Histo

Question 1

What is the structure of the haemoglobin molecule?

Answer 1

The haemoglobin molecule is a tetramer of two globin chains linked with heme.

Example sentence: Hemoglobin is composed of two alpha and two beta chains.

Question 2

What are the major globin chains in adults?

Answer 2

Paired α (141 amino acids) and paired β (146 amino acids).

No additional information.

Question 3

What does each heme molecule bind?

Answer 3

A single haemoglobin molecule.

No additional information.

Question 4

How are haemoglobinopathies typically inherited?

Answer 4

As autosomal co-dominant genes.

No additional information.

Question 5

When do most haemoglobinopathies become symptomatic?

Answer 5

Most are asymptomatic until 3 – 9 months, except for α thalassemia, which is symptomatic in utero.

No additional information.

Question 6

What are the five classes of haemoglobinopathies?

Answer 6

Structural haemoglobinopathies, Thalassemia syndromes, Thalassemic haemoglobin variants, Hereditary persistence of fetal haemoglobin, and Acquired haemoglobinopathies.

No additional information.

Question 7

What is the prototype of structural haemoglobinopathies?

Answer 7

Sickle cell syndrome.

No additional information.

Question 8

What causes sickle cell syndrome?

Answer 8

Substitution of valine for glutamic acid in the sixth amino acid of the β chain.

No additional information.

Question 9

What is the effect of polymerization of sickle cell haemoglobin at low oxygen levels?

Answer 9

It causes the formation of fibrils (tactoids) that make the cell membrane rigid and less deformable.

No additional information.

Question 10

What are the three main effects that manifest sickle cell disease?

Answer 10

Chronic extravascular haemolysis, microvascular occlusions with infarctions, and tissue damage.

No additional information.

Question 11

What are the morphological changes in the bone due to sickle cell disease?

Answer 11

Bone marrow expansion with bone resorption, hyperplastic bone marrow, and extramedullary haematopoiesis in spleen and liver.

No additional information.

Question 12

What are the common morphological features in the blood due to sickle cell disease?

Answer 12

Chronic anaemia with variable numbers of sickled cells and increased reticulocyte count.

No additional information.

Question 13

What are the effects of sickle cell disease on the spleen?

Answer 13

In childhood, the spleen is enlarged with congested sinusoids. By early adulthood, it becomes fibrotic and shrunken due to repeated infarctions (autosplenectomy).

No additional information.

Question 14

What are thalassemias?

Answer 14

Genetic disorders resulting from defects in the synthesis of one or more of the globin chains.

No additional information.

Question 15

What is the result of defective globin chain synthesis in thalassemias?

Answer 15

Inadequate hemoglobin production and imbalanced accumulation of the globin subunit, causing hypochromia and microcytosis with ineffective haematopoiesis.

No additional information.

Question 16

What are the three clinical syndromes of β-thalassemias and their features?

Answer 16

β-Thalassemia major (severe, requires blood transfusions), β-Thalassemia intermedia (severe but does not require regular blood transfusions), and β-Thalassemia minor (asymptomatic with mild or absent anemia; red cell abnormalities seen).

No additional information.

Question 17

What are the four clinical syndromes of α-thalassemias and their features?

Answer 17

Silent carrier (asymptomatic; no red cell abnormality), α-Thalassemia trait (asymptomatic, like β-thalassemia minor), HbH disease (severe; resembles β-thalassemia intermedia), Hydrops fetalis (lethal in utero without transfusions).

No additional information.

Question 18

What is the pathogenesis of thalassemias?

Answer 18

Defective beta globin chain leads to accumulation of alpha chains in erythrocytes, causing membrane damage, apoptosis in the marrow, extravascular haemolysis, extramedullary haemopoiesis in the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes, enhanced iron absorption and storage, leading to secondary haemochromatosis and multiple organ failure.

No additional information.

Question 19

What are the morphological changes in the bone due to thalassemias?

