histo review jung

Question 1

Question 8 of 230

Which structure in the cochlea is analogous in composition and function to the cupola of each semicircular canal?

Answer 1

Tectorial membrane

The tectorial membrane (TM) is an extracellular connective tissue that covers the mechanically-sensitive hair bundles of the sensory receptor cells in the inner ear. It occupies a strategic position, playing a key role in transforming sound to mechanical stimulation.

Question 2

Chylomicrons

Chylomicrons are formed in the endoplasmic reticulum in the absorptive cells (enterocytes) of the small intestine. The villi, lined with the microvilli of the brush border, provide a lot of surface area for absorption.

Answer 2

Question 9 of 230
What are the relatively large particles formed in the intestinal epithelial cells and rich in ingested lipids?

Chylomicrons are large micellar lipoproteins, having a diameter of 75 to 1200 nm, and are primarily composed of TG (85%) and contain some cholesterol and cholesteryl esters. They are surrounded by a surface monolayer of phospholipids, unesterified cholesterol and specific apoproteins.

Question 3

Which of the following is a characteristic of the connective tissue layer that surrounds individual fascicles in large peripheral nerves?

Answer 3

Important as part of the blood-nerve barrier in the nerve

A blood-nerve barrier is formed by tight junctions in the inner layers of the perineurium and tight junctions in endoneurial capillaries.

Question 4

Myoepithelial cells aid in the secretory process of which of the following?

Eccrine is a term specifically used to designate merocrine secretions from sweat glands.

found in large numbers on the soles of the feet, the palms, the forehead and cheeks, and in the armpits. Eccrine glands secrete an odorless, clear fluid that helps the body to control its temperature by promoting heat loss through evaporation.

Answer 4

Eccrine sweat glands

Eccrine glands secrete an odorless, clear fluid that helps the body to control its temperature by promoting heat loss through evaporation. In general, the type of sweat involved in hyperhidrosis is eccrine sweat. The other type of sweat gland is called an “apocrine” gland.

Question 5

Functions of the basement membrane do not include

Answer 5

Molecular filtering

Question 6

Which of the following separates the hair follicle from the connective tissue of the dermis?

inner basement membrane called the hyaline or vitreous (glassy) membrane and an outer connective tissue sheath.

Answer 6

Glassy membrane

The perifollicular sheath envelops the epithelial components of the hair follicle and consists of an inner basement membrane called the hyaline or vitreous (glassy) membrane and an outer connective tissue sheath. … It is most prominent around the outer root sheath at the bulb in anagen hairs

Question 7

What is an important part of the role played by macrophages during maintenance and renewal of strong extracellular fibers in connective tissue?

Answer 7

Secretion of MMPs

metalloproteinases

Question 8

What is the most important form of lipid storage in both white and brown adipocytes?

Answer 8

triglicerides

Question 9

Which description is true of the bile canaliculi?

Kupffer cells are the resident macrophages of the liver and are typically found within the lumen of the sinusoids.

Answer 9

Lumens are entirely sealed by junctional complexes

The perisinusoidal space (or space of Disse) is a location in the liver between a hepatocyte and a sinusoid. It contains the blood plasma. Microvilli of hepatocytes extend into this space, allowing proteins and other plasma components from the sinusoids to be absorbed by the hepatocytes.

Question 10

Which of the following most accurately describes the endosteum?

Sharpey’s fibres (bone fibres, or perforating fibres) are a matrix of connective tissue consisting of bundles of strong predominantly type I collagen fibres connecting periosteum to bone. … Each fibre is accompanied by an arteriole and one or more nerve fibres.

Answer 10

NOT - Attached to the bone surface by collagen bundles called Sharpey fibers

D YES _
Lines the medullary cavity

Question 11

Which of the following is true for ventricles?

Answer 11

Walls contain Purkinje fibers of the right and left branches from the atrioventricular bundle

NOT
Contain more elastic fibers than the atria

Question 12

Blood in the renal arcuate arteries flows next into which vessels?

renal artery, then reaches the interlobar arteries, then goes to the arcuate arteries, then the interlobular arteries, and finally goes to the afferent arteriole, which supplies the nephron with blood.

Answer 12

Interlobular arteries

Question 13

An intermediate filament protein found in cytoplasm of most epithelial cells is which of the following?

Answer 13

keratin

Question 14

night vision problems - and even during day?

Answer 14

Closing of Na+ channels

Question 15

Besides saving much time by avoiding fixation and procedures required for paraffin embedding, frozen sections retain and allow study of what macromolecules normally lost in the paraffin procedure?

Answer 15

lipids

Question 16

Which of the following facilitates breakdown of the nuclear envelope during the onset of mitosis?

Answer 16

Phosphorylation of lamin subunits by a CDK

During what phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope first start to break down?
prophase
The first and longest phase of mitosis is prophase. During prophase, chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and the nuclear envelope (the membrane surrounding the nucleus) breaks down. In animal cells, the centrioles near the nucleus begin to separate and move to opposite poles of the cell.

Question 17

Which description is true of the gallbladder?

Answer 17

Secretes mucus

Once the pressure in the CBD exceeds the resting pressure of the gallbladder (~10 mm Hg), bile flows into the gallbladder. The peribiliary mucous glands in the neck and the surface epithelial cells produce mucin, most of which is neutral, heavily sulphated, and contains a few sialic residues.

Question 18

A 54-year-old man presents with recurrent breathlessness and chronic fatigue. After routine tests followed by a bone marrow biopsy he is diagnosed with lymphocytic leukemia. Chemotherapy is administered to remove the cancerous cells, which also destroys the precursor cells of erythrocytes. To reestablish the erythrocytic lineage, which of the following cells should be transplanted?

Answer 18

Basophilic erythroblasts

Erythropoietin
Erythropoietin is a hormone, produced mainly in the kidneys, which stimulates the production and maintenance of red blood cells.

Question 19

In transmission EM preparations of cells the cell membrane often appears as a trilaminar structure having two parallel dark-staining components on either side of an unstained middle layer. This central poorly stained region of the membrane is primarily responsible for which of the following functions?

Answer 19

Creation of a barrier to water-soluble molecules

Question 20

What is the first step of collagen production that occurs after the protein undergoes exocytosis?

Answer 20

Removal of the terminal nonhelical domains by peptidases

Question 21

Chaperonins are cytoplasmic proteins most likely to be found in which of the following organelles?

Answer 21

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Chaperonins are a class of molecular chaperone composed of oligomeric double-ring protein assemblies that provide essential kinetic assistance to protein folding by binding non-native proteins and allowing them to fold in the central cavities of their rings.

Question 22

What tissue is directly associated with and extends into the heart valves?

Answer 22

Cardiac skeleton

Question 23

In which of the following structures of the oral cavity would taste buds be localized in the highest concentration?

Answer 23

Vallate papillae

Question 24

The pars distalis is not a good candidate for transplantation studies for which one of the following reasons?

Answer 24

Its cells stop functioning when separated from the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

Question 25

Transitions in the cell cycle from one phase to the next are regulated by protein kinases whose activity depends on what other proteins

Answer 25

cyclins

Question 26

While studying a germ cell line developed from a patient’s testicular biopsy, the researcher notes that colchicine-treated cells blocked in metaphase have 46 chromosomes. From which of the following regions of the male genital tract would you expect these cells to have originated?

Answer 26

At the basal lamina of the seminiferous tubule

Question 27

Which of the following cellular features is used in naming types of epithelia?

Answer 27

number of cell layers

Question 28

in the diaphysis of a typical long bone which of the following structures is in closest proximity to the trabeculae of cancellous bone?

Cancellous Bone or Spongy Bone
It typically occurs at the ends of long bones, proximal to joints and within the interior of vertebrae. For example, distal end radius, proximal humerus or proximal femur, all are examples of cancellous bone.

Answer 28

Inner circumferential lamellae

Cancellous Bone or Spongy Bone. Cancellous bone is also called trabecular bone or spongy bone. Compared to compact bone, which is the other type of osseous tissue, it has a higher surface area but is less dense, softer, weaker, and less stiff.

Question 29

The major lubricant for diarthrotic joints is synthesized by cells located in which joint structure?

Answer 29

Synovial membrane

Question 30

56-year-old man has been taking atorvastatin because of a poor lipid profile and a family history of cardiovascular disease. The statin family of drugs enhances endocytosis of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) from the blood. Endocytosis of LDL differs from phagocytosis of bacterial cells in which of the following ways?

Answer 30

Use of clathrin-coated pits

Coated pits are regions of the cell membrane specialized in receptor-mediated endocytosis. Their cytoplasmic surface is coated with a bristlelike structure made of clathrin.

Question 31

In a light microscope used for histology, resolution and magnification of cells are largely dependent on which component?

Answer 31

Objective lens

Question 32

Polarity in microtubules is important in determining which of the following?

Answer 32

The direction of vesicular transport along microtubules

Question 33

Which if the following most accurately describes compact bone?

NOT
B
Also known as cancellous bone

Answer 33

C

Characterized by the presence of osteons

Question 34

The pulmonary (functional) and bronchial (nutritive) arterial systems enter the lungs separately at the hilus but anastomose into a single system at which level?

