FSH is the main hormone which stimulates the growth of the follicles.

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135
Q

What is the female organ called where gametogenesis occurs?

a. Oogenesis
b. Ovary
c. Ovulation
d. Oocyte
e. Ova

A

Answer: b

Gametogenesis in the female is referred to as oogenesis.

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136
Q

Which stage of the follicle is marked by the surrounding of flattened (squamous) follicular cells becoming cuboidal?

a. Primordial follicle
b. Primary follicle
c. Secondary follicle
d. Mature follicle
e. Graffian follicle

A

Answer: b
The primary follicle is marked by the surrounding of flattened (squamous) follicular cells becoming cuboidal and the oocyte becomes bigger.

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137
Q

What is ovulated?

a. Graffian follicle
b. Theca folliculi
c. Granulosa cells
d. Zona pellucida
e. Antrum

A

Answer: a

The follicle which is ovulated is the Graffian follicle.

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138
Q

What is the outer part of the ovary?

a. Follicle
b. Germinal epithelium
c. Medulla
d. Tunica albuginea
e. Cortex

A

Answer: e

The outer region of the ovary is called the cortex.

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139
Q

During a pregnancy, which hormone which maintains the corpus luteum?

a. FSH
b. LH
c. HCG
d. Estrogen
e. Progesterone

A

Answer: c

During a pregnancy, HCG is the hormone which maintains the corpus luteum

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140
Q

Which structure contains the oocyte?

a. Follicle
b. Germinal epithelium
c. Medulla
d. Tunica albuginea
e. Cortex

A

Answer: a

The ovarian follicle contains the oocyte.

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141
Q

Which follicular stage is also called an antral follicle?

a. Primordial follicle
b. Primary follicle
c. Secondary follicle
d. Mature follicle
e. Graffian follicle

A

Answer: c
The presence of the antrum is a characteristic of a secondary follicle. A follicle at this stage is also called an “antral follicle”.

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142
Q

The appearance of the antrum is a characteristic of which stage of follicular development?

a. Primordial follicle
b. Primary follicle
c. Secondary follicle
d. Mature follicle
e. Graffian follicle

A

Answer: c
The presence of the antrum is a characteristic of a secondary follicle. A follicle at this stage is also called an “antral follicle”.

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143
Q

What is the acidophilic glycoprotein coat which surrounds the oocyte?

a. Graffian follicle
b. Theca folliculi
c. Granulosa cells
d. Zona pellucida
e. Antrum

A

Answer: d

The acidophilic glycoprotein coat surrounding the oocyte is the zona pellucida.

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144
Q

What tissue surrounds the ovary?

a. Follicle
b. Germinal epithelium
c. Medulla
d. Tunica albuginea
e. Cortex

A

Answer: b

The ovary is covered with germinal epithelium.

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145
Q

What is a mature gamete called?

a. Oogenesis
b. Ovary
c. Ovulation
d. Oocyte
e. Ova

A

Answer: e

The mature gamete is an ova.

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146
Q

What is another term for the mature follicle?

a. Primordial follicle
b. Primary follicle
c. Secondary follicle
d. Antral follicle
e. Graffian follicle

A

Answer: e

The mature follicle is also called the Graffian follicle.

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147
Q

What is the CT layer around the primary follicle?

a. Graffian follicle
b. Theca folliculi
c. Granulosa cells
d. Zona pellucida
e. Antrum

A

Answer: b

The connective tissue layer around the primary follicle is the theca folliculi.

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148
Q

Ovulation is triggered by a dramatic increase in which hormone?

a. FSH
b. LH
c. HCG
d. Estrogen
e. Progesterone

A

Answer: b

Ovulation is triggered by a dramatic increase in LH.

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149
Q

What is the CT which surrounds the ovary?

a. Follicle
b. Germinal epithelium
c. Medulla
d. Tunica albuginea
e. Cortex

A

Answer: d

Underneath the germinal epithelium is CT called the tunica albuginea.

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150
Q

In the female, what is the correct term for the production of gametes called?

a. Oogenesis
b. Ovary
c. Ovulation
d. Oocyte
e. Ova

A

Answer: a

The ovary is the organ where gametogenesis (oogenesis) occurs.

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151
Q

What are the follicular cells?

a. Graffian follicle
b. Theca folliculi
c. Granulosa cells
d. Zona pellucida
e. Antrum

A

Answer: c

The follicular cells are granulosa cells.

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152
Q

Which cells produce testosterone?

a. Interstitial cells
b. Leydig cells
c. Sertoli cells
d. Sustentacular cells
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: e

Leydig cells produce testosterone. These are also called “interstitial cells” or “interstitial cells of Leydig”.

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153
Q

How many seminiferous tubules are found in each testis of an average man?

a. 4-6
b. 40-60
c. 400-600
d. 4000-6000
e. 40,000-60,000

A

Answer: c

The average testis in an adult man has between 400 and 600 seminiferous tubules.

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154
Q

Which of the following are produced by the Leydig cells?

a. Inhibin
b. Androgen binding protein
c. Testosterone
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

A

Answer: c

Sertoli cells produce inhibin and androgen-binding protein. The interstitial cells of Leydig produce testosterone.

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155
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered part of the male genital duct system?

a. Rete testis
b. Tubuli recti
c. Seminal vesicles
d. Ductus deferens
e. Ductus epididymidis

A

Answer: c
The male genital duct system contains: rete testes, tubuli recti, ductuli efferentes, ductus epididymidis, and ductus deferens. The male accessory glands contain the bulbourethral glands, seminal vesicles, and prostate.

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156
Q

What is the surface modification seen on the cells of the epididymis?

a. Microvilli
b. Stereocilia
c. Cilia
d. Keratinization
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: b

Stereocilia are very long microvilli. Stereocilia are seen in the epididymis and the hair cells of the ear.

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157
Q

What type of hormone is testosterone?

a. Protein
b. Amino acid chain
c. Steroid
d. Catecholamine
e. None of the above

A

Answer: c

Steroid hormones are cholesterol derivatives. Steroid hormones include testosterone and estradiol.

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158
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. There is one corpus cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum
b. There is one corpus cavernosa and two corpora spongiosum
c. There are two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum
d. There are two corpora cavernosa and two corpora spongiosum
e. There are four corpora cavernosa and two corpora spongiosum

A

Answer: c
The corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum are erectile tissue. There are two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum.

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159
Q

What gland in the male is homologous to the greater vestibular gland in the female?

a. Bartholin’s gland
b. Prostate gland
c. Skene’s gland
d. Cowper’s gland
e. Brunner’s gland

A

Answer: d
The bulbourethral glands are also called Cowper’s glands. The bulbourethral glands are found in males and are homologous to the Bartholin’s glands in females.

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160
Q

What is the most commonly seen type of epithelium in the prostate?

a. Transitional
b. Simple columnar
c. Stratified squamous
d. Simple squamous
e. Simple cuboidal

A

Answer: b

The glandular epithelium of the prostate is most often simple columnar, however a variety of types can be found.

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161
Q

What type of epithelium lines the epididymis?

a. Pseudostratified
b. Simple columnar
c. Stratified squamous
d. Simple squamous
e. Simple cuboidal

A

Answer: a

Pseudostratified epithelium lines the epididymis.

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162
Q

Which cells are directly involved in spermatogenesis?

a. Interstitial cells
b. Leydig cells
c. Sertoli cells
d. Sustentacular cells
e. Both c and d

A

Answer: e

Sertoli cells are directly involved in spermatogenesis. They are also called “sustentacular cells” or “nurse cells”.

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163
Q

Which of the following are produced by the Sertoli cells?

a. Inhibin
b. Androgen binding protein
c. Testosterone
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

A

Answer: d

Sertoli cells produce inhibin and androgen-binding protein. The interstitial cells of Leydig produce testosterone.

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164
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered an accessory gland?

a. Prostate
b. Bulbourethral gland
c. Seminal vesicles
d. Ductus deferens
e. None of the above

A

Answer: d
The male genital duct system contains: rete testes, tubuli recti, ductuli efferentes, ductus epididymidis, and ductus deferens. The male accessory glands contain the bulbourethral glands, seminal vesicles, and prostate.

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165
Q

What is another term for a bulbourethral gland?

a. Bartholin’s gland
b. Prostate gland
c. Skene’s gland
d. Cowper’s gland
e. Brunner’s gland

A

Answer: d

The bulbourethral glands are also called Cowper’s glands.

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166
Q

What are the spherical structures seen in some prostatic alveoli called?

a. Psammoma bodies
b. Corpora arenacea
c. Hassall’s corpuscles
d. Prostatic concretions
e. Pacinian corpuscles

A

Answer: d

The spherical structures seen in some prostatic alveoli are called prostatic concretions.

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167
Q

What type of epithelium lines the seminal vesicles?

a. Pseudostratified
b. Simple columnar
c. Stratified squamous
d. Simple squamous
e. Simple cuboidal

A

Answer: a

Pseudostratified epithelium lines the seminal vesicles.

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168
Q

What type of epithelium lines the vas deferens?

a. Pseudostratified
b. Simple columnar
c. Stratified squamous
d. Simple squamous
e. Simple cuboidal

A

Answer: a

Pseudostratified epithelium lines the vas deferens.

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169
Q

What type of gland composes the prostate?

a. Simple straight tubular gland
b. Simple coiled tubular gland
c. Simple alveolar gland
d. Compound tubular gland
e. Compound tubuloalveolar gland

A

Answer: e

The prostate is made of compound tuboloalveolar glands.

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170
Q

What is the stroma of the prostate?

a. Loose irregular connective tissue
b. Smooth muscle
c. Fibromuscular
d. Adipose tissue
e. Dense irregular connective tissue

A

Answer: c

The glands of the prostate lie in a fibromuscular stroma. It is also referred to as a fibroelastic stroma.

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171
Q

How many layers of smooth muscle are in the vas deferens?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

A

Answer: c

There are three layers of smooth muscle in the vas deferens.

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172
Q

How many corpora cavernosa are there?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

A

Answer: b

There are two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum.

173
Q

Which one of the following are the earliest cells of spermatogenesis?

a. Primary spermatocytes
b. Secondary spermatocytes
c. Spermatids
d. Spermatozoa
e. Spermatogonia

A

Answer: e

The earliest cells of spermatogenesis are spermatogonia; these are primitive cells.