Answer 19

Skeletal abnormalities due to osteoporosis and marrow expansion, irregular fusion of epiphyses with shortened limbs, and pathological fractures.

No additional information.

Question 20

What are the common morphological features in the bone marrow and blood due to thalassemias?

Answer 20

Bone marrow expansion with hyperplasia and cortical thinning, blood hypochromia and microcytosis with target cells and inclusions within the erythrocyte, and increased reticulocyte count.

No additional information.

Question 21

What is the normal GFR percentage in diminished renal reserve?

Answer 21

50% of normal.

Example sentence: Diminished renal reserve is defined as a GFR of 50% of normal.

Question 22

What symptoms are associated with renal insufficiency?

Answer 22

Azotemia, anemia, hypertension, polyuria, and nocturia.

These symptoms are commonly seen in patients with renal insufficiency.

Question 23

Define haemoglobinopathies.

Answer 23

Disorders affecting the structure, function, or production of haemoglobin.

Haemoglobinopathies are a group of genetic disorders that impact the haemoglobin molecule.

Question 24

What genetic pattern do haemoglobinopathies typically follow?

Answer 24

Autosomal co-dominant genes.

The inheritance pattern of haemoglobinopathies involves co-dominant autosomal genes.

Question 25

How might haemoglobinopathies present clinically?

Answer 25

As haemolytic anemias, erythrocytosis, cyanosis, or vaso-occlusive lesions.

Clinical presentations of haemoglobinopathies vary and can include these manifestations.

Question 26

What constitutes the haemoglobin molecule?

Answer 26

A tetramer of two globin chains linked with heme.

The haemoglobin molecule is composed of globin chains and heme.

Question 27

How many amino acids are there in the paired α and β globin chains in adults?

Answer 27

Paired α: 141 amino acids; Paired β: 146 amino acids.

The α and β globin chains have specific lengths in terms of amino acids.

Question 28

What state is the iron in within the heme molecule?

Answer 28

Ferrous state (Fe2+).

Iron within the heme molecule is typically in the ferrous state.

Question 29

How many haemoglobin molecules does each heme molecule bind?

Answer 29

One haemoglobin molecule.

Each heme molecule can bind to one haemoglobin molecule.

Question 30

What is the solubility of the haemoglobin molecule compared to individual globin chains?

Answer 30

The haemoglobin molecule is soluble, but individual globin chains are insoluble.

The haemoglobin molecule’s solubility differs from that of individual globin chains.

Question 31

(“What histological feature characterizes benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?”

Answer 31

“BPH is characterized by hyperplasia of both stromal and epithelial cells

Question 32

(“What is the common location for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?”

Answer 32

“BPH commonly occurs in the periurethral region of the prostate gland.”)

Question 33

(“What condition involves the hyperplasia of both stromal and epithelial cells in the prostate?”

Answer 33

“Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH).”)

Question 34

(“What is a key histological feature of acute prostatitis?”

Answer 34

“Acute prostatitis is characterized by the presence of numerous neutrophils within the prostatic acini and stroma.”)

Question 35

(“Which cells are predominantly seen in the histology of chronic prostatitis?”

Answer 35

“Chronic prostatitis shows a predominance of lymphocytes

Question 36

(“What is the histological hallmark of prostatic adenocarcinoma?”

Answer 36

“Prostatic adenocarcinoma is characterized by small glands that infiltrate the prostatic stroma. These glands typically lack the basal cell layer seen in benign glands.”)

Question 37

(“What is the significance of the Gleason score in prostatic adenocarcinoma?”

Answer 37

“The Gleason score is used to grade the aggressiveness of prostatic adenocarcinoma based on the histological patterns of the tumor. Higher scores indicate more aggressive tumors.”)

Question 38

(“What are the histological features of acute pyelonephritis?”

Answer 38

“Acute pyelonephritis is characterized by neutrophilic infiltration of the renal interstitium and tubules

Question 39

(“What type of cells infiltrate the renal interstitium and tubules in acute pyelonephritis?”