Answer 34

Respiratory bronchioles

Question 35

A 9-year-old girl, the youngest of four daughters, is taken to the pediatrician by her mother, who indicates that for at least 4 months the child has seemed “hyperactive,” unable to sleep soundly because “she says her room is too hot,” and no longer able to concentrate in school. Upon questioning, the mother also remembers that her daughter’s periods also began within the past few months. Blood tests indicate high levels of estrogen-related hormones and cortisol. Which of the following tentative diagnoses is consistent with all of these symptoms?

Answer 35

A benign tumor involving cells in the adenohypophysis

Question 36

Which of the following staining procedures relies on the cationic and anionic properties of the material to be stained?

Answer 36

H&E staining

Question 37

Fully differentiated white adipocytes are large cells, typically having diameters of approximately what size?

Answer 37

100 μm

Question 38

channels that connect the testis to the epididymis. What is the name of these channels?

Answer 38

Efferent ductules

Question 39

antibodies to a subfamily of CADHERINS and immunohistochemical staining of a biopsy from the oral mucosa shows distribution of the antigen throughout the epithelium. In what structures is the defect that is causing this patient’s condition?

Answer 39

Desmosomes

Question 40

A glucagonoma is a malignant tumor consisting of what cells?

Answer 40

A or α cells

Question 41

Which of the following components of the epidermis provides sealant between adjacent cells?

Answer 41

Glycolipids and lipids

Question 42

Which feature typifies T-tubules?

NOT
Evaginations of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Answer 42

Carry depolarization to the muscle fiber interior

Question 43

Which of the following is the thickest component of the cornea?

Answer 43

Stroma

Question 44

Which of the following proteins is/are most likely to have initially contained a “signal peptide” that bound a “signal recognition particle” during its translation?

Answer 44

Proteins in secretory granules

Question 45

the epithelial cells within the organ of Corti are supported by which of the following structures?

Answer 45

Basilar membrane

The organ of Corti is a specialized sensory epithelium that allows for the transduction of sound vibrations into neural signals. The organ of Corti itself is located on the basilar membrane. The organ of Corti rests on the basilar membrane and contains two types of hair cells: inner hair cells and outer hair cells.

Question 46

During an eye examination a 55-year-old man is found to show intraocular pressure exceeding 40 mm Hg and blockage of fluid flow within the eye is suspected. Such a diagnosis would involve a blockage at which of the following sites?

Answer 46

Trabecular meshwork

Question 47

A 66-year-old man who suffered from severe osteoarthritis is referred to an orthopedic surgeon for replacement of his right knee. He had been actively involved in both high school and intercollegiate football and had continued running until about the age of 45 as a form of relaxation and exercise. With the patient’s permission the removed joint is used by investigators performing a proteomic analysis of different joint tissues. The meniscus was found to contain almost exclusively type I collagen and aggrecan was undetectable. What is the most likely explanation for this result?

Answer 47

The meniscus had undergone repeated rounds of repair due to wear-and-tear during which its hyaline cartilage component was replaced by dense connective tissue.

Question 48

n situ hybridization is a histologic technique used to visualize what type of macromolecule?

Answer 48

Nucleic acids

Question 49

Which step occurs first in chondrogenesis?
NOT
Conversion of chondroblasts to chondrocytes

C

Answer 49

Formation of mesenchymal condensations

Question 50

Which of the following accurately describes glucocorticoids?

NOT
Are produced primarily by the zone glomerulosa

Which is a difference between the anterior pituitary and the posterior pituitary?
The pituitary glands are made of the anterior lobe and posterior lobe. The anterior lobe produces and releases hormones. The posterior lobe does not produce hormones per se—this is done by nerve cells in the hypothalamus—but it does release them into the circulation

Answer 50

Are produced in response to stimulation by ACTH

drenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is a hormone produced in the anterior, or front, pituitary gland in the brain. The function of ACTH is to regulate levels of the steroid hormone cortisol, which released from the adrenal gland. … highly-sensitive ACTH. corticotropin.

Question 51

About 3 years ago, a 39-year-old construction worker became increasingly uncoordinated. His wife describes bouts of depression and apathy beginning about a decade ago. Laboratory tests are normal. MRI and CT reveal striatal and caudate atrophy with “boxcar ventricles.” His mini-mental status examination score is 24/30. The cranial nerve examination shows dysarthria, saccadic extraocular eye movements, and a hyperactive gag reflex. There is increased tone in all extremities. Polymerase chain reaction reveals one normal band with 20 CAG (trinucleotide) repeats and the other with 49 CAG repeats. Modulation of respiration and mitochondrial membrane potential, and bioenergetic failure are associated with the abnormal gene in this disease. Which of the following mechanisms used to establish the mitochondrial electrochemical gradient may be altered in this disease?

Answer 51

Proton-translocating activity in the inner membrane

Question 52

Exocrine glands in which the acini all produce a secretion of heavily glycosylated, hydrophilic proteins are an example of which type of gland?

Answer 52

mucous gland

Question 53

Important target cells of leptin are found in which organ?

A

Answer 53

Hypothalamus

Question 54

In the choroid plexus water from capillaries is transported directly into the cerebrospinal fluid by what structure(s)?

A

Answer 54

Ependyma

Lining the CSF-filled ventricles, and spinal canal, the ependymal cells play an important role in the production and regulation of CSF. Their apical surfaces are covered in a layer of cilia, which circulate CSF around the CNS. Their apical surfaces are also covered with microvilli, which absorb CSF.

Question 55

A newborn boy is diagnosed with Apert syndrome. He has craniosynostosis, hypoplasia of the middle part of the face with retrusion of the eyes, and syndactyly that includes fusion of the skin, connective tissue, and muscle of the first, middle, and ring fingers with moderate fusion of those digits. There is very limited joint mobility past the first joint. Which one of the following is most likely decreased in cells of the interdigital regions of the developing hand of this newborn child?

E

Answer 55

DNA degradation by endonucleases

Question 56

Which cytoplasmic components are the main constituents of the dark precipitate that forms in reticulocytes upon staining with the dye cresyl blue?

A

Answer 56

Polyribosomes

Question 57

Which feature is characteristic of the endometrium’s basal layer but not of its functional layer?

C

Answer 57

Contains cells that replace the surface epithelium after menstruation

Question 58

The release of lipid droplets from cells is which type of secretion?

Answer 58

Apocrine

Question 59

With the transmission electron microscope skeletal muscle fibers can be seen to contain structures called triads. What do the two lateral components of a triad represent?

Answer 59

Sites for calcium sequestration and release

When the muscle is stimulated, calcium ions are released from its store inside the sarcoplasmic reticulum, into the sarcoplasm (muscle ). … The two terminal cistemae of the SR together with their associated T tubule are known as a triad.

Question 60

Resolution in electron microscopy greatly exceeds that of light microscopy due to which of the following?

A

Answer 60

The wavelength of the electrons in the microscope beam is shorter than that of a beam of light.

Question 61

Osteoarthritis is characterized by the progressive erosion of articular cartilage. The matrix metalloproteinases involved in this erosion primarily act on which matrix component?

Answer 61

Fibril-forming collagen

Question 62

Which biochemical component of the erythrocyte cell surface is primarily responsible for determining blood type (eg, the A-B-O system).

Answer 62

carbohy

Question 63

sulfated GAGs are important constituents of what extracellular structures?

Answer 63

Proteoglycans

Because GAGs are highly polar and attract water, they are used in the body as a lubricant or shock absorber. Mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of metabolic disorders in which abnormal accumulations of glycosaminoglycans occur because of enzyme deficiencies.

Question 64

What term applies to collections of neuronal cell bodies (somata) in the central nervous system?

Answer 64

nuclei

Question 65

Dense regular connective tissue typically involves which of the following features?

Answer 65

Predominantly located in tendons and ligaments

Question 66

the basal lamina of a muscle fiber is part of which structure?

Answer 66

Endomysium

Question 67

Which area in cartilage is relatively collagen-poor and proteoglycan-rich?

he darker staining matrix immediately surrounding the capsule is called territorial matrix , while the matrix that occupies the majority of space between chondrocytes is interterritorial matrix .

Answer 67

Territorial matrix

Note that the cartilage matrix is relatively homogeneous and basophilic. This is due to the masking of the collagen fibers by the high concentration of the glycosaminoglycans in the ground substance. The matrix immediately surrounding the lacunae is more intensely basophilic. This zone is the territorial matrix.

Question 68

Which function is carried out by all lymphoid tissues and organs?

NOT
Filtration of lymph

Answer 68

Production of lymphocytes

Question 69

A 46-year-old woman presents with pain in the left leg that worsens on weight bearing. An x-ray shows demineralization, and a bone biopsy decalcified with EDTA shows reduction in bone quantity. The patient had undergone menopause at age 45 without estrogen replacement. She reports long-standing diarrhea. In addition, laboratory tests show low levels of vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus, and elevated alkaline phosphatase. A second bone biopsy was taken but not decalcified, which showed extensive deposition of uncalcified osteoid on all the bone surfaces. On the basis of these data, the best diagnosis would be which of the following

Answer 69

Osteomalacia

D
Rickets

Question 70

A smear of blood from a 70-year-old leukemia patient reveals a larger than normal population of cells that have large, round nuclei with one or two nucleoli. The cytoplasm of these cells shows azurophilic granules. Which of the following forms of leukemia would you suspect?