174
Q

Which cells are also called “nurse cells”?

a. Interstitial cells
b. Leydig cells
c. Sertoli cells
d. Sustentacular cells
e. Both c and d

A

Answer: e

Sertoli cells are directly involved in spermatogenesis. They are also called “sustentacular cells” or “nurse cells”.

175
Q

When do the testes descend into the scrotum?

a. Fetal development
b. Infancy
c. Puberty
d. Adulthood
e. During arousal

A

Answer: a
The testes develop in the abdominal cavity. During fetal development, they descend to the
scrotum.

176
Q

Which is the largest accessory structure of the male reproductive system

a. Epididymis
b. Prostate
c. Seminal vesicle
d. Bulbourethral gland
e. Cowper’s gland

A

Answer: b

The prostate is the largest accessory structure of the male reproductive system.

177
Q

What is the capsule that surrounds the testes?

a. Tunica adventitia
b. Tunica externa
c. Tunica media
d. Tunica intima
e. Tunica albuginea

A

Answer: e

The tunica albuginea is the thick capsule around each testis.

178
Q

What is the “cap”at the anterior portion of a spermatazoon?

a. Head
b. Tail
c. Acrosome
d. End piece
e. Middle piece

A

The acrosome is the “cap” at the anterior portion of a spermatozoon.

179
Q 
What is another term for the corpus cavernosum urethrae?
a. Corpora cavernosa
b. Corpus spongiosum
c. Urethra
d. Corpus cavernosum clitoridis
e Erectile tissue
A

The corpus spongiosum is also called the corpus cavernosum urethrae.

180
Q

How many corpus spongiosum are there?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

A

Answer: a

There are two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum.

181
Q

What is the mature sperm cell?

a. Primary spermatocytes
b. Secondary spermatocytes
c. Spermatids
d. Spermatozoa
e. Spermatogonia

A

Answer: d

The mature sperm cell is spermatozoa.

182
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the endocrine system?

a. Products secreted into blood
b. Glands with ducts
c. Secretes hormones
d. Non localized response
e. All of the following are characteristics of the endocrine system

A

Answer: b

The endocrine system is a system of cellular communication. The means of communication is via hormones. The hormones are secreted by ductless glands directly into the bloodstream. Generally, the response to hormones is non localized.

If a gland secretes its product through a duct, it is an exocrine gland.

183
Q

What organ is nicknamed the “master gland”

a. Adrenal medulla
b. Adrenal cortex
c. Brain
d. Pituitary
e. Heart

A

Answer: d

The pituitary is nicknamed the master gland.

184
Q

What cell type secretes ACTH?

a. Lactotropic cells
b. Thyrotropic cells
c. Somatotropic cells
d. Corticotropic cells
e. Gonadotropic cells

A

Answer: d

Corticotropic cells secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH).

185
Q

Where is corpora arenacea found?

a. Pituitary
b. Pineal gland
c. Adrenal gland
d. Pancreas
e. Thyroid

A

Answer: b

186
Q

Which gland secretes melatonin?

a. Pancreas
b. Thyroid
c. Pineal gland
d. Adrenal gland (cortex)
e. Adrenal gland (medulla)

A

Answer: c

The pineal gland secretes melatonin.

187
Q

Which cell type are involved in the secretion thyroglobulin?

a. Principal cell
b. Oxyphil cell
c. Parafollicular cells
d. Follicular cells
e. Chromaffin cells

A

Answer: d

Follicular cells release and store thyroid hormone.

188
Q

Where is insulin secreted from?

a. Alpha cells
b. Beta cells
c. Gamma cells
d. Delta cells
e. Acini

A

Answer: b
The pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine organ.
The beta cells secrete insulin.

189
Q

Which of the following is part of the adrenal gland?

a. Chromaffin cells
b. Zona reticularis
c. Zona glomerulosa
d. Zona fasciculata
e. All of the above

A

Answer: e
The layers of the adrenal cortex, from outermost to innermost are: zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and zona reticularis.

190
Q

Which part the adrenal gland secretes glucocorticoids?

a. Chromaffin cells
b. Zona reticularis
c. Zona glomerulosa
d. Zona fasciculata
e. None of the above

A

Answer: d

191
Q

What type of hormone is insulin?

a. Protein
b. Peptide
c. Steroid
d. Catecholamine
e. None of the above

A

Answer: a

Hormones which are proteins include insulin and prolactin.

192
Q

What connects the pituitary to the hypothalamus?

a. Pars intermedia
b. Pars tuberalis
c. Infundibulum
d. Adenohypophysis
e. Neurohypophysis

A

Answer: c

The infundibulum connects the pituitary to the hypothalamus.

193
Q

What are the cells of the pineal gland called?

a. Follicular cells
b. Parafollicular cells
c. Pinealocytes
d. P cells
e. PP cells

A

Answer: c

The cells of the pineal gland called pinealocytes.

194
Q

Which of the following is a component of the adrenal medulla?

a. Chromaffin cells
b. Zona reticularis
c. Zona glomerulosa
d. Zona fasciculata
e. All of the above

A

Answer: a

The cells of the adrenal medulla are chromaffin cells.

195
Q

Where is glucagon secreted from?

a. Alpha cells
b. Beta cells
c. Gamma cells
d. Delta cells
e. Acini

A

Answer: a

The alpha cells secrete glucagon.

196
Q

Which cell type are also called C cells?

a. Principal cell
b. Oxyphil cell
c. Parafollicular cells
d. Follicular cells
e. Chromaffin cells

A

Answer: c

Parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland are also called C cells.

197
Q

Which gland secretes calcitonin?

a. Pancreas
b. Thyroid
c. Pineal gland
d. Adrenal gland (cortex)
e. Adrenal gland (medulla)

A

Answer: b

The thyroid gland secretes the thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) and calcitonin.

198
Q

Which of the following cells can be classified as an acidophil?

a. Gonadotropic cells
b. Corticotropic cells
c. Thyrotropic cells
d. Lactotropic cells
e. All of the above

A

Answer: d

The acidophils are the somatotropic cells and the lactotropic cells.

199
Q

What cell type secretes prolactin?

a. Lactotropic cells
b. Thyrotropic cells
c. Somatotropic cells
d. Corticotropic cells
e. Gonadotropic cells

A

Answer: a

Lactotropic cells secrete prolactin.

200
Q

Which of the following is not part of the adenohypophysis?

a. Pars intermedia
b. Pars tuberalis
c. Pars distalis
d. Pars nervosa
e. All of the above are part of the adenohypophysis

A

Answer: d
The pituitary can be subdivided into the adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis. The adenohypophysis can be further sub-divided into the pars distalis, pars intermedia, and pars tuberalis. The pars distalis is the anterior lobe of the pituitary. The neurohypophysis can be further sub-divided into the pars nervosa, infundibular stalk, and median eminence.
The pars nervosa is the posterior lobe.

201
Q

What type of hormone is prolactin?

a. Protein
b. Peptide
c. Steroid
d. Catecholamine
e. None of the above

A

Answer: a

Hormones which are proteins include insulin and prolactin.

202
Q

Where are tropic hormones secreted from?

a. Pars intermedia
b. Pars tuberalis
c. Infundibulum
d. Adenohypophysis
e. Neurohypophysis

A 
Answer: d
The adenohypophysis (more specifically, the pars distalis of the adenohypophysis) secretes tropic hormones. Tropic hormones affect cellular activity in their target organ.
203
Q

Which of the following is the middle layer of the adrenal cortex?

a. Chromaffin cells
b. Zona reticularis
c. Zona glomerulosa
d. Zona fasciculata
e. None of the above

A

Answer: d

204
Q

Where is pancreatic polypeptide secreted from?

a. Alpha cells
b. Beta cells
c. Gamma cells
d. Delta cells
e. Acini

A

Answer: c

The gamma cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide.

205
Q

Which gland secretes cortisol?

a. Pancreas
b. Thyroid
c. Pineal gland
d. Adrenal gland (cortex)
e. Adrenal gland (medulla)

A

Answer: d

The cortex of the adrenal gland secretes a variety of corticosteroids.

206
Q

Which gland secretes epinephrine?

a. Pancreas
b. Thyroid
c. Pineal gland
d. Adrenal gland (cortex)
e. Adrenal gland (medulla)

A

Answer: e

Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted from the adrenal medulla.

207
Q

Which of the following cells can be classified as an acidophil?

a. Corticotropic cells
b. Thyrotropic cells
c. Gonadotropic cells
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

Answer: d
The cells of the pars distalis (anterior pituitary) can be classified as acidophils or basophils depending on their affinity for acid or basic dyes, respectively.
The acidophils are the somatotropic cells and the lactotropic cells. Thus, growth hormone and prolactin are secreted by acidophilic cells.

208
Q

What cell type secretes MSH?

a. Lactotropic cells
b. Thyrotropic cells
c. Somatotropic cells
d. Corticotropic cells
e. Gonadotropic cells

A

Answer: d

Corticotropic cells secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH).

209
Q

Which of the following is not part of the neurohypophysis?

a. Median eminence
b. Pars distalis
c. Pars nervosa
d. Infundibular stalk
e. All of the above are part of the neurohypophysis

A

Answer: b

The pars distalis is the anterior lobe of the pituitary.

210
Q

What type of hormone is antidiuretic hormone?

a. Protein
b. Peptide
c. Steroid
d. Catecholamine
e. None of the above

A

Answer: b

Examples of hormones which are peptide chains are antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin.

211
Q

Where is oxytocin secreted from?

a. Pars intermedia
b. Pars tuberalis
c. Infundibulum
d. Adenohypophysis
e. Neurohypophysis

A

Answer: e

The neurohypophysis secretes two hormones: oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone.

212
Q

What cell of the parathyroid gland is also called a “chief cell”?

a. Principal cell
b. Oxyphil cell
c. Parafollicular cells
d. Follicular cells
e. Chromaffin cells

A

Answer: a

Principal cells are also called chief cells.

213
Q

Which of the following is seen the innermost portion the adrenal gland?

a. Chromaffin cells
b. Zona reticularis
c. Zona glomerulosa
d. Zona fasciculata
e. None of the above

A

Answer: a

The cells of the adrenal medulla are chromaffin cells. They secrete the catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine).