Answer 39

“Neutrophils.”)

Question 40

(“How is chronic pyelonephritis identified histologically?”

Answer 40

“Chronic pyelonephritis shows interstitial fibrosis

Question 41

(“What kidney disease is associated with interstitial fibrosis and tubular atrophy?”

Answer 41

“Chronic Pyelonephritis.”)

Question 42

(“What histological features are indicative of diabetic nephropathy?”

Answer 42

“Diabetic nephropathy is characterized by thickening of the glomerular basement membrane

Question 43

(“What is the hallmark lesion of diabetic nephropathy?”

Answer 43

“Nodular glomerulosclerosis

Question 44

(“Which cells are involved in the histological appearance of acute interstitial nephritis?”

Answer 44

“Acute interstitial nephritis is characterized by an interstitial inflammatory infiltrate composed of lymphocytes

Question 45

(“What is the common histological finding in acute interstitial nephritis?”

Answer 45

“Interstitial inflammatory infiltrate.”)

Question 46

(“What type of glomerulonephritis is characterized by crescents formation in Bowman’s space?”

Answer 46

“Rapidly Progressive (Crescentic) Glomerulonephritis.”)

Question 47

(“What is the significance of crescents in glomerulonephritis?”

Answer 47

“Crescents indicate severe glomerular injury and are associated with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.”)

Question 48

(“What histological feature is characteristic of minimal change disease?”

Answer 48

“Minimal change disease is characterized by the effacement of foot processes of podocytes seen on electron microscopy.”)

Question 49

(“Which glomerular disease is identified by effacement of foot processes on electron microscopy?”

Answer 49

“Minimal Change Disease.”)

Question 50

(“What is the main histological feature of membranous nephropathy?”

Answer 50

“Membranous nephropathy is characterized by diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane due to subepithelial immune complex deposits.”)

Question 51

(“What kidney disease involves diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane?”

Answer 51

“Membranous Nephropathy.”)

Question 52

(“What is the defining histological feature of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)?”

Answer 52

“FSGS is characterized by sclerosis involving some but not all glomeruli and affecting only segments of each involved glomerulus.”)

Question 53

(“Which kidney condition shows segmental glomerular sclerosis?”

Answer 53

“Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS).”)

Question 54

(“What are the histological findings in membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)?”

Answer 54

“MPGN is characterized by mesangial cell proliferation

Question 55

(“What glomerular disease is associated with mesangial cell proliferation and basement membrane thickening?”

Answer 55

“Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MPGN).”)

Question 56

(“What type of deposits are seen in amyloidosis of the kidney?”

Answer 56

“Amyloidosis is characterized by the deposition of amyloid fibrils in the glomeruli

Question 57

(“How is amyloidosis confirmed histologically?”

Answer 57

“By Congo red staining showing apple-green birefringence under polarized light.”)

Question 58

(“What is the typical histological appearance of lupus nephritis?”

Answer 58

“Lupus nephritis can show a wide range of histological appearances

Question 59

(“What are wire loop lesions indicative of?”

Answer 59

“Lupus Nephritis.”)

Question 60

(“What histological features characterize post-infectious glomerulonephritis?”

Answer 60

“Post-infectious glomerulonephritis is characterized by hypercellularity due to proliferation of endothelial and mesangial cells

Question 61

(“Which glomerulonephritis is associated with immune complex deposits following an infection?”

Answer 61

“Post-Infectious Glomerulonephritis.”)

Question 62

{“question”: “What is the primary pathogen causing Cryptococcal meningitis?”

Answer 62

“answer”: “Cryptococcus neoformans”}

Question 63

{“question”: “Which type of hemorrhage is commonly caused by hypertension?”

Answer 63

“answer”: “Intracerebral hemorrhage”}

Question 64

{“question”: “What are the common causes of intracerebral hemorrhage?”

Answer 64

“answer”: “Hypertension

Question 65

{“question”: “What is the primary cause of ganglionic hemorrhage?”