A

Answer 70

Promyelocytic leukemia

Question 71

Ten days after birth a full-term newborn boy develops firm, erythematous nodules, and plaques over his trunk, arms, buttocks, thighs, and cheeks. His mother’s pregnancy was complicated by placenta previa and his airway was cleared of aspirated meconium immediately after birth. A biopsy of subcutaneous tissue shows necrosis within the brown adipose tissue. What metabolic activity is liable to be affected in this patient?

Answer 71

Oxidation of fatty acids for thermogenesis

Question 72

Which cell type comprises the visceral layer of Bowman capsule?

Answer 72

podocytes

Question 73

Which feature is typical of elastic cartilage?

Answer 73

Collagen is mainly type II

Question 74

dding heavy metal compounds to the fixative and ultrathin sectioning of the embedded tissue with a glass knife are techniques used for which histologic procedure?

Answer 74

TEM

Question 75

Binding of histone H1 proteins to importins is important for which of the following?

Answer 75

A

Transport through the nuclear pores complexes

Question 76

In preparing tissue for routine light microscopic study, which procedure immediately precedes clearing the specimen with an organic solvent?

Answer 76

Dehydration

Question 77

Which description is true of pancreatic zymogens?

Answer 77

Are inactive until they reach the duodenal lumen

Question 78

Urinalysis shows elevated levels of desmosine and isodesmosine. These excreted compounds normally contribute to efficient lung function by which of the following mechanisms?

Answer 78

Cross-linking elastin

Question 79

The mucosa and submucosa are poorly preserved, with only the thick muscularis well-stained, showing striated fibers. The slide most likely shows a biopsy of which region of the GI tract?

Answer 79

Esophagus

Question 80

Epithelial cell membrane domains containing many stiffened plaques of protein are an important feature in which part of the urinary system?

Answer 80

Bladder mucosa

Question 81

What is the earliest stage at which specific granulocyte types can be distinguished from one another?
NOT
Band form

C
Reticulocyte

D
Metamyelocyte

E
Promyelocyte

Answer 81

Myelocyte

Question 82

he teniae coli of the large intestine represent an organ-specific specialization of which layer of the intestinal tract wall?

A
Epithelium

B
Lamina propria

C
Muscularis mucosa

D

Answer 82

Muscularis externa

Question 83

A parotid gland biopsy shows inflammatory infiltrates in the interlobular connective tissue with damage to the acinar cells and striated ducts. In this case, resorption of which of the following will be most altered by destruction of those ducts?

Answer 83

A

Na+

Question 84

An individual genetically unable to synthesize normal occludin is likely to have epithelia with defective regulation in which of the following?

Answer 84

Material crossing the epithelium between the cells (paracellular movement)

Question 85

Which component of bone impedes the distribution of nutrients and oxygen to osteocytes?

A

Answer 85

ECM

Question 86

Which of the following is found during meiosis but not mitosis?

Answer 86

Synapsis

Question 87

Which of the following accurately describes spermiogenesis?

C

Answer 87

Involves cytodifferentiation of early spermatids

Question 88

A healthy 32-year-old man lifts weights regularly as part of his workout. In one of his biceps muscle fibers at rest, the length of the I band is 1.0 μm and the A band is 1.5 μm. Contraction of that muscle fiber results in a 10% shortening of the length of the sarcomere. What is the length of the A band after the shortening produced by muscle contraction?

A

Answer 88

1.50 μm

Question 89

A report from a hospital pathology laboratory indicates that a microscope slide with a small specimen of neural tissue contains “numerous GFAP-positive” cells. What is the most likely source of this specimen?

Answer 89

A region of gray matter

Question 90

Question 174 of 230
Which description is true for the hepatic space of Disse?

NOT
Is surrounded by the hepatic sinusoid

B
Contents flow toward the central vein

C

D
Lumen sealed by junctional complexes

Answer 90

Is directly contacted by hepatocytes

Question 91

Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for inducing ovulation?

LH

Answer 91

LH

Question 92

Which cell type has cytoplasmic granules that contain heparin and histamine?

Answer 92

B

Basophils

Question 93

Which part of meiosis is most closely associated with recombination?

Answer 93

Prophase I

Question 94

What substance, released from the adrenal gland and some autonomic neurons, increases lipolytic activity in white adipocytes?

Answer 94

Norepinephrine

Question 95

In healthy bone canaliculi are likely to contain which one of the following?

Answer 95

Osteocytic processes

Question 96

The hormone-sensitive lipase in the cells of adipose tissue acts primarily on what substrate?

Answer 96

Triglycerides

Question 97

Which description is accurate for lens fibers?

Answer 97

Derived from epithelial cells that produce proteins called crystallins

Question 98

Which characteristic is unique to smooth muscle?

Answer 98

Thin filaments attach to dense bodies

Question 99

A young child presents with hepatomegaly and renomegaly, failure to thrive, stunted growth, and hypoglycemia. A deficiency in glucose-6-phosphatase is identified and the diagnosis of von Gierke disease is made. What cellular structures would be expected to accumulate in hepatocytes during progression of this disorder?

Answer 99

B

Glycogen granules

Question 100

A 45-year-old man presents with nephrolithiasis or kidney stones. The process of calcium oxalate stone formation as seen in this patient begins with Randall plaques found in the basement membranes of which one of the following structures found only in the renal medulla?

Answer 100

Collecting ducts

Question 101

Air moving rapidly across the vocal cords and causing them to vibrate and produce sound is contacting what type of epithelium?

Answer 101

Stratified squamous nonkeratinized

Question 102

Which of the following is true of the absorptive cells of the small intestine?

Answer 102

Synthesize triglycerides from absorbed lipids

Question 103

A renal biopsy is prepared for light microscopy, and an infiltrate containing lymphocytes, plasma cells, and eosinophils is found among tubules having cells with prominent brush borders. Which one of the following statements correctly pertains to these epithelial cells?

Answer 103

The primary site for the reduction of the tubular fluid volume

Question 104

Which of the following is characteristic of the chromatophilic material called Nissl substance in neural tissue?

Answer 104

Site of mRNA translation for proteins of the axolemma

Question 105

In a liver biopsy from a long-time drug user which of the following hepatocyte organelles would be expected to be more extensive than normal?

Answer 105

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 106

A 14-year-old boy is diagnosed with epidermolysis bullosa simplex (EBS). His skin blisters easily with rubbing or scratching. Blisters occur primarily on his hands and feet and heal without leaving scars. Genetic analysis shows mutations in the KRT5 and KRT14 genes, which code keratin 5 and keratin 14. What is the primary function of those proteins?

Answer 106

Provide mechanical stability

Question 107

Question 203 of 230
Key differences between apoptotic and necrotic cell death include which of the following?

A

Answer 107

Apoptotic cells do not release factors that induce inflammation.

Question 108

The molecular basis for the shock absorbing properties of cartilage involves which of the following?

Answer 108

Hydration of glycosaminoglycans

Question 109

A 42-year-old woman visits her physician complaining of recurrent vaginal yeast infections. The doctor explains the likelihood that the woman’s vaginal lining is temporarily out of proper acid-base balance, leading to the increased susceptibility to yeast infections. The normally low pH in the vagina is maintained by which of the following?

Answer 109

Bacterial metabolism of glycogen to produce an organic acid

Question 110

To identify and localize a specific protein within cells or the ECM, one would best use what approach?

Answer 110

Immunohistochemistry

Question 111

Mitotic figures visible in a tissue section from the lining of the small intestine are most likely to belong to which of the following categories?

Answer 111

Progenitor cells

Question 112

Autoantibodies are detected against a cell type located in one region of the GI tract. In which regions would those cells be found?

What stomach cells produce intrinsic factor? and where located?

Answer 112

Body of the stomach

parietal. In humans, it has an important role in the absorption of vitamin B12

Question 113

protein connexin

Answer 113

gap junctions

Question 114

A 39-year-old man undergoing an extensive series of tests for infertility is found to have a genetic mutation preventing formation of a functional synaptonemal complex during meiosis, causing almost complete failure of sperm formation. Which cells would be directly affected by this mutation?

A

Answer 114

Primary spermatocytes

This is when they are reduced -

What does the Synaptonemal complex do in meiosis?
The synaptonemal complex (SC) is a protein structure that forms between homologous chromosomes (two pairs of sister chromatids) during meiosis and is thought to mediate synapsis and recombination during meiosis I in eukaryotes.

Question 115

Which cells transmit visual signals from the retina to the brain?

Answer 115

Ganglion cells

Question 116

Which structure is the most anterior extension of the eye’s vascular layer?

Answer 116

Iris

Question 117

Question 218 of 230
A 15-year-old male presents with hematuria, hearing loss, lens dislocation, and the onset of cataracts. Genetic analysis reveals a mutation in the COL4A5 gene. Transmission EM examination of a renal biopsy confirms that the disorder has affected a component of the renal corpuscles in which damage disrupts normal glomerular filtration. Which one of the following structures would most likely be abnormal in the TEM of this patient’s biopsy?

D

Answer 117

Glomerular basement membranes??

Question 118

Secretion, chemical modification and storage, reuptake, and digestion of a protein occur in epithelial cells of what endocrine tissue?