214
Q

Where is somatostatin secreted from?

a. Alpha cells
b. Beta cells
c. Gamma cells
d. Delta cells
e. Acini

A

Answer: d

The delta cells secrete somatostatin.

215
Q

Which of the following is the exocrine portion of the pancreas?

a. Islets of Langerhans
b. Alpha cells
c. Beta cells
d. Delta cells
e. Acini

A

Answer: e

The acini is the exocrine portion of the pancreas.

216
Q

Which gland secretes sex steroids?

a. Pancreas
b. Thyroid
c. Pineal gland
d. Adrenal gland (cortex)
e. Adrenal gland (medulla)

A

Answer: d
The cortex of the adrenal gland secretes a variety of corticosteroids. It secretes mineralocorticoids (such as aldosterone), glucocorticoids (such as cortisol) and sex steroids.

217
Q

Which gland secretes T3?

a. Pancreas
b. Thyroid
c. Pineal gland
d. Adrenal gland (cortex)
e. Adrenal gland (medulla)

A

Answer: b

The thyroid gland secretes the thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) and calcitonin.

218
Q

Which of the following cells can be classified as a basophil?

a. Thyrotropic cells
b. Lactotropic cells
c. Somatotropic cells
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

Answer: a
The basophils are the gonadotropic cells, corticotropic cells and thyrotropic cells. Thus, the basophils secrete FSH, LH, ACTH, and TSH.

219
Q

What cell type secretes LH?

a. Lactotropic cells
b. Thyrotropic cells
c. Somatotropic cells
d. Corticotropic cells
e. Gonadotropic cells

A

Answer: e

Gonadotropic cells secrete follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

220
Q

What type of hormone is oxytocin?

a. Protein
b. Peptide
c. Steroid
d. Catecholamine
e. None of the above

A

Answer: b

Examples of hormones which are peptide chains are antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin.

221
Q

Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secreted from?

a. Pars intermedia
b. Pars tuberalis
c. Infundibulum
d. Adenohypophysis
e. Neurohypophysis

A

Answer: e

The neurohypophysis secretes two hormones: oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone.

222
Q

Which of the following is the outer layer of the adrenal cortex?

a. Chromaffin cells
b. Zona reticularis
c. Zona glomerulosa
d. Zona fasciculata
e. None of the above

A

Answer: c
The layers of the adrenal cortex, from outermost to innermost are: zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and zona reticularis. The respective principle products are: mineralocorticods, glucocorticoids, and sex steroids.

223
Q

Where are catecholamines secreted from?

a. Chromaffin cells
b. Zona reticularis
c. Zona glomerulosa
d. Zona fasciculata
e. None of the above

A

Answer: a

The cells of the adrenal medulla are chromaffin cells. They secrete the catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine).

224
Q

What is the most common cell in the parathyroid gland?

a. Principal cell
b. Oxyphil cell
c. Parafollicular cells
d. Follicular cells
e. Chromaffin cells

A

Answer: a
There are two cell types in the parathyroid gland: principal cells and oxyphil cells. Principal cells are also called chief cells. Principal cells are the more prevalent. Oxyphil cells are also found in the parathyroid gland; however they are not as prevalent as principal cells.

225
Q

What gland secretes aldosterone?

a. Pancreas
b. Thyroid
c. Pineal gland
d. Adrenal gland (cortex)
e. Adrenal gland (medulla)

A

Answer: d
The cortex of the adrenal gland secretes a variety of corticosteroids. It secretes mineralocorticoids (such as aldosterone), glucocorticoids (such as cortisol) and sex steroids.

226
Q

What is corpora arenacea?

a. Brain sand
b. Basal body
c. Nissl body
d. White body
e. Degenerating corpus luteum

A

Answer: a

Corpora arenacea is nicknamed “brain sand”. Corpora arenacea is calcification seen in the pineal gland.

227
Q

Which gland secretes norepinephrine?

a. Pancreas
b. Thyroid
c. Pineal gland
d. Adrenal gland (cortex)
e. Adrenal gland (medulla)

A

Answer: e

Epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted from the adrenal medulla.

228
Q

Which of the following cells can be classified as a basophil?

a. Lactotropic cells
b. Corticotropic cells
c. Somatotropic cells
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

Answer: b
The basophils are the gonadotropic cells, corticotropic cells and thyrotropic cells. Thus, the basophils secrete FSH, LH, ACTH, and TSH.

229
Q

What cell type secretes FSH?

a. Lactotropic cells
b. Thyrotropic cells
c. Somatotropic cells
d. Corticotropic cells
e. Gonadotropic cells

A

Answer: e

Gonadotropic cells secrete follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

230
Q

What type of hormone is estradiol?

a. Protein
b. Amino acid chain
c. Steroid
d. Catecholamine
e. None of the above

A

Answer: c

Steroid hormones include testosterone and estradiol.

231
Q

What is another term for the anterior lobe of the pituitary?

a. Pars intermedia
b. Pars tuberalis
c. Pars distalis
d. Pars nervosa
e. Infundibular stalk

A

Answer: c

The pars distalis is the anterior lobe of the pituitary.

232
Q

Which of the following is the inner layer of the adrenal cortex?

a. Chromaffin cells
b. Zona reticularis
c. Zona glomerulosa
d. Zona fasciculata
e. None of the above

A

Answer: b
The layers of the adrenal cortex, from outermost to innermost are: zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and zona reticularis. The respective principle products are: mineralocorticods, glucocorticoids, and sex steroids.

233
Q

Which part the adrenal gland secretes mineralocorticoids?

a. Chromaffin cells
b. Zona reticularis
c. Zona glomerulosa
d. Zona fasciculata
e. None of the above

A

Answer: c
The layers of the adrenal cortex, from outermost to innermost are: zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and zona reticularis. The respective principle products are: mineralocorticods, glucocorticoids, and sex steroids.

234
Q

Which cell type is found in the parathyroid, but is not the most abundant cell type?

a. Principal cell
b. Oxyphil cell
c. Parafollicular cells
d. Follicular cells
e. Chromaffin cells

A

Answer: b

Oxyphil cells are also found in the parathyroid gland; however they are not as prevalent as principal cells.

235
Q

Which cell type secretes calcitonin?

a. Principal cell
b. Oxyphil cell
c. Parafollicular cells
d. Follicular cells
e. Chromaffin cells

A

Answer: c

Parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland are also called C cells. They secrete calcitonin.

236
Q

Which gland secretes glucagon?

a. Pancreas
b. Thyroid
c. Pineal gland
d. Adrenal gland (cortex)
e. Adrenal gland (medulla)

A

Answer: a

The endocrine portion of the pancreas secretes insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin.

237
Q

Where is the endocrine portion of the pancreas housed?

a. Islets of Langerhans
b. Alpha cells
c. Beta cells
d. Delta cells
e. Acini

A

Answer: a

The endocrine portion of the pancreas is housed in the islets of Langerhans.

238
Q

Which of the following cells can be classified as a basophil?

a. Somatotropic cells
b. Lactotropic cells
c. Gonadotropic cells
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

Answer: c
The basophils are the gonadotropic cells, corticotropic cells and thyrotropic cells. Thus, the basophils secrete FSH, LH, ACTH, and TSH.

239
Q

What cell type secretes growth hormone?

a. Lactotropic cells
b. Thyrotropic cells
c. Somatotropic cells
d. Corticotropic cells
e. Gonadotropic cells

A

Answer: c

Thyrotropic cells secrete thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). Somatotropic cells secrete growth hormone.

240
Q

What type of hormone is epinephrine?

a. Protein
b. Amino acid chain
c. Steroid
d. Catecholamine
e. None of the above

A

Answer: d

Norepinephrine and epinephrine are catecholamines.

241
Q

What is another term for the posterior lobe of the pituitary?

a. Pars intermedia
b. Pars tuberalis
c. Pars distalis
d. Pars nervosa
e. Infundibular stalk

A

Answer: d

The pars nervosa is the posterior lobe.

242
Q

Where in the pancreas are islets of Langerhans most numerous?

a. Head
b. Body
c. Tail
d. Evenly distributed
e. Depends on the individual

A

Answer: c

Islets of Langerhans are most numerous in the tail of the pancreas.

243
Q

What is the classification of the pancreas?

a. Mixed
b. Endocrine
c. Exocrine
d. Both endocrine and exocrine
e. None of the above

A

Answer: d

The pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine organ.

244
Q

Which part the adrenal gland secretes sex steroids?

a. Chromaffin cells
b. Zona reticularis
c. Zona glomerulosa
d. Zona fasciculata
e. None of the above

A

Answer: b
The layers of the adrenal cortex, from outermost to innermost are: zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and zona reticularis. The respective principle products are: mineralocorticods, glucocorticoids, and sex steroids.

245
Q

Which gland secretes insulin?

a. Pancreas
b. Thyroid
c. Pineal gland
d. Adrenal gland (cortex)
e. Adrenal gland (medulla)

A

Answer: a

The endocrine portion of the pancreas secretes insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin.

246
Q

Which of the following cells can be classified as a basophil?

a. Corticotropic cells
b. Thyrotropic cells
c. Gonadotropic cells
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

Answer: e
The basophils are the gonadotropic cells, corticotropic cells and thyrotropic cells. Thus, the basophils secrete FSH, LH, ACTH, and TSH.

247
Q

What cell type secretes TSH?

a. Lactotropic cells
b. Thyrotropic cells
c. Somatotropic cells
d. Corticotropic cells
e. Gonadotropic cells

A

Answer: b

Thyrotropic cells secrete thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).

248
Q

What are the supporting cells in the central nervous system called?

a. Schwann cells
b. Basket cells
c. Ganglion
d. Neuroglia
e. Satellite cells

A

Answer: d

Neuroglia are the supporting cells in the central nervous system

249
Q

Which of the following is an element of the peripheral nervous system?

a. Receptors
b. Brachial plexus
c. Ganglia
d. Sciatic nerve
e. All of the above

A

Answer: e
The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. All other nervous system elements are considered to be in the peripheral nervous system. Thus the peripheral nervous system includes receptors, the brachial plexus, the sciatic nerve, and ganglia.

250
Q

Which of the following is involved in the blood brain barrier?

a. Astrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Microglia
e. Schwann cells

A

Answer: a
Of the neuroglia cells, astrocytes are the most abundant and the largest. These are star shaped cells involved in the blood brain barrier.