Answer 65

“answer”: “Hypertension”}

Question 66

{“question”: “What percentage of the resting cardiac output does the CNS receive?”

Answer 66

“answer”: “15%”}

Question 67

{“question”: “What percentage of total body oxygen consumption is used by the CNS?”

Answer 67

“answer”: “20%”}

Question 68

{“question”: “What condition is associated with grey-white matter junction abscesses caused by Toxoplasma Gondii?”

Answer 68

“answer”: “Toxoplasmosis”}

Question 69

{“question”: “What are the two forms of Prion proteins?”

Answer 69

“answer”: “PrPc (protease sensitive) and PrPres (protease resistant)”}

Question 70

{“question”: “What type of encephalopathy does PrPres promote?”

Answer 70

“answer”: “Spongiform encephalopathy”}

Question 71

{“question”: “Name a protozoal infection that causes meningoencephalitis.”

Answer 71

“answer”: “Naeglerii fowleri”}

Question 72

{“question”: “What type of aneurysm is associated with infections?”

Answer 72

“answer”: “Infective aneurysm”}

Question 73

{“question”: “List one common cause of lobar intracerebral hemorrhage.”

Answer 73

“answer”: “Trauma”}

Question 74

{“question”: “What is a common consequence of cerebral amyloid angiopathy?”

Answer 74

“answer”: “Intracerebral hemorrhage”}

Question 75

{“question”: “What are the three pathways through which non-traumatic intracerebral hemorrhage may follow?”

Answer 75

“answer”: “Embolic

Question 76

{“question”: “Name a prion disease affecting humans.”

Answer 76

“answer”: “Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)”}

Question 77

{“question”: “What is the primary pathology seen in kuru?”

Answer 77

“answer”: “Gliosis and kuru type amyloid plaques”}

Question 78

{“question”: “What type of vascular malformation may lead to intracerebral hemorrhage?”

Answer 78

“answer”: “Aneurysms

Question 79

{“question”: “What type of pathology does Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker disease involve?”

Answer 79

“answer”: “Spongiform encephalopathy”}

Question 80

{“question”: “What condition is associated with multiple poorly circumscribed abscesses usually at the gray-white matter junction?”

Answer 80

“answer”: “Toxoplasmosis”}

Question 81

{“question”: “Which disease is characterized by a granulomatous inflammation caused by Acanthamoeba?”

Answer 81

“answer”: “Granulomatous amoebic encephalitis”}

Question 82

{“question”: “What condition is indicated by non-traumatic intracerebral hemorrhage?”

Answer 82

“answer”: “Stroke”}

Question 83

{“question”: “What is the primary cause of cerebral hypoxia?”

Answer 83

“answer”: “Reduced oxygen delivery to the brain due to various factors such as cardiac arrest

Question 84

{“question”: “What is the usual percentage of body oxygen consumption by the CNS?”

Answer 84

“answer”: “20%”}

Question 85

{“question”: “What pathology is associated with an aneurysm at the brain’s base?”

Answer 85

“answer”: “Berry aneurysm”}

Question 86

{“question”: “Name a spongiform encephalopathy other than CJD.”

Answer 86

“answer”: “Kuru”}

Question 87

[“What are the key features of the haemoglobin molecule?”

Answer 87

“The haemoglobin molecule is a tetramer of two globin chains linked with heme. It contains paired α and paired β globin chains in adults

Question 88

[“What are the types of normal prion protein?”

Answer 88

“Normal PrPc (protease sensitive) and PrPres (protease resistant).”]

Question 89

[“What pathology is associated with Spongiform encephalopathy?”

Answer 89

“Gliosis and kuru type amyloid plaques.”]

Question 90

[“Name the human transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.”

Answer 90

“Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)

Question 91

[“What does Toxoplasma Gondii cause?”

Answer 91

“Toxoplasma Gondii causes multiple poorly circumscribed abscesses usually at the gray-white matter junction.”]