Thyroid gland

Answer 118

thyroid gland

Question 119

A baby is born with a cleft palate and a condition called DiGeorge syndrome, which involves failure of third and fourth pharyngeal pouch derivatives to develop properly. The palate defect is corrected surgically, but regarding the pharyngeal pouch defect the parents are advised that the growing child may expect which of the following health problems?

Answer 119

Conditions related to autoimmunity

Question 120

Which structure would be most heavily labeled by an immunohistochemical method targeting the CD8 surface antigen?

Answer 120

paracortex

Question 121

Which of the following contains binding sites for integrins and is an important part of the ECM in both loose connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue?

Answer 121

fibronectin

FN is involved in many cellular processes, including cell adhesion, growth, migration, and differentiation.

Question 122

hair cells for color where located?

Answer 122

The hair matrix (zone of dividing and differentiating cells) of the hair bulb

Question 123

Applied to adipocytes, the term “multilocular” refers to which of the following?

A
The large number of small cytoplasmic lipid droplets

Answer 123

The large number of small cytoplasmic lipid droplets

Question 124

In which of the following cells involved in erythropoiesis does hemoglobin synthesis begin?

Answer 124

Basophilic erythroblast

Question 125

Microscopic autoradiography uses radioactivity and can be employed to study what features in a tissue section?

Answer 125

Cellular sites where various macromolecules are synthesized

Question 126

hey have developed a novel peptide-based drug, potentially deliverable therapeutically, that disrupts the tumor cells’ ability to adhere to the ECM, which in turn triggers apoptosis. Which of the following is a most likely target of such drugs?

Answer 126

Integrins

Question 127

In which of the following structures is perilymph normally found?

Answer 127

Scala tympani

Question 128

The mitochondrial protein, Bax, promotes apoptosis by binding and inactivating which anti-apoptotic protein?

BCL-2 family proteins are the regulators of apoptosis, but also have other functions. This family of interacting partners includes inhibitors and inducers of cell death. Together they regulate and mediate the process by which mitochondria contribute to cell death known as the intrinsic apoptosis pathway.

Answer 128

BAX vs Bcl2

Bax and Bak are two nuclear-encoded proteins present in higher eukaryotes that are able to pierce the mitochondrial outer membrane to mediate cell death by apoptosis. Thus, organelles recruited by nucleated cells to supply energy can be recruited by Bax and Bak to kill cells.

Question 129

How does Bcl 2 prevent apoptosis?

Answer 129

The anti-apoptotic members of this family, such as Bcl-2 and Bcl-XL, prevent apoptosis either by sequestering proforms of death-driving cysteine proteases called caspases (a complex called the apoptosome) or by preventing the release of mitochondrial apoptogenic factors such as cytochrome c and AIF (apoptosis-inducing

Question 130

centriole

Answer 130

is a cylindrical organelle composed mainly of a protein called tubulin. Centrioles are found in most eukaryotic cells. A bound pair of centrioles, surrounded by a highly ordered mass of dense material, called the pericentriolar material, makes up a structure called a centrosome.

Question 131

centrosomes - during mitosis - two form - these “zomes” (zones) control the mitotic spindle

Answer 131

they go to the far ends and pull the sister chromatids aparts - out of them comes a ton of + pointed microtubules pulling the sisters apart - plus end, minus end a and b - tubules 13 around

Question 132

cytoskeleton - 3

Answer 132

actin filaments (determine shape)

intermediate (structure of cell)

microtubules - organizing

Question 133

mitotic spindle - tubulin beta end is plus end - grows more here

Answer 133

made of microtubules - hollow tubular structure - 13 protofilaments - dimer - alpha beta tubulin

Question 134

microtubules grow out of MTOC

Answer 134

microtubule organizing center - located near nucleus - called CENTROSOME

Question 135

Pair CENTRIOLES in each centrosome - at right angles, 9 triplets

minus ends plugged into centrosome, plus ends reach out

Answer 135

microtubules during mitosis - grow out from centrosomes - grab the sisters

Question 136

Apoptosis vs necrosis

Answer 136

apop - no inflamation, programmed

BAK, BAX - destroy
BCL (2 types) BROCOLI - keep apoptosis from happening

BAK makes holes in cells - releases - cytochrome C - > caspases

intrinsic pathway - re above

Extrinsic - two ways

FAS

Cytotoxic C cells - GRANzyme - Perforin

Question 137

DesMin - muscle

ViMEntin

Answer 137

mesenchymal - fibroblasts, endothelial, macrophages

Question 138

Gfap

Answer 138

Glial cells - astocytes, Schwann, oligodendrocytes (most numerous)

Question 139

Tight junctions

Answer 139

claudins, occludins

Question 140

adherens - BELT - CADhereins

Answer 140

CA dependent ADhension protein CAD

Question 141

Desmosomes - spot - macula adherens - Intermediate filament

Answer 141

pemphigus vulgaris

Question 142

GAP junctions - CONNECONS

Answer 142

permit electrical and chem communication between cells

Question 143

Hemidesmosome - connects Keratin in basal cells to basement

Answer 143

BULLous pemphigoid (hemides are BULLow

Question 144

Integrins - bind to COLLAGEN, LAMININ, and FIBRONECTIC in basement membrane -

Answer 144

maintain INTEGRITY of basolateral membrane

Question 145

3 types of cartilage -

There are three different types of cartilage: elastic (A), hyaline (B), and fibrous (C). In elastic cartilage the cells are closer together creating less intercellular space. Elastic cartilage is found in the external ear flaps and in parts of the larynx. … Fibrous cartilage is found in the spine and the menisci.

Answer 145

There are three types of cartilage: hyaline, fibrous, and elastic cartilage.

Hyaline cartilage is the most widespread type and resembles glass. In the embryo, bone begins as hyaline cartilage and later ossifies. Fibrous cartilage has many collagen fibers and is found in the intervertebral discs and pubic symphysis

Question 146

EAlastic cartilge

Answer 146

EAR

Question 147

Fibrous cartilage? Structurally intermediate between dense connective tissue and cartilage

Answer 147

spine and menici - and pubic symphysis

Question 148

growth plate cartilage? Hyaline

Answer 148

The epiphyseal plate is the area of growth in a long bone. It is a layer of hyaline cartilage where ossification occurs in immature bones. On the epiphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate, cartilage is formed. On the diaphyseal side, cartilage is ossified, and the diaphysis grows in length.

Question 149

eye’s tunica fibrosa?

Answer 149

cornea

Question 150

Which structures consist primarily of actin or actin-like proteins? think Muscle, actin, myosin

One of the most important roles of microfilaments is to contract muscles. There is a high concentration of microfilaments in muscle cells, where they form myofibrils, the basic unit of the muscle cell. … In muscle cells, actin works together with the protein myosin to allow the muscles to contract and relax.

Answer 150

microfilaments -
Microfilaments assist with cell movement and are made of a protein called actin. Actin works with another protein called myosin to produce muscle movements, cell division, and cytoplasmic streaming. Microfilaments keep organelles in place within the cell.

Question 151

cilia structure 9 + 2

Answer 151

Cilia and flagella are projections from the cell. They are made up of microtubules

Cilia and flagella have a core composed of microtubules that are connected to the plasma membrane and arranged in what is known as a 9 + 2 pattern. … Movement is produced when the nine paired microtubule sets of the axoneme slide against one another causing cilia and flagella to bend.

Question 152

Which vessels lie at the border between the renal cortex and medulla?

A

Answer 152

Arcuate arteries and veins

Question 153

Which cells are the primary cellular components of the stroma of the splenic lymphoid nodules?

Answer 153

reticular

Question 154

crystalline nucleoid (dense core) of peroxisomes is composed of which substance?

Answer 154

urate oxidase

Question 155

Which of the following is true of glucocorticoids?

The adrenal cortex comprises three zones, or layers: Zona glomerulosa (outer), Zona fasciculata and Zona reticularis. The outermost layer, the zona glomerulosa, is the main site for production of mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone.

Answer 155

Are produced in response to stimulation by ACTH

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is a hormone produced in the anterior, or front, pituitary gland in the brain. The function of ACTH is to regulate levels of the steroid hormone cortisol, which released from the adrenal gland. ACTH is also known as: adrenocorticotropic hormone.

Question 156

Which feature typifies tropocollagen?

Answer 156

found in ECM Tropocollagen is the basic structural unit of collagen,

Question 157

(ECM)

Answer 157

is a three-dimensional network of extracellular macromolecules, such as collagen, enzymes, and glycoproteins, that provide structural and biochemical support to surrounding cells.

Question 158

Which feature of skeletal muscle is most directly proportionate to the strength of contraction?

Answer 158

fiber diameter

NOT size of motor unit!

Question 159

Which hormone is most responsible for increasing osteoclast number and activity?

Answer 159

PTH

Question 160

Which protein anchors the nuclear pore complex in the nuclear envelope?

A

Answer 160

gp210

Question 161

Which cell-cycle phase is the longest and most variable in continuously dividing cells?

Answer 161

G1

Question 162

source of Kupffer cells.

Answer 162

mesoderm

Question 163

Which feature typifies dendrites?

Answer 163

may contain nissi bodies

is a large granular body found in neurons. These granules are of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) with rosettes of free ribosomes, and are the site of protein synthesis.