251
Q

What are the conglomerations of gray matter deep within the cerebrum and cerebellum called?

a. Tracts
b. Islets
c. Soma
d. Cortex
e. Nuclei

A

Answer: e

The conglomerations of gray matter deep within the cerebrum and cerebellum are called nuclei.

252
Q

Which meninx is made of a delicate web like connective tissue?

a. Dura mater
b. Arachnoid
c. Pia mater
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

A

Answer: b

The arachnoid is made of a delicate spider web like connective tissue.

253
Q

What provides tensile strength to a neuron?

a. Meninges
b. Myelinated nerve fibers
c. Cell bodies
d. Nodes of Ranvier
e. Neurofilaments

A

Answer: e

Neurofilaments are a type of intermediate filaments seen in neurons which provide rigidity and tensile strength.

254
Q

Which type of neuron is multipolar?

a. Motor neurons
b. Interneurons
c. Sensory neurons
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

A

Answer: d

Both motor neurons and interneurons are multipolar.

255
Q

Which cell is a macrophage found in the central nervous system?

a. Kupffer cells
b. Histiocyte
c. Dust cell
d. Langerhans cell
e. Microglia

A

Answer: e

Microglia are the central nervous system macrophages.

256
Q

What is the cell body of a neuron called?

a. Ganglion
b. Perikaryon
c. Astrocyte
d. Nissl
e. Terminal bouton

A

Answer: b

The cell body of a neuron is called a perikaryon or soma.

257
Q

What are most neurons in the body?

a. Unipolar
b. Pseudounipolar
c. Bipolar
d. Multipolar
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: d

Most neurons in the body (over 99%) are multipolar.

258
Q

Which of the following forms myelin in the peripheral nervous system?

a. Schwann cells
b. Basket cells
c. Ganglion
d. Neuroglia
e. Satellite cells

A

Answer: a

Schwann cells are responsible for the myelination of neurons in the peripheral nervous system.

259
Q

Which of the following is an element of the central nervous system?

a. Receptors
b. Brachial plexus
c. Sciatic nerve
d. Ganglia
e. Spinal cord

A

Answer: e
The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. All other nervous system elements are considered to be in the peripheral nervous system. Thus the peripheral nervous system includes receptors, the brachial plexus, the sciatic nerve, and ganglia.

260
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant neuroglia cell?

a. Astrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Microglia
e. Schwann cells

A

Answer: a
Of the neuroglia cells, astrocytes are the most abundant and the largest. These are star shaped cells involved in the blood brain barrier.

261
Q

What is the outer gray matter of the brain called?

a. Tracts
b. Islets
c. Soma
d. Cortex
e. Nuclei

A

Answer: d

The outer part of the brain is gray matter called the cortex.

262
Q

Which of the following are considered to be part of the meninges?

a. Dura mater
b. Arachnoid
c. Pia mater
d. Both a and c
e. All of the above

A

Answer: e

The meninges cover the brain and spinal cord. There are three: dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater.

263
Q

Where is the cerebrospinal fluid?

a. Between the dura mater and bone
b. Subdural space
c. Subarachnoid space
d. Between the pia mater and brain
e. None of the above

A

Answer: c
The cerebrospinal fluid is found in the subarachnoid space. The subarachnoid space is the space between the arachnoid and the pia mater.

264
Q

The colloquialism “gray matter” refers to somebody using his intellect or reasoning ability. In reality, what is gray matter?

a. Meninges
b. Myelinated nerve fibers
c. Cell bodies
d. Nodes of Ranvier
e. Neurofilaments

A

Answer: c

Gray matter is essentially neuron cell bodies.

265
Q

What is tissue which surrounds a nerve fascicle?

a. Perimysium
b. Periosteum
c. Perichondrium
d. Perineurium
e. Endosteum

A

Answer: d

The perineurium is the covering of nerve fascicles.

266
Q

What is a collection of cell bodies outside the CNS called?

a. Ganglion
b. Perikaryon
c. Astrocyte
d. Nissl
e. Terminal bouton

A

Answer: a

A ganglion is a collection of neuron cell bodies outside of the central nervous system.

267
Q

What are motor neurons?

a. Unipolar
b. Pseudounipolar
c. Bipolar
d. Multipolar
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: d

Motor neurons are multipolar.

268
Q

Which of the following is a supporting cell found in the ganglia?

a. Schwann cells
b. Basket cells
c. Ganglion
d. Neuroglia
e. Satellite cells

A

Answer: e

Satellite cells are found in the ganglia of the peripheral nervous system.

269
Q

Which of the following is an element of the central nervous system?

a. Receptors
b. Brachial plexus
c. Brain
d. Ganglia
e. Sciatic nerve

A

Answer: c

The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord.

270
Q

Which of the following lines the ventricles?

a. Astrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Microglia
e. Schwann cells

A

Answer: b

Ependymal cells line the ventricles and spinal canal.

271
Q

What surrounds a nerve?

a. Neurium
b. Perineurium
c. Epineurium
d. Endoneurium
e. None of the above

A

Answer: c
The endoneurium surrounds a nerve fiber. The perineurium surrounds a bundle of nerve fibers. The epineurium surrounds a nerve.

272
Q

Where is gray matter?

a. Outer surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum
b. Outer surface of the spinal cord
c. Inner portion of the spinal cord
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c

A

Answer: e

Gray matter is found in the central portion of the spinal cord in a butterfly shape.

273
Q

What is the dura mater composed of?

a. Loose irregular connective tissue
b. Dense irregular connective tissue
c. Dense regular connective tissue
d. Simple squamous epithelium
e. Nervous tissue

A

Answer: b
The meninges cover the brain and spinal cord. The dura mater is the outer meninx. The dura mater is composed of dense irregular connective tissue.

274
Q

What are the gaps that occur within the myelin sheath?

a. Meninges
b. Myelinated nerve fibers
c. Cell bodies
d. Nodes of Ranvier
e. Neurofilaments

A

Answer: d

Nodes of Ranvier are the gaps that occur in the myelin sheath.

275
Q

How many neurons are in the body of man?

a. 10,000 (10 to the 4th)
b. 10,000,000 (10 to the 7th)
c. 10,000,000,000 (10 to the 10th)
d. 10,000,000,000,000 (10 to the 13th)
e. 10,000,000,000,000,000 (10 to the 16th

A

Answer: c

There are 10,000,000,000 (10 to the 10th) to 100,000,000,000 (10 to the 11th) neurons.

276
Q

Which of the following is supporting cell of the central nervous system?

a. Ganglion
b. Perikaryon
c. Astrocyte
d. Nissl
e. Terminal bouton

A

Answer: c

An astrocyte is a supporting cell seen in the central nervous system.

277
Q

What are interneurons?

a. Unipolar
b. Pseudounipolar
c. Bipolar
d. Multipolar
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: d

Interneurons are multipolar.

278
Q

What percentage of neurons are interneurons?

a. 0.1%
b. 1%
c. 20%
d. 80%
e. 99.9%

A

Answer: e

Interneurons are the neurons between the sensory and motor neurons. 99.9% of all neurons are interneurons.

279
Q

What are sensory neurons?

a. Unipolar
b. Pseudounipolar
c. Bipolar
d. Multipolar
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: e

Sensory neurons are unipolar. Unipolar neurons are sometimes also called pseudounipolar.

280
Q

What is the primary component of myelin?

a. Amino acids
b. Protein
c. Carbohydrate
d. Lipid
e. Both b and c

A

Answer: d
The primary component of myelin is lipid. It is formed by the cell wrapping itself around the axon. Thus, it is primarily the plasma membrane of either the Schwann cells or the oligodendrocytes.

281
Q

Which of the following forms myelin in the central nervous system?

a. Astrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Microglia
e. Schwann cells

A

Answer: c

Oligodendrocytes form myelin in the central nervous system.

282
Q

Where is white matter?

a. Outer surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum
b. Outer surface of the spinal cord
c. Inner portion of the brain
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c

A

Answer: e
The outer part of the cerebrum and cerebellum is gray matter. It is called the cortex. Underneath the cortex, is white matter.
White matter is on the outer portion of the spinal cord.

283
Q

What is a group of fibers traveling together?

a. Tracts
b. Islets
c. Soma
d. Cortex
e. Nuclei

A

Answer: a

A group of fibers traveling together to a destination is a tract.

284
Q

Which meninx is made of a dense irregular connective tissue?

a. Dura mater
b. Arachnoid
c. Pia mater
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

A

Answer: a

The dura mater is the outer meninx. The dura mater is composed of dense irregular connective tissue.

285
Q

What is the connective tissue covering around the brain and spinal cord?

a. Meninges
b. Myelinated nerve fibers
c. Cell bodies
d. Nodes of Ranvier
e. Neurofilaments

A

Answer: a

286
Q

What is the end of an axon called?

a. Ganglion
b. Perikaryon
c. Astrocyte
d. Nissl
e. Terminal bouton

A

Answer: e
The basophilic clusters of ribosomes and rough endoplasmic seen in neuron cell bodies is called Nissl, Nissl bodies or Nissl substance. The terminal bouton is the end portion of an axon.

287
Q

Which of the following is found in the cerebellum?

a. Schwann cells
b. Basket cells
c. Ganglion
d. Neuroglia
e. Satellite cells

A

Answer: b

Basket cells are a type of neuron seen in the cerebellum.

288
Q

What are neurons in the retina?

a. Unipolar
b. Pseudounipolar
c. Bipolar
d. Multipolar
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: c

The neurons in the retina are bipolar.

289
Q

Which of the following is found in the peripheral nervous system?

a. Astrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Microglia
e. Schwann cells

A

Answer: e

Schwann cells are seen in the peripheral nervous system and are not considered neuroglia.

290
Q

Which of the following is the CNS macrophage?

a. Astrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Microglia
e. Schwann cells

A

Answer: d

Microglia are the central nervous system macrophages.

291
Q

What is the covering of a nerve fiber?

a. Neurium
b. Perineurium
c. Epineurium
d. Endoneurium
e. None of the above

A

Answer: d

The endoneurium surrounds a nerve fiber.