Question 92

[“What does Naeglerii fowleri cause?”

Answer 92

“Naeglerii fowleri causes a meningoencephalitis and Acanthamoeba which causes granulomatous inflammation.”]

Question 93

[“What are the common types of vascular pathology?”

Answer 93

“Aneurysms

Question 94

[“What is the commonest cause of non-traumatic intracerebral haemorrhage?”

Answer 94

“The commonest cause is hypertension.”]

Question 95

[“What are the commonest types of intracerebral haemorrhage?”

Answer 95

“Intracerebral haemorrhage may be lobar

Question 96

[“What is CNS hypoxia?”

Answer 96

“CNS hypoxia occurs when the central nervous system receives 15% of the resting cardiac output and 20% of the total body oxygen consumption.”]

Question 97

(“What is the primary feature of the lung slide on page 250?”

Answer 97

“It shows emphysematous changes.”)

Question 98

(“What abnormality is present in the liver tissue on page 251?”

Answer 98

“Hepatocellular carcinoma.”)

Question 99

(“Describe the histological findings on the renal slide on page 252.”

Answer 99

“Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.”)

Question 100

(“What is observed in the bone marrow slide on page 253?”

Answer 100

“Increased megakaryocytes.”)

Question 101

(“Identify the major finding on the skin biopsy slide on page 254.”

Answer 101

“Basal cell carcinoma.”)

Question 102

(“What is the key feature of the gastric biopsy on page 255?”

Answer 102

“Chronic gastritis with H. pylori.”)

Question 103

(“Describe the changes in the cardiac tissue on page 256.”

Answer 103

“Myocardial infarction with necrosis.”)

Question 104

(“What does the pancreatic slide on page 257 show?”

Answer 104

“Pancreatic adenocarcinoma.”)

Question 105

(“Identify the pathology seen in the thyroid slide on page 258.”

Answer 105

“Papillary thyroid carcinoma.”)

Question 106

(“What is the significant finding in the colonic tissue on page 259?”

Answer 106

“Adenomatous polyp.”)

Question 107

(“Describe the abnormality in the brain tissue on page 260.”

Answer 107

“Glioblastoma multiforme.”)

Question 108

(“What is the major feature of the lymph node slide on page 261?”

Answer 108

“Reactive lymphoid hyperplasia.”)

Question 109

(“Identify the primary pathology in the cervical tissue on page 262.”

Answer 109

“Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia.”)

Question 110

(“What does the prostate slide on page 263 indicate?”

Answer 110

“Benign prostatic hyperplasia.”)

Question 111

(“Describe the changes seen in the esophageal biopsy on page 264.”

Answer 111

“Barrett’s esophagus.”)

Question 112

(“What is observed in the ovarian tissue on page 265?”

Answer 112

“Serous cystadenoma.”)

Question 113

(“Identify the main finding in the breast tissue on page 266.”

Answer 113

“Invasive ductal carcinoma.”)

Question 114

(“What is the key feature of the bladder slide on page 267?”

Answer 114

“Transitional cell carcinoma.”)

Question 115

(“Describe the histological changes in the spleen on page 268.”

Answer 115

“Splenic infarct.”)

Question 116

(“What abnormality is present in the endometrial tissue on page 269?”

Answer 116

“Endometrial hyperplasia.”)

Question 117

(“What does the lung slide on page 270 show?”

Answer 117

“Adenocarcinoma of the lung.”)

Question 118

(“Identify the pathology seen in the liver tissue on page 271.”

Answer 118

“Fatty liver disease.”)

Question 119

(“Describe the key findings in the renal biopsy on page 272.”

Answer 119

“Acute tubular necrosis.”)

Question 120

(“What is the major finding in the bone marrow slide on page 273?”

Answer 120

“Leukemia.”)

Question 121

(“What abnormality is present in the skin biopsy on page 274?”

Answer 121

“Squamous cell carcinoma.”)

Question 122

(“Describe the changes in the gastric biopsy on page 275.”