Question 164

parietal cells secrete? in BODY (fundus)

Answer 164

gastric acid, i.e. hydrochloric acid and secrete intrinsic factor, which is a vitamin B12-binding protein.

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrinoma) involves a hypersecreting tumor of the δ cells in the pancreatic islets of Langerhans (21.III.C). The tumor cells secrete excess gastrin, which causes excess HCl release by the parietal cells in the gastric mucosa. Excess HCl secretion is a common cause of duodenal ulcers.

Gastric chief cells are less directly responsive to gastrin secretion; moreover, without adequate HCl, the pepsinogen they secrete cannot be converted to the active proteolytic enzyme known as pepsin (15.VI.B.5.b).

Paneth’s cells secrete lysozyme, an antibacterial enzyme, and occur mainly in the ileum (15.VII.B.6).

Excess secretion by duodenal goblet cells is more likely to protect against ulceration than to cause it (15.VII.B.4).

Pancreatic acinar cells (16.III.B.1) and δ cells (21.III.C) are not components of the digestive tract mucosa.

Question 165

Which process best accounts for the pale staining of the germinal centers of lymphoid nodules?

Answer 165

Blast transformation

Question 166

tubuloacinar glands

Answer 166

Examples include secretory cells of the salivary glands, esophageal glands, stomach surface, pyloric glands, and Brunner’s glands of the duodenum. These cells are typically organized into tubular secretory units

Question 167

Which description is true of the muscularis mucosa of the upper esophagus?

Answer 167

Innervated by postganglionic autonomic fibers

Question 168

cck Is produced by enteroendocrine cells in the intestinal mucosa

Answer 168

Cholecystokinin plays a key role in facilitating digestion within the small intestine. It is secreted from mucosal epithelial cells in the first segment of the small intestine (duodenum), and stimulates delivery into the small intestine of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the gallbladder.

Question 169

What effect does colchicine use in gout and cancer chemotherapy have on adult neurons?

Gout is caused by too much uric acid in the blood. When uric acid levels in the blood are too high, the uric acid may form hard crystals in your joints. Colchicine works by decreasing swelling and lessening the build up of uric acid crystals that cause pain in the affected joint(s).

Answer 169

Inhibits axonal regeneration - lessening the build up of uric acid crystals

Colchicine is a classical anti-mitotic drug which blocks mitotic cells in metaphase. It binds to soluble tubulin to form tubulin-colchicine complexes in a poorly reversible manner, which then binds to the ends of microtubules to prevent the elongation of the microtubule polymer

Question 170

Which hormone, produced by the adrenal medulla, and by certain autonomic neurons, has a dramatic lipolytic effect in adipose tissue?

Leptin is a hormone predominantly made by adipose cells and enterocytes in the small intestine that helps to regulate energy balance by inhibiting hunger, which in turn diminishes fat storage in adipocytes.

Answer 170

leptin

a hormone predominantly made by adipose cells and enterocytes in the small intestine that helps to regulate energy balance by inhibiting hunger, which in turn diminishes fat storage in adipocytes.

Leptin is a hormone released from fat cells in adipose tissue. Leptin signals to the brain, in particular to an area called the hypothalamus. Leptin does not affect food intake from meal to meal but, instead, acts to alter food intake and control energy expenditure over the long term.

Question 171

brain sand - May serve as a landmark for radiologists

Answer 171

calcified structures in the pineal gland and other areas of the brain such as the choroid plexus. Older organisms have numerous corpora arenacea, whose function, if any, is unknown.

Question 172

Which collagen type occurs only in hypertrophic cartilage?

Answer 172

X Zone of hypertrophy: Chrondrocytes and their lacunae increase in size. Zone of calcification: Deposition of minerals in the matrix surrounding the enlarged lacunae causing cell death. Zone of ossification: Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix on the exposed plates of calcified cartilage.

Question 173

What are the two types of cartilage growth?

Answer 173

Interstitial growth which includes: Cell division of the chondrocytes. Synthesis of the extracellular matrix. …

Appositional growth which includes: Differentiation of the chondroblasts or perichondrial cells. Synthesis of the extracellular matrix.

As the inner cartilage hypertrophies and the ossification front extends farther outward, the remaining cartilage in the epiphyseal growth plate proliferates. As long as the epiphyseal growth plates are able to produce chondrocytes, the bone continues to grow.

Question 174

Nondisjunction (failure of chromosomes to separate normally) during the first meiotic division in the seminiferous epithelium results in abnormal numbers of chromosomes in which cell type?

Answer 174

secondary spermatocyte

Question 175

Which structure forms the border between the eye’s anterior and posterior chambers?

Answer 175

iris

Question 176

B-cell derivatives.

Answer 176

gamma globulins are one

nteraction of a B-cell with antigen results in clonal expansion, as does activation by T-cells. The majority of B-cell clones mature into plasma cells. Plasma cells are found in the splenic red pulp, lymph node medulla and bone marrow. Plasma cells are the terminal differentiation state of B-cells.

Question 177

Sensory nerve fibers enter arteries through the adventitia and extend further. As far as which layer do they penetrate?

Answer 177

tunica intima

Question 178

Which description is true of the retina’s pigmented epithelium?

Answer 178

Derives from the outer wall of the embryonic optic cup

Question 179

Where is type IV collagen found?

Answer 179

Collagen IV is the primary collagen found in the extracellular basement membranes separating a variety of epithelial and endothelial cells. It is a major component of the dermal–epidermal junction, where it is mostly found in the lamina densa.

Question 180

multilocular. adipose produces heat

Answer 180

White fat cell and brown fat cell. … The lipid droplets in adipose tissue can be unilocular and/or multilocular. Unilocular cells contain a single large lipid droplet which pushes the cell nucleus against the plasma membrane, giving the cell a signet-ring shape

Question 181

null cells examples

NK cells are part of a group of lymphocytes called null cells. Unlike other lymphocytes, such as T and B cells, they do not have to find their specific match to identify an invader. … They are ‘null’ of both specificity and memory, allowing them the freedom to react to any tumor cell or cell infected with a virus.

Answer 181

Non–T, non–B, lymphocytes

A null cell is a large agranular lymphocyte that develops inside the bone marrow. Null cells lack the common characteristic surface markers that can be found in mature B-cells and T-cells.

Question 182

absorptive cells of the small intestine

Answer 182

Synthesize triglycerides from absorbed lipids

Question 183

In which location are mitotic figures most likely to be found?

A

Answer 183

Neck of the stomach’s fundic glands

Mucous neck cells are found in the upper parts (isthmus and neck) of the gastric glands (SEM). They are smaller than surface mucous cells. They secrete an acidic fluid containing mucin proteins. This differs from the mucus produced by surface mucous cells which is alkaline.

Question 184

Which structures form the purse-string constriction at the equator of mitotic cells?

Answer 184

Microfilaments

Cell division begins along the cell’s equator, between the two chromosomal poles that form during nuclear division. Microfilaments help the cell lay down new membrane and divide into two daughter cells.

Question 185

Which cells contain abundant basal mitochondria between infoldings of the basal plasma membrane?

A

Answer 185

Ion-transporting cells

Question 186

What are Rathke cleft cysts?

Answer 186

Rathke cleft cysts (RCCs) are benign (non-cancerous) fluid-filled growths that develop between the parts of the pituitary gland at the base of the brain. T

Question 187

Which description is true of the wall of the stomach

Answer 187

Three layers of skeletal muscle in the muscularis externa

Question 188

Which description is true of type-III cells of taste buds?

Answer 188

Are innervated by several sensory fibers

Question 189

Proprioceptor

Answer 189

a sensory receptor which receives stimuli from within the body, especially one that responds to position and movement.

Question 190

Which description is true of thick filaments?

Answer 190

Contain ATPase

ATPases are a class of enzymes that catalyze the decomposition of ATP into ADP and a free phosphate ion or the inverse reaction. This dephosphorylation reaction releases energy, which the enzyme harnesses to drive other chemical reactions that would not otherwise occur.

Question 191

A decrease in the number of neutrophils in which compartment acts as a potent stimulus for neutrophilopoiesis?

Neutrophils in the blood stream can be divided into circulating granulocyte pool (CGP) and marginating granulocytic pool (MGP). The white blood cell count reflects the cells in the circulating pool. The cells in the marginating pool move quickly into the circulating pool when needed.

Answer 191

A
Circulating compartment

After maturation in the bone marrow, neutrophils are stored, awaiting release into the circulation. To exit the bone marrow, the neutrophils have to migrate across the bone marrow endothelium that separates the marrow from the circulation.

Question 192

left shift?

Answer 192

Increase in band neutrophils, immature, can mean an infection or disease

Question 193

hemophilia- what clotting factor

Answer 193

VIII

Question 194

Which protein is more likely to inhibit the rapid growth of a malignant tumor?

Answer 194

Angiostatin

It is an endogenous angiogenesis inhibitor (i.e., it blocks the growth of new blood vessels).

Question 195

Hassall’s corpuscles - medulla - hormone secretor? unclear

Answer 195

(or thymic corpuscles (bodies)) are structures found in the medulla of the human thymus, formed from eosinophilic type VI epithelial reticular cells arranged concentrically.

Question 196

thymic cortex?

The functional blood-thymus barrier consists of epithelial reticular cells, their basal laminae, and endothelial cells joined by tight junctions. This barrier keeps antigens in blood vessels from entering the thymus, preventing reaction with developing T-cells.