292
Q

What is white matter?

a. Meninges
b. Myelinated nerve fibers
c. Cell bodies
d. Nodes of Ranvier
e. Neurofilaments

A

Answer: b

White matter is myelinated nerve fibers.

293
Q

Which type of neuron is also called an internuncial neuron?

a. Sensory neurons
b. Motor neurons
c. Interneurons
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

A

Answer: c

Interneurons are also called internuncial neurons.

294
Q

All of the following are properties of neurons, except:

a. High metabolic rate
b. Longevity
c. Specialized for conduction
d. High mitotic rate
e. Limited ability for oxygen deprivation

A

Answer: d

Neurons do not divide; therefore they do not have a high mitotic rate.

295
Q

Where is the ependyma found?

a. Lining ventricles
b. Lining spinal canal
c. Covering the brain
d. Covering the spinal cord
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: e

The ependyma lines the ventricles and spinal canal.

296
Q

Which type of neuron is most abundant?

a. Sensory neurons
b. Motor neurons
c. Interneurons
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

A

Answer: c

The vast majority of neurons are interneurons.

297
Q

What is the innervation of an apocrine sweat gland?

a. Cholinergic; parasympathetic
b. Cholinergic; sympathetic
c. Adrenergic; parasympathetic
d. Adrenergic; sympathetic
e. Cholinergic; motor

A

Answer: d
Apocrine sweat glands are innervated by the sympathetic nervous system. The neurotransmitter for the apocrine sweat glands is norepinephrine. Thus it is adrenergic.

298
Q

What is the innervation of an eccrine sweat gland?

a. Cholinergic; parasympathetic
b. Cholinergic; sympathetic
c. Adrenergic; parasympathetic
d. Adrenergic; sympathetic
e. Cholinergic; motor

A

Answer: b
Eccrine sweat glands are innervated by the sympathetic nervous system. The neurotransmitter for the eccrine sweat glands is acetylcholine. Thus it is cholinergic.

299
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered neuroglia?

a. Astrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Microglia
e. Schwann cells

A

Answer: e
Neuroglia are the supporting cells of the central nervous system. Sometimes, neuroglia called glial cells or glia. Astrocytes, ependymal cells, oligodendrocytes, and microglia are all neuroglia.
Microglia are the central nervous system macrophages.

300
Q

Which of the following is the largest neuroglia cell?

a. Astrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Microglia
e. Schwann cells

A

Answer: a

Of the neuroglia cells, astrocytes are the most abundant and the largest.

301
Q

Which meninx covers the brain intimately?

a. Dura mater
b. Arachnoid
c. Pia mater
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

A

Answer: c

The pia mater is the innermost meninx. It covers the brain intimately.

302
Q

What surrounds a bundle of nerve fibers?

a. Neurium
b. Perineurium
c. Epineurium
d. Endoneurium
e. None of the above

A

Answer: b
The endoneurium surrounds a nerve fiber. The perineurium surrounds a bundle of nerve fibers. The epineurium surrounds a nerve.

303
Q

What is Bruch’s membrane?

a. Ciliary body
b. Optic disc
c. Fovea centralis
d. Lamina vitrea
e. Lamina cribrosa

A

Answer: d

The inner layer of the choroid is the lamina vitrea. The lamina vitrea is also referred to as Bruch’s membrane.

304
Q

What are neurons in the retina?

a. Unipolar
b. Pseudounipolar
c. Bipolar
d. Multipolar
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: c

The neurons in the retina are bipolar.

305
Q

What is the region where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball?

a. Ciliary body
b. Optic disc
c. Fovea centralis
d. Lamina vitrea
e. Lamina cribrosa

A

Answer: b
The site where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball is the optic disc. This region is also called the anatomical blind spot.

306
Q

Which layer forms the majority of the cornea?

a. Epithelium
b. Endothelium
c. Descemet’s membrane
d. Substantia propria
e. Bowman’s membrane

A

Answer: d

The majority of the cornea is from the substantia propria.

307
Q

What is the space anterior to the iris?

a. Anterior chamber
b. Posterior chamber
c. Vitreal cavity
d. Both a and b
e. All of a, b, and c

A

Answer: a
The region behind the lens is the vitreal cavity. The chambers anterior to the lens are the anterior chamber and posterior chamber. The iris separates the anterior chamber from the posterior chamber.

308
Q

Which of the following is a type of neuron?

a. Rods
b. Ganglion cells
c. Cones
d. Pigmented epithelium
e. Supporting cells

A

Answer: b
The retina contains receptor cells, neurons, pigmented epithelium and supporting cells. The nervous element in the retina consists of bipolar cells and ganglion cells.

309
Q

What is the region called where the optic nerve exits the eye?

a. Os
b. Optic chiasm
c. Lamina cribrosa
d. Optic disc
e. Ora serrata

A

Answer: d

The region where the optic nerve exits the eye is the optic disc.

310
Q

What is responsible for adjusting the lens?

a. Choroid
b. Ciliary muscle
c. Iris
d. Ora serrata
e. Sclera

A

Answer: b

The ciliary body contains the ciliary muscle. The ciliary muscle is responsible for adjusting the lens.

311
Q

Which of the following is the receptor for color?

a. Rods
b. Cones
c. Bipolar cells
d. Ganglion cells
e. Horizontal cells

A

Answer: b

The receptors for vision are the rods and cones.

312
Q

Which structure is transparent?

a. Choroid
b. Ciliary body
c. Iris
d. Ora serrata
e. Corne

A

Answer: e

The cornea is transparent.

313
Q

What are the receptors for vision?

a. Rods
b. Cones
c. Bipolar cells
d. Ganglion cells
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: e

The cones are the receptors for color.

314
Q

Where is the ciliary muscle located?

a. Ciliary body
b. Optic disc
c. Fovea centralis
d. Lamina vitrea
e. Lamina cribrosa

A

Answer: a

The ciliary body is a thickening in the uvea. It contains the ciliary muscle.

315
Q

Which structure is avascular?

a. Retina
b. Cornea
c. Choroid
d. Sclera
e. Uvea

A

Answer: b

The cornea is avascular.

316
Q

Which layer of the cornea is acellular?

a. Epithelium
b. Endothelium
c. Descemet’s membrane
d. Substantia propria
e. None of the above

A

Answer: c

Bowman’s membrane and Descemet’s membrane are acellular.

317
Q

Where does aqueous humor from anterior chamber collect into?

a. Canaliculi
b. Canal of Hering
c. Canal of Muller
d. Canal of Descemet
e. Canal of Schlemm

A

Answer: e

Aqueous humor collected from the anterior chamber via the canal of Schlemm.

318
Q

What is the inner layer of the choroid?

a. Ciliary body
b. Optic disc
c. Fovea centralis
d. Lamina vitrea
e. Lamina cribrosa

A

Answer: d

The inner layer of the choroid is the lamina vitrea. The lamina vitrea is also referred to as Bruch’s membrane.

319
Q

What structure adjusts the shape of the lens?

a. Internal oblique muscle
b. Orbicularis oculi
c. Tarsus
d. Ciliary muscle
e. Levator muscle

A

Answer: d

The ciliary muscle is within the ciliary body. The ciliary muscle adjusts the shape of the lens.

320
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the retina?

a. Receptor cells
b. Neurons
c. Pigmented epithelium
d. Ciliary body
e. Supporting cells

A

Answer: d
The retina contains receptor cells, neurons, pigmented epithelium and supporting cells. The nervous element in the retina consists of bipolar cells and ganglion cells.

321
Q

During the American Revolution, in the battle of Bunker Hill, an officer instructed his troops: “Don’t fire until you see the whites of their eyes”. What anatomical structure was he referring to?

a. Choroid
b. Ciliary body
c. Iris
d. Ora serrata
e. Sclera

A

Answer: e

The sclera is the “white of the eye”.

322
Q

Where is the region associated with maximum visual acuity?

a. Ciliary body
b. Optic disc
c. Fovea centralis
d. Lamina vitrea
e. Lamina cribrosa

A

Answer: c
The fovea centralis is part of the retina. There are only cone cells in the fovea centralis. It is the site for maximal visual acuity.

323
Q

What type of epithelium is on the surface of the cornea?

a. Simple squamous
b. Stratified squamous
c. Simple cuboidal
d. Simple columnar
e. Transitional epithelium

A

Answer: b

The surface of the cornea is covered by a non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

324
Q

What is the vascular pigmented structure?

a. Choroid
b. Ciliary body
c. Iris
d. Ora serrata
e. Lens

A

Answer: a

The vascular pigmented structure of the uvea is the choroid.

325
Q

What is the space anterior to the lens?

a. Anterior chamber
b. Posterior chamber
c. Vitreal cavity
d. Both a and b
e. All of a, b, and c

A

Answer: d

The chambers anterior to the lens are the anterior chamber and posterior chamber.

326
Q

Which structure is part the uvea?

a. Ora serrata
b. Pigmented epithelium
c. Cornea
d. Sclera
e. Ciliary body

A

Answer: e

The uvea is the middle layer of the eyeball. It consists of the iris, choroid and ciliary body.

327
Q

What type of glands are the glands of Moll?

a. Endocrine gland
b. Apocrine sweat gland
c. Oil gland
d. Sebaceous glands
e. Eccrine sweat gland

A

Answer: b

The glands of Moll in the eyelid are apocrine sweat glands.

328
Q

How many layers of tissue compose the eyeball?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

A

Answer: c
The eyeball has three layers. The innermost layer is the retina. The middle layer is the uvea. The outer layer is the sclera and cornea.

329
Q

Which layer of the cornea is acellular?

a. Bowman’s membrane
b. Substantia propria
c. Epithelium
d. Endothelium
e. All of the above

A

Answer: a

Bowman’s membrane and Descemet’s membrane are acellular.

330
Q

What is the suspensory ligament of the lens?

a. Zonlular fibers
b. Purkinje fibers
c. Elastic fibers
d. Spiral ligament
e. Oval ligament

A

Answer: a

The zonular fibers are the suspensory ligament of the lens.

331
Q

What structure was Crystal Gayle referring to when she sang, “Don’t it make my brown eyes blue”?

a. Pupil
b. Lens
c. Cornea
d. Iris
e. Retina

A

Answer: d

The iris is the colored part of the eyes.

332
Q

What makes up the bulk of the cornea?

a. Purkinje fibers
b. Myofibrils
c. Elastic fibers
d. Reticular fibers
e. Collagen fibers

A

Answer: e

The cornea is composed primarily of collagen fibers.