Answer 122

“Gastric ulcer with hemorrhage.”)

Question 123

[“What is the role of an Oncologist?”

Answer 123

“An Oncologist is a doctor who treats cancer and provides medical care for a person diagnosed with cancer.”]

Question 124

[“Define hyperplasia.”

Answer 124

“Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue

Question 125

[“What is the function of epithelial cells?”

Answer 125

“Epithelial cells form the lining of surfaces and cavities in the body and perform functions such as protection

Question 126

[“Describe the appearance of dysplasia.”

Answer 126

“Dysplasia refers to abnormal growth or development of cells

Question 127

[“What is neoplasia?”

Answer 127

“Neoplasia is the process of abnormal and uncontrolled cell growth

Question 128

[“Explain the significance of mitotic figures in pathology.”

Answer 128

“Mitotic figures are indicators of cell division and are used in pathology to assess the proliferative activity of a tumor

Question 129

[“What is a biopsy?”

Answer 129

“A biopsy is a medical procedure in which a small sample of tissue is removed from the body for examination under a microscope to diagnose diseases.”]

Question 130

[“Define carcinoma.”

Answer 130

“Carcinoma is a type of cancer that begins in the epithelial cells lining the surfaces and cavities of the body.”]

Question 131

[“What are sarcomas?”

Answer 131

“Sarcomas are a group of cancers that originate in the bones and soft tissues

Question 132

[“What is the significance of tumor grading?”

Answer 132

“Tumor grading assesses the aggressiveness of cancer by examining the appearance of cancer cells under a microscope

Question 133

[“Describe the concept of metastasis.”

Answer 133

“Metastasis is the process by which cancer cells spread from the primary tumor to other parts of the body

Question 134

[“What is the purpose of immunohistochemistry in pathology?”

Answer 134

“Immunohistochemistry uses antibodies to detect specific antigens in tissue samples

Question 135

[“Explain the difference between benign and malignant tumors.”

Answer 135

“Benign tumors are non-cancerous growths that do not invade nearby tissues

Question 136

[“What are the characteristics of well-differentiated tumors?”

Answer 136

“Well-differentiated tumors resemble the normal tissue from which they originate and tend to grow and spread more slowly than poorly differentiated tumors.”]

Question 137

[“What is the role of a pathologist in cancer diagnosis?”

Answer 137

“A pathologist examines tissue samples under a microscope to diagnose diseases

Question 138

[“Define angiogenesis.”

Answer 138

“Angiogenesis is the process by which new blood vessels form from pre-existing vessels

Question 139

[“What are oncogenes?”

Answer 139

“Oncogenes are mutated or overexpressed genes that drive the growth and survival of cancer cells.”]

Question 140

[“Describe the function of tumor suppressor genes.”

Answer 140

“Tumor suppressor genes regulate cell growth and division

Question 141

[“What is the significance of the p53 gene in cancer?”

Answer 141

“The p53 gene is a tumor suppressor that plays a key role in preventing cancer by inducing cell cycle arrest or apoptosis in response to DNA damage.”]

Question 142

[“Explain the concept of tumor heterogeneity.”

Answer 142

“Tumor heterogeneity refers to the presence of different genetic

Question 143

[“What are the hallmarks of cancer?”

Answer 143

“The hallmarks of cancer include sustaining proliferative signaling

Question 144

[“What is the significance of the HER2 gene in breast cancer?”

Answer 144

“The HER2 gene is often amplified in breast cancer

Question 145

[“Define the term ‘tumor microenvironment’.”

Answer 145

“The tumor microenvironment is the surrounding environment of a tumor

Question 146

[“What are the main types of cell death in pathology?”

Answer 146

“The main types of cell death in pathology are apoptosis (programmed cell death) and necrosis (uncontrolled cell death).”]

Question 147

[“Describe the role of autophagy in cancer.”

Answer 147

“Autophagy is a cellular process that degrades and recycles cellular components