Answer 196

Site of the blood–thymus barrier
The blood–thymus barrier is a functional and selective barrier separating T-lymphocytes from blood and cortical capillaries. In the cortex, capillaries, which are rarely fenestrated, form the barrier together with perivascular lymphocytes, macrophages, and reticular epithelia cells.

Question 197

thyroid in embryology

Answer 197

one of first endocrine glands in fetus to start working - as need these things to develop

Question 198

Which structures consist primarily of actin or actin-like proteins?

Answer 198

microfilaments

Question 199

Which feature is true of the uterine tube’s ampulla but not of its isthmus?

Answer 199

Contains large, branched mucosal folds

Question 200

Peg cells in fallopian tubes do what?

Answer 200

The peg cells capacitate spermatozoa, making them capable of fertilizing an ovum in the ampulla. Nutrients secreted by the peg cells aid in maintenance of the spermatozoa and the ovum.

Question 201

Which description is true of the lens fibers?

Answer 201

Contain abundant proteins called crystallins

Question 202

Identify the cell type that exhibits both exocrine and endocrine secretory activity.

Answer 202

Hepatocyte

Question 203

Which of the following comprises every third amino acid in collagen?

Answer 203

Glycine

Question 204

Which enzyme is used during DNA cloning procedures to isolate specific genes by cutting DNA at specific nucleotide sequences?

Answer 204

Restriction nuclease

Question 205

Which structure is typically found in the connective tissue of a portal triad?

Portal triads are composed of three major tubes. Branches of the hepatic artery carry oxygenated blood to the hepatocytes, while branches of the portal vein carry blood with nutrients from the small intestine. The bile duct carries bile products away from the hepatocytes, to the larger ducts and gall bladder.

Answer 205

Branch of the hepatic artery

A distinctive component of a hepatic lobule, found running along each of the lobule’s corners, that consists of branches of the hepatic artery proper, hepatic portal vein and bile ducts, as well as other structures.

Question 206

serous demilunes?

Answer 206

Produce lysozyme

escents of Giannuzzi or Demilunes of Heidenhain, are cellular formations in the shape of a half-moon on some salivary glands. Serous demilunes are the serous cells at the distal end of mucous tubuloalveolar secretory unit of certain salivary glands

Question 207

Which structures comprise the placenta?

A

Answer 207

Decidua basalis and chorion frondosum

Question 208

Identify the source of goblet cells.

Answer 208

endoderm

Question 209

Which cell type typically releases its lysosomal contents into the extracellular space?

Answer 209

osteoclasts

Question 210

Which feature is true of both endocrine and exocrine glands?

Answer 210

Have secretory cells that derive from lining epithelia

Question 211

Which term is used to designate the short oligonucleotide sequences that hybridize to the beginning and ending portions of DNA sequences targeted for rapid copying using the polymerase chain reaction?

Answer 211

primer

Question 212

Which cell type typically contains the largest and most easily visualized nucleolus?

Answer 212

Proerythroblast

Question 213

he production of which hormone is influenced by visual stimuli?

Answer 213

Melatonin is a hormone primarily released by the pineal gland that regulates the sleep–wake cycle.

Question 214

CCK produced?

Answer 214

Is produced by enteroendocrine cells in the intestinal mucosa

stimulates delivery into the small intestine of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the gallbladder.

Question 215

Which structure surrounds a muscle fascicle?

Answer 215

Perimysium

Question 216

The patient’s loose teeth reflect the importance of diet in providing a cofactor for enzymes that hydroxylate which amino acids?

Answer 216

Lysine and proline

Question 217

In which order do the phases of intrauterine hematopoiesis occur?

Answer 217

Primordial, hepatosplenothymic, medullolymphatic

Question 218

Which cell type surrounds neuronal perikarya located in ganglia?

Answer 218

satellite cells

Question 219

The intense basophilia of the capsular matrix in hyaline cartilage is caused mainly by the synthetic activity of which chondrocyte organelle?

B

Answer 219

Golgi complex

Question 220

Which term applies to the connective tissue sheath surrounding each seminiferous tubule?

Answer 220

Tunica propria

Question 221

On which cellular component is protein synthesis initiated?

Answer 221

Free polyribosomes

Question 222

The pulmonary (functional) and bronchial (nutrient) arterial systems enter the lungs separately through the hilus but anastomose into a single system at which level?

Answer 222

Respiratory bronchiole

Question 223

Which feature typifies dense regular connective tissue?

Answer 223

TENDONS

Question 224

Which feature typifies the zonula occludens?

A

Answer 224

Fusion of the outer leaflets of adjacent trilaminar unit membranes into one pentalaminar unit

Question 225

Hormones produced by the pituitary gland

Answer 225

Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Luteinising hormone (LH)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Prolactin (PRL)
Growth hormone (GH)
Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

Question 226

ACTH?

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is a hormone produced in the anterior, or front, pituitary gland in the brain. The function of ACTH is to regulate levels of the steroid hormone cortisol, which released from the adrenal gland. ACTH is also known as: adrenocorticotropic hormone.

Answer 226

Enhances the production of mineralocorticoids by the adrenal cortex

The outermost layer, the zona glomerulosa, is the main site for production of mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, that are largely responsible for the long-term regulation of blood pressure. … The major stimulus to produce aldosterone is angiotensin II, as ACTH from the pituitary only produces a transient effect

Question 227

Which organ has both adventitial and serosal coverings.

Answer 227

Ascending colon

Question 228

Which cell type produces and maintains all extracellular matrix components of connective tissue?

Answer 228

A

Fibroblast

Question 229

A cascade of interactions between which two tissues is primarily responsible for tooth formation?

C

Answer 229

Ectomesenchyme and epithelium

Question 230

Which organ typically contains the most goblet cells in the mucosa covering its villi?

Answer 230

Ileum

Question 231

Which of the following is true of synapses?

Answer 231

Contain some basal lamina in the synaptic cleft

Question 232

Which connective tissue component is a part of the extracellular matrix but not of the ground substance?

Answer 232

Collagen fibers

Question 233

Which of the following tests would provide the most reliable information for distinguishing among sickle cell disease, sickle cell trait, and other possible hemoglobinopathies?

C

Answer 233

Isoelectric focusing

Question 234

Which process occurs in response to the neural stimulation during suckling?

Answer 234

Contraction of the myometrium

Question 235

2-week history of frequent urination (every 1–2 hours) and excessive thirst.

Answer 235

Renal collecting ducts problem -

This patient’s frequent voiding of dilute urine (polyuria) and excessive thirst (polydipsia) are classic symptoms of diabetes insipidus (DI). The most common cause of DI is a chronic or temporary loss (or reduction) of the pars nervosa’s ability to produce arginine vasopressin (AVP), also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH; 20.IV.A.1), in response to a hypovolemic or hyperosmotic challenge. The normal-to-elevated levels of serum AVP, and the evidence of normal pituitary structure and function, indicate that factors regulating AVP production (including the pituitary and hypothalamus) are not affected in this case. Thus, the hormone’s target cells become candidates for the location of the lesion causing this patient’s symptoms. B

Question 236

Identify the source of the ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus.

Answer 236

neural crest

Question 237

Which procedure entails impregnating a specimen with a solvent of the embedding medium?

A

Answer 237

Clearing

Question 238

Antibiotic therapies that slow the replacement of the cells lining the small intestine may cause the loss of what tissue type?

Answer 238

simple columnar

Question 239

What is the function of the Fovea Centralis?

Thinnest part of the neural retina

Answer 239

The fovea is responsible for sharp central vision (also called foveal vision), which is necessary in humans for reading, driving, and any activity where visual detail is of primary importance.

Question 240

Which description is true of thin filaments?

Answer 240

Found in the A band

Actin filaments, the thin filaments, are the major component of the I-band and extend into the A-band. Myosin filaments, the thick filaments, are bipolar and extend throughout the A-band. They are cross-linked at the centre by the M-band.

Question 241

Which technique is most commonly used to locate glycogen in cells?

Answer 241

Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) reaction

Question 242

Which characteristic is unique to smooth muscle?

C

Answer 242

Thin filaments attach to dense bodies

Question 243

skin’s pale, clammy condition?

Answer 243

Reticular dermis

Hypovolemic shock caused by internal bleeding from liver trauma is strongly suggested in this case. The pale clammy skin reflects the reflex response to reduced venous return to the heart. This response involves the shunting of blood from peripheral vascular beds (e.g., skin) to vital internal organs to protect oxygen supply to the brain and heart (18.IV.D). The skin’s coolness and paleness is caused by the lack of blood in the papillary capillaries. Its moistness is caused by the consequent reduction in the evaporation of sweat (18.VIII.A.3) and by increased sweating in response to sympathetic stimulation of the sweat glands. Sympathetic stimulation also causes smooth muscle contraction in the metarterioles that feed the dermal capillaries and thus prevents blood from entering the capillary beds. This process increases the blood volume flowing directly from the arteries to the veins through arteriovenous anastomoses (shunts). The skin’s main arteriovenous anastomoses are located in the superficial and deep vascular plexuses at the borders between the reticular dermis and the papillary dermis and at the border between the reticular dermis and the hypodermis, res

Question 244

Which structure produces the eye’s aqueous humor?