333
Q

Which of the following is NOT a layer of the cornea?

a. Bowman’s membrane
b. Substantia propria
c. Descemet’s membrane
d. Lamina vitrea
e. Endothelium

A

Answer: d
There are five layers to the cornea: epithelium, Bowman’s membrane, substantia propria, Descemet’s membrane, and endothelium.
The lamina vitrea is also referred to as Bruch’s membrane.

334
Q

How many layers does the retina have?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5
e. 10

A

Answer: e

There are ten layers to the retina.

335
Q

What is the space posterior to the lens?

a. Anterior chamber
b. Posterior chamber
c. Vitreal cavity
d. Both a and b
e. All of a, b, and c

A

Answer: c
The region behind the lens is the vitreal cavity. The chambers anterior to the lens are the anterior chamber and posterior chamber. The iris separates the anterior chamber from the posterior chamber.

336
Q

Which structure is part the uvea?

a. Ora serrata
b. Pigmented epithelium
c. Choroid
d. Cornea
e. Sclera

A

Answer: c

The uvea is the middle layer of the eyeball. It consists of the iris, choroid and ciliary body.

337
Q

Which one of the following is not found in the retina?

a. Henle’s layer
b. Bipolar cells
c. Amacrine cells
d. Rods
e. Ganglion cells

A

Answer: a
Bipolar cells, amacrine cells, rods, and ganglion cells are all part of the retina.
Henle’s layer is a layer in the hair follicle.

338
Q

What is the anterior pigmented portion of the retina called?

a. Choroid
b. Ciliary body
c. Iris
d. Ora serrata
e. Sclera

A

Answer: d

The anterior pigmented portion of the retina is called the ora serrata.

339
Q

What is the middle layer of the eyeball?

a. Uvea
b. Rods
c. Cones
d. Bipolar cells
e. Ganglion cells

A

Answer: a
The eyeball has three layers. The innermost layer is the retina. The middle layer is the uvea. The outer layer is the sclera and cornea.

340
Q

Where on the retina are there no photoreceptors?

a. Ciliary body
b. Optic disc
c. Fovea centralis
d. Lamina vitrea
e. Lamina cribrosa

A

Answer: b
The site where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball is the optic disc. This region is also called the anatomical blind spot. Since there are no photoreceptors at this spot, it causes a blind spot in the visual field.

341
Q

What makes up the bulk of the sclera?

a. Purkinje fibers
b. Myofibrils
c. Elastic fibers
d. Reticular fibers
e. Collagen fibers

A

Answer: e

The sclera is composed primarily of collagen fibers.

342
Q

What is the space posterior to the iris?

a. Anterior chamber
b. Posterior chamber
c. Vitreal cavity
d. Both a and b
e. All of a, b, and c

A

Answer: b

The chambers anterior to the lens are the anterior chamber and posterior chamber.

343
Q

Which structure is part the uvea?

a. Sclera
b. Iris
c. Ora serrata
d. Pigmented epithelium
e. Cornea

A

Answer: b

The uvea is the middle layer of the eyeball. It consists of the iris, choroid and ciliary body.

344
Q

Which one of the following is not found in the retina?

a. Pigment epithelium
b. Muller’s cells
c. Huxley’s layer
d. Horizontal cells
e. Cones

A

Answer: c
Pigment epithelium, Muller’s cells, horizontal cells, and cones cells are all part of the retina.
Huxley’s layer is a layer in the hair follicle.

345
Q

What is the most anterior portion of the uvea?

a. Choroid
b. Ciliary body
c. Iris
d. Ora serrata
e. Sclera

A

Answer: c

The most anterior portion of the uvea is the iris.

346
Q

Which is NOT part of the retina?

a. Rods
b. Cones
c. Bipolar cells
d. Ganglion cells
e. Uvea

A

Answer: e
The retina consists of the rods, cones, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, horizontal cells, and amacrine cells. The receptors for vision are the rods and cones. The rods are located on the periphery, and are not color sensitive. The cones are the receptors for color.

347
Q

What is within the membranous labyrinth?

a. Lymph
b. Blood
c. Endolymph
d. Perilymph
e. Air

A

Answer: c

348
Q

What is within the bony labyrinth?

a. Lymph
b. Blood
c. Endolymph
d. Perilymph
e. Air

A

Answer: d

The membranous labyrinth contains endolymph. The bony labyrinth contains perilymph.

349
Q

Which cell type is the receptor cell within the organ of Corti?

a. Cells of Hensen
b. Hair cells
c. Inner border cells
d. Outer phalangeal cells
e. Inner pillar cells

A

Answer: b

The hair cells are the receptor cells. The other cells are supporting cells.

350
Q

What sensation does the crista ampullaris recognize?

a. Sound
b. Position
c. Movement
d. Vibration
e. All of the above

A

Answer: c

The crista ampullaris is the receptor for movement.

351
Q

Where is the organ of Corti?

a. Saccule
b. Utricle
c. Crista ampullaris
d. Semicircular canals
e. Cochlea

A

Answer: e

The cochlea is a spiral shaped structure. Within the cochlea is the organ of Corti.

352
Q

What structure is shaped like a snail shell?

a. Saccule
b. Utricle
c. Organ of Corti
d. Semicircular canals
e. Cochlea

A

Answer: e

353
Q

Where are the sensory receptors for position?

a. Saccule
b. Utricle
c. Organ of Corti
d. Semicircular canals
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: e
The receptors for hearing are located within the organ of Corti. The receptors for movement are located within the semicircular canals. The receptors for position are located within the utricle and saccule.

354
Q

Where are the sensory receptors for movement?

a. Saccule
b. Utricle
c. Organ of Corti
d. Semicircular canals
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: d

355
Q

Where are the sensory receptors for hearing?

a. Saccule
b. Utricle
c. Organ of Corti
d. Semicircular canals
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: c

356
Q

Which contains endolymph?

a. Scala vestibuli
b. Scala tympani
c. Cochlear duct
d. Both a and b
e. All a, b, and c

A

Answer: c

357
Q

Which contains perilymph?

a. Scala vestibuli
b. Scala tympani
c. Cochlear duct
d. Both a and b
e. All a, b, and c

A

Answer: d

The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain perilymph. The cochlear duct contains endolymph.

358
Q

Which of the following is composed of loose CT?

a. Epidermis
b. Reticular layer of dermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c

A

Answer: c

The hypodermis is a layer of loose connective tissue.

359
Q

Where is thick skin found?

a. Over the knee
b. Sole of the feet
c. Breast
d. Lips
e. All of the above

A

Answer: b

360
Q

Where can hair be found?

a. Palms of hand
b. Soles of feet
c. Urogenital openings
d. Lips
e. Eyelid

A

Hair is present over most of the body. It is not found on the palms of the hand,
soles of the feet, urogenital openings, and lips.

361
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant sensory receptor of the skin?

a. Free nerve endings
b. Ruffini’s corpuscles
c. Pacinian corpuscles
d. Krause’s end bulbs
e. Meissner’s corpuscle

A

Answer: a

The most abundant sensory receptor are the free nerve endings.

362
Q

What type of glands are the ceruminous glands?

a. Sebaceous glands
b. Eccrine sweat gland
c. Endocrine gland
d. Apocrine sweat gland
e. Oil gland

A

Answer: d

The ceruminous glands of the ear are apocrine sweat glands.

363
Q

What is the growing part of the nail?

a. Lunula
b. Eponychium
c. Matrix
d. Nail bed
e. Root

A

Answer: c

The lunula is the half moon shaped white area on a nail.

364
Q

What is the half moon shaped white area on a nail called?

a. Lunula
b. Eponychium
c. Matrix
d. Nail bed
e. Root

A

Answer: a

The lunula is the half moon shaped white area on a nail.

365
Q

A new miracle skin cream recently hit the beauty counters which is suppose to stimulate collagen production. Which cell is it supposedly stimulating?

a. Langerhans cell
b. Keratinocyte
c. Melanocyte
d. Merkel cell
e. Fibroblast

A

Answer: e

Fibroblasts are found in the dermis. Fibroblasts produces collagen.

366
Q

Which cell is a macrophage found in the skin?

a. Kupffer cells
b. Histiocyte
c. Dust cell
d. Langerhans cell
e. Microglia

A

Answer: d

Langerhans cells are macrophages seen in the skin.

367
Q

Which layer of the epidermis has cells which have keratohyaline granules?

a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum

A

Answer: c

The cells in the stratum granulosum contain keratohyaline granules.

368
Q

Which of the following is composed of dense irregular connective tissue?

a. Epidermis
b. Reticular layer of dermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c

A

Answer: b

The reticular layer of the dermis is made up of dense irregular connective tissue.

369
Q

Which of the following is found in the hair follicle?

a. Pigment epithelium
b. Muller’s cells
c. Huxley’s layer
d. Horizontal cells
e. Cones

A

Answer: c

Huxley’s layer is a layer in the hair follicle.

370
Q

Which of the following responds to continuous pressure?

a. Free nerve endings
b. Ruffini’s corpuscles
c. Pacinian corpuscles
d. Krause’s end bulbs
e. Meissner’s corpuscle

A

Answer: b

Ruffini’s corpuscles respond to continuous pressure.

371
Q

What is the innervation of an eccrine sweat gland?

a. Cholinergic; parasympathetic
b. Cholinergic; sympathetic
c. Adrenergic; parasympathetic
d. Adrenergic; sympathetic
e. Cholinergic; motor

A

Answer: b
Eccrine sweat glands are innervated by the sympathetic nervous system. The neurotransmitter for the eccrine sweat glands is acetylcholine. Thus it is cholinergic.

372
Q

What is underneath the nail plate?

a. Lunula
b. Eponychium
c. Matrix
d. Nail bed
e. Root

A

Answer: d

The nail plate rests on the nail bed.

373
Q

Which cell is found in the dermis?

a. Langerhans cell
b. Keratinocyte
c. Melanocyte
d. Merkel cell
e. Fibroblast

A

Answer: e

Fibroblasts are found in the dermis. Fibroblasts produces collagen.

374
Q

Which cell is a mechanoreceptors?

a. Langerhans cell
b. Keratinocyte
c. Melanocyte
d. Merkel cell
e. Fibroblast

A

Answer: d

The Merkel cell is a mechanoreceptor.

375
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is present only in thick skin?

a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum

A

Answer: d

The stratum lucidum is present only in thick skin.

376
Q

The reticular layer is part of which layer?

a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Both a and b
e. None of the above

A

Answer: b

The dermis is composed of a papillary layer and a reticular layer.

377
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered an epidermal appendage?

a. Sweat gland
b. Hair
c. Hypodermis
d. Nails
e. Sebaceous glands

A

Answer: c
The hypodermis is not considered an epidermal appendage. The hypodermis is the loose connective tissue layer underneath the dermis.

378
Q

Which of the following is a receptor for fine touch which is located in mucous membranes?

a. Free nerve endings
b. Ruffini’s corpuscles
c. Pacinian corpuscles
d. Krause’s end bulbs
e. Meissner’s corpuscle

A

Answer: d

Krause’s end bulbs are a receptor for fine touch which are located in mucous membranes and the tongue.

379
Q

Which of the following responds to vibration and rapidly changing pressure?

a. Free nerve endings
b. Ruffini’s corpuscles
c. Pacinian corpuscles
d. Krause’s end bulbs
e. Meissner’s corpuscle

A

Answer: c

Pacinian corpuscles respond to vibration and rapidly changing pressure.

380
Q

What type of glands are the glands of Moll?

a. Endocrine gland
b. Apocrine sweat gland
c. Oil gland
d. Sebaceous glands
e. Eccrine sweat gland

A

Answer: b

The glands of Moll in the eyelid are apocrine sweat glands.

381
Q

What is the portion of the nail which is underneath skin?

a. Lunula
b. Eponychium
c. Matrix
d. Nail bed
e. Root

A

Answer: e

The nail root is the proximal portion of the nail that is underneath skin.

382
Q

What type of epithelium forms the epidermis?

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Pseudostratified epithelium

A

Answer: d

The epidermis is formed by stratified squamous epithelium.

383
Q

Which cell is the most abundant cell in the epidermis?

a. Langerhans cell
b. Keratinocyte
c. Melanocyte
d. Merkel cell
e. Fibroblast

A

Answer: b

The keratinocyte is the most abundant cell in the epidermis.

384
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is on the surface of the skin?

a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum

A

Answer: e
The stratum corneum is the outermost layer. The cells in this layer are essentially bags of keratin. They contain no nuclei or organelles.

385
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is also called the stratum germinativum?

a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum

A

Answer: a

The stratum basale contains the dividing cells. This layer is also called the stratum germinativum.

386
Q

Which of the following is composed of stratified squamous epithelium?

a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c

A

Answer: a

The epidermis is stratified squamous epithelium.

387
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of skin

a. Vitamin D production
b. Protection from water loss
c. Sensory reception
d. Heat regulation
e. All are functions of skin

A

Answer: e
The skin is involved in the production of vitamin D from precursors with the aid of the sun. It protects the body from water loss. There are many sensory receptors in the skin: pain, pressure, fine touch. The skin is also involved in heat regulation. In addition, the skin protects the body.

388
Q

Which of the following is found in the hair follicle?

a. Henle’s layer
b. Bipolar cells
c. Amacrine cells
d. Rods
e. Ganglion cells

A

Answer: a
Bipolar cells, amacrine cells, rods, and ganglion cells are all part of the retina.
Henle’s layer is a layer in the hair follicle.

389
Q

Which of the following is a receptor for fine touch which is located in the dermis?

a. Free nerve endings
b. Ruffini’s corpuscles
c. Pacinian corpuscles
d. Krause’s end bulbs
e. Meissner’s corpuscle

A

Answer: e

Meissner’s corpuscles are also a receptor for fine touch but they are located in the dermis.

390
Q

What is the innervation of an apocrine sweat gland?

a. Cholinergic; parasympathetic
b. Cholinergic; sympathetic
c. Adrenergic; parasympathetic
d. Adrenergic; sympathetic
e. Cholinergic; motor

A

Answer: d
Apocrine sweat glands are innervated by the sympathetic nervous system. The neurotransmitter for the apocrine sweat glands is norepinephrine. Thus it is adrenergic.

391
Q

Where are apocrine sweat glands NOT found?

a. Areola
b. External genitalia
c. Posterior neck
d. Axilla
e. Circumanal region

A

Answer: c
Sweat glands are divided into apocrine and eccrine. Apocrine sweat glands are found on the areola, external genitalia, axilla, and curcumanal region. Eccrine sweat glands are distributed over most of the body.

392
Q

What is a characteristic of the cells in the epidermis of the skin?

a. Microvilli
b. Stereocilia
c. Cilia
d. Keratinization
e. Both a and b

A

Answer: d

Keratinization is seen in the epidermis. Cells in the stratum corneum are essentially just bags of keratin.

393
Q

Which cell is a phagocyte?

a. Langerhans cell
b. Keratinocyte
c. Melanocyte
d. Merkel cell
e. Fibroblast

A

Answer: a
Langerhans cells, keratinocytes, melanocytes, and Merkel cells are all found in the epidermis. The Langerhans cell is a phagocyte.

394
Q

Which layer of the epidermis contains cells with no nuclei or organelles?

a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum

A

Answer: e
The stratum corneum is the outermost layer. The cells in this layer are essentially bags of keratin. They contain no nuclei or organelles.

395
Q

Which layer of the epidermis contains dividing cells?

a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum

A

Answer: a

The stratum basale contains the dividing cells. This layer is also called the stratum germinativum.

396
Q

The papillary layer is part of which layer?

a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Both a and b
e. None of the above

A

Answer: b

The dermis is composed of a papillary layer and a reticular layer.

397
Q

Which layer of the epidermis contains star shaped cells?

a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum

A

Answer: b

The stratum spinosum consists of a layer several cells deep. The cells have pointy or spiny processes on them.

398
Q

Which sensory receptor in the skin is NOT encapsulated?

a. Ruffini endings
b. Free nerve endings
c. Pacinian corpuscles
d. Meissner’s corpuscles
e. Merkel cells

A

Answer: b
Ruffini endings, pacinian corpuscles, meissner’s corpuscles, and merkel cells are all encapsulated sensory receptors. Free nerve endings are not encapsulated.

399
Q

What are the pressure receptors in skin called?

a. Psammoma bodies
b. Corpora arenacea
c. Hassall’s corpuscles
d. Prostatic concretions
e. Pacinian corpuscles

A

Answer: e

Pacinian corpuscles are pressure receptors in the skin.

400
Q

What type of tissue makes up the dermis of the skin?

a. Mucous connective tissue
b. Mesenchyme
c. Loose irregular connective tissue
d. Dense irregular connective tissue
e. Dense regular connective tissue

A

Answer: d

Dense irregular connective tissue is seen in the dermis.

401
Q

What color is keratin with Masson’s trichrome stain?

a. Red
b. Pink
c. Green
d. Black
e. Yellow

A

Answer: a
A trichrome stain is a mixture of three dyes. Collagen fibers stain green with Masson’s trichrome stain. Muscle and keratin will be red with Masson’s trichrome stain. Cytoplasm will be pink. Nuclei will be black.

402
Q

What is the correct term for cuticle?

a. Lunula
b. Eponychium
c. Matrix
d. Nail bed
e. Root

A

Answer: b

The anatomical term for the cuticle is the eponychium.

403
Q

Which of the following responds to pain?

a. Free nerve endings
b. Ruffini’s corpuscles
c. Pacinian corpuscles
d. Krause’s end bulbs
e. Meissner’s corpuscle

A

Answer: a

The most abundant sensory receptor are the free nerve endings. Free nerve endings respond to pain and temperature.

404
Q

Which cell is responsible for skin pigmentation?

a. Langerhans cell
b. Keratinocyte
c. Melanocyte
d. Merkel cell
e. Fibroblast

A

Answer: c

The melanocyte produces melanin, which is responsible for skin pigmentation.

405
Q

Which of the following layers comprise the skin?

a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c

A

Answer: d

The skin is composed of two layers: the epidermis and the dermis.

406
Q

What is another term for lymphatic nodules?

a. Lymph follicles
b. White pulp
c. Peyer’s patches
d. Lymph node
e. Diffuse lymphatic tissue

A

Answer: a

The localized concentrations of lymphocytes that are seen in the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract are lymph follicles. They are also called lymphatic nodules.

The lymphatic tissue in the spleen is called white pulp.

The large aggregates of lymphatic tissue in the ileum are called Peyer’s patches.

A lymph node is an encapsulated lymphatic organ.

The random distribution of lymphocytes seen in the lamina propria of the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract is called diffuse lymphatic tissue. Difuse lymphatic tissue in not encapsulated.

407
Q

Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract contains the gut associated lymphatic tissue?

a. Mucosa
b. Sub mucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Serosa
e. Adventitia

A

Answer: a

The mucosa is the innermost layer of the GI tract. The mucosa consists of a lining epithelium, lamina propria and muscularis mucosae. Gut associated lymphatic tissue (GALT) is found in the mucosa and sometimes extends into the submucosa.

408
Q

What do you call the random distribution of lymphocytes that are found in the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract?

a. Lymph follicles
b. White pulp
c. Peyer’s patches
d. Lymph node
e. Diffuse lymphatic tissue

A

Answer: e

The localized concentrations of lymphocytes that are seen in the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract are lymph follicles. They are also called lymphatic nodules.

The lymphatic tissue in the spleen is called white pulp.

The large aggregates of lymphatic tissue in the ileum are called Peyer’s patches.

A lymph node is an encapsulated lymphatic organ.

The random distribution of lymphocytes seen in the lamina propria of the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract is called diffuse lymphatic tissue. Difuse lymphatic tissue in not encapsulated.

409
Q

Where do T lymphocytes gain their immunocompetence?

a. Thymus
b. Thyroid
c. Bursa of Fabricus
d. Bone marrow
e. Lymph node

A

Answer: a

T cells gain their immunocompetence in the thymus.

410
Q

When looking at a lymph node, where are lymphatic nodules?

a. Deep cortex
b. Tertiary cortex
c. Juxtamedullary cortex
d. Paracortical zone
e. Outer cortex

A

Answer: e

Deep cortex, tertiary cortex, juxtamedullary cortex and paracortical zone are all terms for the same region in a lymph node. The deep cortex is the inner region of the cortex, next to the medulla.