Answer 244

ciliary body

Question 245

Which of the following is true of motile cilia?

Answer 245

Covered by plasma membrane

Question 246

Which hormone, produced by the adrenal medulla, and by certain autonomic neurons, has a dramatic lipolytic effect in adipose tissue?

Answer 246

Leptin

Question 247

When the oxygen tension in the blood of sickle cell anemia patients decreases, as it does at high altitudes, which of the following changes occurs?

Answer 247

Hematocrit values decrease owing to hemolysis

Question 248

Which description is true of the hepatic sinusoids?

Are surrounded by the space of Disse

Answer 248

Are surrounded by the space of Disse

Question 249

Which protein accumulates in cells in response to DNA damage ?

Answer 249

p53

Question 250

Leptin goes to what hypothalmus from ? why?

Answer 250

Leptin is a hormone released from fat cells in adipose tissue. Leptin signals to the brain, in particular to an area called the hypothalamus. Leptin does not affect food intake from meal to meal but, instead, acts to alter food intake and control energy expenditure over the long term.

Question 251

Which of the following is true of the Barr body?

Answer 251

Member of a homologous chromosome pair in normal females

Question 252

The basal lamina of a muscle fiber is a part of which structure?

Answer 252

endomesium

Question 253

Which description is true for sweat glands but not sebaceous glands?

Apocrine sweat glands, which are usually associated with hair follicles, continuously secrete a fatty sweat into the gland tubule. Emotional stress causes the tubule wall to contract, expelling the fatty secretion to the skin, where local bacteria break it down into odorous fatty acids

Answer 253

contain clear and dark cells

Eccrine glands are found all over the body and secrete a watery product that cools the skin. Apocrine sweat glands are mainly found in the armpits and perianal area, and secrete a more viscous, odorous product.

Question 254

Which feature typifies unmyelinated axons of the central nervous system?

Answer 254

Occur in gray matter and white matter

Question 255

Which filamentous protein winds around F-actin and lies in grooves in its surface?

Answer 255

Tropomyosin

Question 256

Which structure is partly lined by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

Answer 256

larynx

Question 257

Hypersecretion of dopamine by neurons of the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus is likely to elicit which effect?

A

Answer 257

Hyposecretion of prolactin

Question 258

Which collagen type occurs only in hypertrophic cartilage?

Answer 258

X during bone growth - chondrocyte differentiation pathway, and are essential for bone growth.

Question 259

Which type of epithelium lines the thin loop of Henle?

Answer 259

simple squamous

Question 260

Which cross-linked amino acid is characteristic of elastin?

Answer 260

A

Desmosine

Question 261

What shortens during muscle contraction?

When a muscle contracts, the actin is pulled along myosin toward the center of the sarcomere until the actin and myosin filaments are completely overlapped. In other words, for a muscle cell to contract, the sarcomere must shorten.

Answer 261

For a muscle cell to contract, the sarcomere must shorten. However, thick and thin filaments—the components of sarcomeres—do not shorten. Instead, they slide by one another, causing the sarcomere to shorten while the filaments remain the same length.

Question 262

Which description is true of the muscularis mucosa of the upper esophagus?

Answer 262

Innervated by postganglionic autonomic fibers

Question 263

Muscle contraction - great explanation

I and H shorten, z lines come closer together

Answer 263

When a sarcomere shortens, some regions shorten whereas others stay the same length. A sarcomere is defined as the distance between two consecutive Z discs or Z lines; when a muscle contracts, the distance between the Z discs is reduced. The H zone—the central region of the A zone—contains only thick filaments (myosin) and is shortened during contraction. The H zone becomes smaller and smaller due to the increasing overlap of actin and myosin filaments, and the muscle shortens. Thus when the muscle is fully contracted, the H zone is no longer visible. The I band contains only thin filaments and also shortens. The A band does not shorten—it remains the same length—but A bands of different sarcomeres move closer together during contraction, eventually disappearing. Thin filaments are pulled by the thick filaments toward the center of the sarcomere until the Z discs approach the thick filaments. The zone of overlap, in which thin filaments and thick filaments occupy the same area, increases as the thin filaments move inward.

Question 264

stomach zones

The pylorus, the lowest section of the stomach which attaches to the duodenum via the pyloric canal, contains countless glands which secrete digestive enzymes including gastrin. After an hour or two, a thick semi-liquid called chyme is produced.

Answer 264

The pylorus is the narrow region that connects the stomach to the duodenum. The cardia and pylorus contain branched coiled tubular glands that secrete mucus. In contrast, the mucosa of the fundus/body contains long, branched tubular gastric glands with several cell types that secrete substances that aid in digestion.

Question 265

fundus of stomach (body)

Answer 265

Pepsin is a proteolytic digestive enzyme (protease), thereby contributing to digestion. The distribution of the glandular epithelial constituents varies by region of the glandular stomach. The fundus contains large numbers of parietal cells, whereas the pylorus is rich in mucus cells but contains few parietal cells.

Question 266

Which collagen type predominates in hematopoietic tissues?

Answer 266

type 3 III

Question 267

Which description is true of the smooth muscles of the iris?

Answer 267

ectodermal origin

Question 268

Which fiber type forms a fine supportive network in the body’s soft tissues?

Answer 268

reticular fibers

Question 269

proliferative vs secretory stage

Answer 269

The progesterone surge of ovulation ends the proliferative phase, and the endometrium moves into the secretory (or luteal phase) of development. Under normal conditions the secretory phase is 14 days in length, and the endometrium moves through an orderly sequence of morphologic changes

Question 270

Which hormone is carried to its target(s) by the hypophyseal portal system?

Answer 270

The main hormones transported by the system include gonadotropin-releasing hormone, corticotropin-releasing hormone, growth hormone–releasing hormone, and thyrotropin-releasing hormone.

Question 271

What is Hypothalamo hypophyseal portal system?

GONADS

Answer 271

The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis (HPG axis) alludes to the connection between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and gonads. It is an important control mechanism mainly involved in the development and regulation of the reproductive system and immune system.Ja

Question 272

Which description is true of endosteum?

Answer 272

lines the marrow cavity

Question 273

Which feature typifies mucous connective tissue?

Answer 273

Is sometimes referred to as Wharton’s jelly

Question 274

Which pair of structures regulates the distribution of vesicles and organelles through their influence on microtubule polymerization?

A

Answer 274

Centrioles and satellite bodies

Question 275

Where is ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesized?

Answer 275

Nucleolus

Question 276

What sequence does membrane depolarization follow in skeletal muscle fibers after acetylcholine binds to its receptor?

Answer 276

Sarcolemma, T tubule, terminal cisternae, sarcoplasmic reticulum

Question 277

Which description is true of the cells lining striated ducts?

A

Answer 277

Have basal plasma membranes containing numerous infoldings

Question 278

Which bone marrow component increases in abundance as hematopoietic activity declines?

A

Answer 278

Adipocytes

Question 279

Which pituitary hormone maintains progesterone secretion in the corpus luteum of menstruation?

Answer 279

LH

Question 280

In which location are hepatocytes the first to be destroyed by hepatotoxic substances in the blood?

A

Answer 280

Zone I of hepatic acinus

Question 281

Which term refers to a large, fat-containing particle formed by the intestinal epithelium?

A

Answer 281

Chylomicron

Question 282

hich substance is an endocrine secretory product of the liver?

A
Albumin

B
Bile acids

C
Bilirubin glucuronide

D
Cholecystokinin

Answer 282

Albumin

Question 283

Which receptor class includes the olfactory epithelium?

A

Answer 283

Chemoreceptor

Question 284

Which structures are important components of axonemes?

Answer 284

microtubues - its the main

the central strand of a cilium or flagellum. It is composed of an array of microtubules, typically in nine pairs around two single central ones. this is an axoneme

Question 285

Which feature of brown adipose tissue is not shared by white or yellow adipose tissue?

Answer 285

can generate heat

Brown adipose tissue (BAT) or brown fat makes up the adipose organ together with white adipose tissue (or white fat). In addition to heat produced by shivering muscle, brown adipose tissue produces heat by non-shivering thermogenesis

Question 286

Which description is true of tears?

Answer 286

has lysosomes, lacrimal glands are paired, almond-shaped exocrine glands, one for each eye, that secrete the aqueous layer of the tear film. They are situated in the upper lateral region of each orbit, in the lacrimal fossa of the orbit formed by the frontal bone.

Question 287

Which description is true of ciliary muscle contraction?

contraction - viewing NEAR - lens thickens

Answer 287

pulls the muscle forward -

Contraction is to decrease the diameter of the ring of ciliary muscle causing relaxation of the zonule fibers, the lens becomes more spherical, increasing its power to refract light for near vision.

Question 288

Which histone is typically associated with the nucleosome’s linker region?

Answer 288

A

H1

Question 289

plasma vs serum

Which substance is present in higher concentrations in plasma than in serum?

Fibrinogen

plasma contains fibrinogen which is absent in serum. … Plasma on the other hand, is mostly used for blood-clotting related problems.

Answer 289

Serum and plasma both come from the liquid portion of the blood that remains once the cells are removed, but that’s where the similarities end. Serum is the liquid that remains after the blood has clotted. Plasma is the liquid that remains when clotting is prevented with the addition of an anticoagulant.