Lymphatic nodules are not found in the deep cortex. Lymphatic nodules are found in the outer cortex.

411
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen?

a. Destruction of red blood cells
b. Lymphocyte production
c. Storage of blood
d. Fetal blood cell formation
e. All of the above are functions of the spleen

A

Answer: e

The spleen is involved in destruction of old or damaged red blood cells. Storage of blood occurs in the spleen. In the fetus, the spleen is involved in blood cell formation. Lymphocyte and antibody production occurs in the spleen.

412
Q

What is the term for the entire lymphatic region of the spleen?

a. Malpighian corpuscle
b. Trabeculae
c. White pulp
d. Red pulp
e. Cords of Billroth

A

Answer: c

The spleen has a connective tissue capsule. The invaginations of the capsule into the splenic parenchyma are trabeculae.

The parenchyma of the spleen can be divided into the white pulp and the red pulp. The white pulp of the spleen is the lymphatic portion of the spleen. Within the white pulp, splenic nodules are found. Splenic nodules are also called Malpighian corpuscles.

The red pulp is made up of the splenic sinuses and splenic cords. The splenic cords are also called the cords of Billroth.

413
Q

What is another name for a splenic nodule?

a. Malpighian corpuscle
b. Trabeculae
c. White pulp
d. Red pulp
e. Cords of Billroth

A

Answer: a

The spleen has a connective tissue capsule. The invaginations of the capsule into the splenic parenchyma are trabeculae.

The parenchyma of the spleen can be divided into the white pulp and the red pulp. The white pulp of the spleen is the lymphatic portion of the spleen. Within the white pulp, splenic nodules are found. Splenic nodules are also called Malpighian corpuscles.

The red pulp is made up of the splenic sinuses and splenic cords. The splenic cords are also called the cords of Billroth.

414
Q

What is the acronym for the diffuse lymphatic tissue found in the intestinal tract?

a. BALT
b. DALT
c. FALT
d. GALT
e. HALT

A

Answer: d

Diffuse lymphatic tissue is non-encapsulated lymphatic tissue. It is found in the gastrointestinal tract, the genito-urinary tract, and the respiratory tract. In the gastrointestinal tract it is referred to as GALT (gut associated lymphatic tissue). In the respiratory tract it is referred to as BALT (bronchi associated lymphatic tissue).

415
Q

Which of the following is NOT made of a framework of reticular fibers?

a. Bone marrow
b. Lymph node
c. Spleen
d. Thymus
e. None of the above–all are made of a framework of reticular fibers.

A

Answer: d

Bone marrow, lymph nodes, the spleen and the thymus are all part of the lymphatic system. Most lymphatic organs are made of a framework of reticular fibers and reticular cells. However, the thymus is made of epithelioreticular cells instead.

416
Q

What are the large aggregates of lymphatic tissue in the ileum?

a. Lymph follicles
b. White pulp
c. Peyer’s patches
d. Lymph node
e. Diffuse lymphatic tissue

A

Answer: c

The localized concentrations of lymphocytes that are seen in the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract are lymph follicles. They are also called lymphatic nodules.

The lymphatic tissue in the spleen is called white pulp.

The large aggregates of lymphatic tissue in the ileum are called Peyer’s patches.

A lymph node is an encapsulated lymphatic organ.

The random distribution of lymphocytes seen in the lamina propria of the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract is called diffuse lymphatic tissue. Difuse lymphatic tissue in not encapsulated.

417
Q

Where is diffuse lymphatic tissue NOT found?

a. Gastrointestinal tract
b. Central nervous system
c. Genito-urinary tract
d. Respiratory tract
e. None of the above-diffuse lymphatic tissue is found in all of these regions

A

Answer: b

Diffuse lymphatic tissue is non-encapsulated lymphatic tissue. It is found in the gastrointestinal tract, the genito-urinary tract, and the respiratory tract. In the gastrointestinal tract it is referred to as GALT (gut associated lymphatic tissue). In the respiratory tract it is referred to as BALT (bronchi associated lymphatic tissue). Diffuse lymphatic tissue is not found in the central nervous system.

418
Q

Which of the following is an encapsulated lymphatic organ?

a. Lymph follicles
b. White pulp
c. Peyer’s patches
d. Lymph node
e. Diffuse lymphatic tissue

A

Answer: d

The localized concentrations of lymphocytes that are seen in the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract are lymph follicles. They are also called lymphatic nodules.

The lymphatic tissue in the spleen is called white pulp.

The large aggregates of lymphatic tissue in the ileum are called Peyer’s patches.

A lymph node is an encapsulated lymphatic organ.

The random distribution of lymphocytes seen in the lamina propria of the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract is called diffuse lymphatic tissue. Difuse lymphatic tissue in not encapsulated.

419
Q

What does the acronym PALS stand for?

a. Papillary layer sinus
b. Peyer’s lymphatic sheath
c. Periarterial lymphatic sheath
d. Peripheral lymphatic sinus
e. Parenchymal lymphatic sheath

A

Answer: c

PALS stands for periarterial lymphatic sheath. Periarterial lymphatic sheaths are the lymphocytes which surround the central artery in the spleen.

420
Q

Where are the splenic sinuses?

a. Malpighian corpuscle
b. Trabeculae
c. White pulp
d. Red pulp
e. Cords of Billroth

A

Answer: d

The spleen has a connective tissue capsule. The invaginations of the capsule into the splenic parenchyma are trabeculae.

The parenchyma of the spleen can be divided into the white pulp and the red pulp. The white pulp of the spleen is the lymphatic portion of the spleen. Within the white pulp, splenic nodules are found. Splenic nodules are also called Malpighian corpuscles.

The red pulp is made up of the splenic sinuses and splenic cords. The splenic cords are also called the cords of Billroth.

421
Q

What is a characteristic of a secondary nodule?

a. Germinal center
b. Lymphocytes
c. Capsule
d. Trabeculae
e. None of the above

A

Answer: a

A secondary lymphatic nodule is characterized by the presence of a germinal center.

422
Q

Which of the following is composed of epithelioreticular cells?

a. Spleen
b. Thymus
c. Bone marrow
d. Lymph node
e. None of the above

A

Answer: b

Bone marrow, lymph nodes, the spleen and the thymus are all part of the lymphatic system. Most lymphatic organs are made of a framework of reticular fibers and reticular cells. However, the thymus is made of epithelioreticular cells instead.

423
Q

What are the spherical structures seen in the medulla of the thymus called?

a. Psammoma bodies
b. Corpora arenacea
c. Hassall’s corpuscles
d. Prostatic concretions
e. Pacinian corpuscles

A

Answer: c

Psammoma bodies are collections of calcium. It is derived from the Greek word “psammos”, which means sand.

Corpora arenacea refers to the calcifications seen in the pineal gland. Corpora arenacea is nicknamed “brain sand”.

Hassall’s corpuscles are the ring like structures found in the thymus.

The spherical structures seen in some prostatic alveoli are called prostatic concretions.

Pacinian corpuscles are pressure receptors in the skin.

424
Q

When looking at a lymph node, which term does not refer to the same region as all the others listed?

a. Deep cortex
b. Tertiary cortex
c. Outer cortex
d. Juxtamedullary cortex
e. Paracortical zone

A

Answer: c

Deep cortex, tertiary cortex, juxtamedullary cortex and paracortical zone are all terms for the same region in a lymph node. The deep cortex is the inner region of the cortex, next to the medulla.

425
Q

When looking at the spleen, what are the invaginations of the capsule into the splenic parenchyma called?

a. Malpighian corpuscle
b. Trabeculae
c. White pulp
d. Red pulp
e. Cords of Billroth

A

Answer: b

The spleen has a connective tissue capsule. The invaginations of the capsule into the splenic parenchyma are trabeculae.

The parenchyma of the spleen can be divided into the white pulp and the red pulp. The white pulp of the spleen is the lymphatic portion of the spleen. Within the white pulp, splenic nodules are found. Splenic nodules are also called Malpighian corpuscles.

The red pulp is made up of the splenic sinuses and splenic cords. The splenic cords are also called the cords of Billroth.

426
Q

What are the splenic cords?

a. Cords of Billroth
b. Cords of Paneth
c. Cords of Bellini
d. Cords of Rothchild
e. Cords of Hassall

A

Answer: a

The splenic cords are also called the cords of Billroth.

427
Q

What is the lymphatic tissue in the spleen called?

a. Lymph follicles
b. White pulp
c. Peyer’s patches
d. Lymph node
e. Diffuse lymphatic tissue

A

Answer: b

The localized concentrations of lymphocytes that are seen in the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract are lymph follicles. They are also called lymphatic nodules.

The lymphatic tissue in the spleen is called white pulp.

The large aggregates of lymphatic tissue in the ileum are called Peyer’s patches.

A lymph node is an encapsulated lymphatic organ.

The random distribution of lymphocytes seen in the lamina propria of the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract is called diffuse lymphatic tissue. Difuse lymphatic tissue in not encapsulated.

428
Q

What are the localized concentrations of lymphocytes that are seen in the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract?

a. Lymph follicles
b. White pulp
c. Peyer’s patches
d. Lymph node
e. Diffuse lymphatic tissue

A

Answer: a

The localized concentrations of lymphocytes that are seen in the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract are lymph follicles. They are also called lymphatic nodules.

The lymphatic tissue in the spleen is called white pulp.

The large aggregates of lymphatic tissue in the ileum are called Peyer’s patches.

A lymph node is an encapsulated lymphatic organ.

The random distribution of lymphocytes seen in the lamina propria of the respiratory tract, genitourinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract is called diffuse lymphatic tissue. Difuse lymphatic tissue in not encapsulated.

429
Q

What is the acronym for the diffuse lymphatic tissue in the respiratory tract?

a. BALT
b. DALT
c. FALT
d. GALT
e. HALT

A

Answer: a

Diffuse lymphatic tissue is non-encapsulated lymphatic tissue. It is found in the gastrointestinal tract, the genito-urinary tract, and the respiratory tract. In the gastrointestinal tract it is referred to as GALT (gut associated lymphatic tissue). In the respiratory tract it is referred to as BALT (bronchi associated lymphatic tissue).

Histology (3 decks)

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