Question 290

Which organelle is the site of actin and tubulin synthesis?

Answer 290

Free polyribosomes

Question 291

Which cell type comprises the visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule?

Answer 291

Podocyte

Bowman’s capsule
The visceral layer is formed by podocytes – epithelial cells with pedicles surrounding glomerular capillaries.

Question 292

Which fibroblast secretion is synthesized mainly in the Golgi complex?

Answer 292

Glycosaminoglycan

Question 293

Which description is true of intramembranous bone formation?

Process by which the periosteal bone collar is formed

Answer 293

The direct conversion of mesenchymal tissue into bone is called intramembranous ossification. This process occurs primarily in the bones of the skull. … The process by which a cartilage intermediate is formed and replaced by bone cells is called endochondral ossification.

Question 294

Which description is true of pancreatic zymogens?

Are inactive until they reach the duodenal lumen

Answer 294

The pancreas secretes zymogens partly to prevent the enzymes from digesting proteins in the cells in which they are synthesised. Enzymes like pepsin are created in the form of pepsinogen, an inactive zymogen.

Question 295

Eye - 1) Tunica fibrosa

Answer 295

Cornea +
It is outer fibrous layer including sclera and cornea. … It is composed of 5 layers: corneal epithelium, Bowman’s membrane, corneal stroma, Descemet’s membrane, corneal endothelium.

Question 296

Which feature typifies resting-state axons?

Depolarization is caused when positively charged sodium ions rush into a neuron with the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels.

Transmission of a signal within a neuron (from dendrite to axon terminal) is carried by a brief reversal of the resting membrane potential called an action potential. When neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors located on a neuron’s dendrites, ion channels open

Answer 296

The K+ concentration inside the axon is greater than that outside the axon

n action potential is caused by either threshold or suprathreshold stimuli upon a neuron. It consists of four phases; hypopolarization, depolarization, overshoot, and repolarization. An action potential propagates along the cell membrane of an axon until it reaches the terminal button.

Question 297

Which cell type secretes lysozyme.

Answer 297

paneth cells

Question 298

different types of glands

Compound tubular glands are glands that have branched ducts. So the duct of a compound gland branches repeatedly. This in contrast to simple glands that consist of a single secretory passage / an unbranched common duct.

Answer 298

Depending on the shape of the secretory portions they can be further divided into:

Compound tubular glands e.g. in testis and kidney
Compound alveolar glands e.g. in pancreas
Compound tubulo-alveolar glands e.g. salivary gland (see image), mammary gland

Question 299

Which description is true of skeletal muscle myosin?

Answer 299

Head includes an actin-binding site

Question 300

Which cells contain secretory granules containing thymic hormones?

Answer 300

Epithelial reticular cells

Question 301

electron-transport system located?

Answer 301

Cristae

Question 302

Which pair of functions is associated with the Golgi complex?

NOT
Glycogen synthesis and packaging of secretions

Answer 302

Glycosylation and sulfation of secretory products

Question 303

Which cells produce cholecystokinin?

Answer 303

neural crest derived cells

Question 304

Which description is true of thymic epithelial reticular cells?

Answer 304

Components of the blood–thymus barrier

Question 305

After transecting an axon, which change occurs distal to the injury?

Answer 305

Complete axonal degeneration

Chromatolysis is the dissolution of the Nissl bodies in the cell body of a neuron. It is an induced response of the cell usually triggered by axotomy, ischemia, toxicity to the cell, cell exhaustion, virus infections, and hibernation in lower vertebrates.

Question 306

Which feature typifies specific granules?

Answer 306

Contain phagocytins or major basic protein

Question 307

The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

Is a specialized form of SER

Answer 307

is a membrane-bound structure found within muscle cells that is similar to the endoplasmic reticulum in other cells. The main function of the SR is to store calcium ions (Ca2+).

Question 308

Which structure has an epithelial lining in which cilia are present but goblet cells are absent?

Answer 308

Respiratory bronchiole

Question 309

Which of the following is true of Nissl bodies?

Answer 309

Undergo chromatolysis after injury

Question 310

kinetochore

Answer 310

a complex of proteins associated with the centromere of a chromosome during cell division, to which the microtubules of the spindle attach.

Question 311

Which feature is true of the cytotrophoblast but not of the syncytiotrophoblast?

Answer 311

Disappears during late pregnancy

Question 312

Where are the Krebs cycle enzymes and mitochondrial DNA located?

Answer 312

Mitochondrial matrix

Question 313

Which protein in the troponin complex inhibits the binding of myosin to actin?

Answer 313

Tnl - Tropomyosin blocks myosin binding sites on actin molecules, preventing cross-bridge formation, which prevents contraction in a muscle without nervous input. The protein complex troponin binds to tropomyosin, helping to position it on the actin molecule

Question 314

What are the 6 steps of muscle contraction?

Answer 314

Terms in this set (6)
Ca2+ release from SR terminal Cisterinae binding site exposure.
Myosin head binding to actin binding sites.
Release of ADP & Pi Causes power stoke.
ATP causes Myosin head to be released.
ATP is hydrolyzed, re-energizes the Myosin head.
Ca2+ pumped back into SR terminal cisterine.

Question 315

hypertonic filtrate?

Answer 315

allows water to filter thru

Question 316

steps in muscle contraction

Answer 316

The process of muscular contraction occurs over a number of key steps, including:
Depolarisation and calcium ion release.
Actin and myosin cross-bridge formation.
Sliding mechanism of actin and myosin filaments.
Sarcomere shortening (muscle contraction)

Question 317

Which structure is the site of secretory-protein core glycosylation?

Answer 317

RER

Question 318

Which protein anchors the nuclear pore complex in the nuclear envelope?

A

Answer 318

gp210

Question 319

oxiphil cells

Answer 319

In the parathyroid gland, the parathyroid oxyphil cell is larger and lighter staining than the parathyroid chief cell. These cells can be found in clusters in the center of the section and at the periphery. Oxyphil cells appear at the onset of puberty, but have no known function.

Question 320

Which structure is the smallest chromatin subunit in eukaryotic cells?

Answer 320

nucleosome

Question 321

does placenta release hormones?

Answer 321

Yes, after 12th week

Question 322

Which of the following is true of the fetal (provisional) adrenal cortex?

Answer 322

Produces sulfated androgens

Question 323

Ubiquitin

Answer 323

is best known for its function in targeting proteins for degradation by the proteasome.

Question 324

How does MPF regulate the cell cycle?

Answer 324

Maturation promoting factor (MPF) is a cell cycle checkpoint that regulates the passage of a cell from the G2 growth phase to the M phase. It is also known as the G2 checkpoint, and ensures that DNA replication during the S phase did not produce any mistakes.

Question 325

hich protein specifically promotes passage through the G1 checkpoint?

Answer 325

Cyclin D

Question 326

Which protein increases in concentration during G2 and is degraded in M?

Answer 326

Cyclin B

Question 327

Which of the following is true of releasing and inhibiting hormones?

Answer 327

Are released by axon terminals located near the primary capillary plexus

Question 328

hering bodies

Answer 328

Herring bodies or neurosecretory bodies are structures found in the posterior pituitary. They represent the terminal end of the axons from the hypothalamus, and hormones are temporarily stored in these locations. They are neurosecretory terminals.

Question 329

fibrocartilage - type of collagen

Answer 329

type 1

Question 330

Which cells in the lymph nodes are nonphagocytic, bind antigen on their surfaces, and present them to lymphocytes for recognition and stimulation?

A

Answer 330

Dendritic cells

Dendritic cells (DCs) are antigen-presenting cells (also known as accessory cells) of the mammalian immune system. Their main function is to process antigen material and present it on the cell surface to the T cells of the immune system. They act as messengers between the innate and the adaptive immune systems.

Dendritic cells (DCs), monocytes and macrophages are members of the mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS) that exhibit multiple functions during immune responses. … By contrast, DCs are usually defined as cells with a stellate morphology that can efficiently present antigens on MHC molecules and activate naive T cells7,8.

Question 331

Which of the following is true of the fibroblasts of a normal neurohypophysis?

A

Answer 331

derive from neural crest

Question 332

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome - gastrin comes from

Answer 332

D cells in stomach

Question 333

Which cells often contain mitochondria with tubular cristae?

Answer 333

Steroid-secreting cells

Question 334

Question 522 of 569

Select the adult dental formula.

Answer 334

2 incisors, 1 canine, 2 premolars, 3 molars

Question 335

Which description is true of megakaryocytes?

Answer 335

Network of intracellular membranes

Question 336

serous demilunes

Answer 336

sublingual

Question 337

Which cells are the primary cellular components of the stroma of the splenic lymphoid nodules?

Answer 337

reticular cells

Question 338

he capillaries of the adrenal medulla receive their double blood supply directly from which vessels?

Answer 338

Cortical capillaries and medullary arteries

NO medullary rays in medulla FYI

Question 339

A 15-year-old male patient visits his family physician for the checkup required to join his high school football team. Giemsa staining of a standard smear of his blood reveals that most of his mature RBCs lack ribosomes. From this information, and from knowledge of ribosome function and distribution, the physician can deduce which conclusion?

Answer 339

Mature RBCs are incapable of protein synthesis

They also lack the components to express genes and synthesize proteins.