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His2 mtlaaaaws prog ex Flashcards

1
Q

First clinical laboratory in the Philippines:

A. San Lazaro Hospital
B. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
C. Manila Public Health Laboratory
D. National Reference Laboratory

A

C. Manila Public Health Laboratory

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2
Q

Introduced medical technology practice in the Philippines after World War II:

A. Dr. Pio de Roda
B. Dr. Prudencia Sta. Ana
C. Dr. Mariano Icasiano
D. 26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army

A

D. 26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army

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3
Q

RA 5527 consists of:

A. 30 sections
B. 32 sections
C. 50 sections
D. 52 sections

A

B. 32 sections

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4
Q

Which of the following amends RA 5527 on June 11, 1978?

A. RA 6138
B. PD 498
C. PD 1534

A

C. PD 1534

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5
Q

All are sections of RA 5527 amended by PD 1534, except:

A. Section 3
B. Section 8
C. Section 13
D. Section 18

A

D. Section 18

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6
Q

All are qualifications of the Board of Medical Technology, except:

A. Filipino citizen
B. Good moral character
C. Qualified Pathologist, or a duly registered MT
D. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 5 years prior to his appointment
E. Not a member of the faculty of any MT school for at least 2 years prior to appointment

A

D. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 5 years prior to his appointment

Feedback

In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least 10 years prior to his appointment.

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7
Q

Board of Medical Technology term of office:

A. Hold office for ONE (1) YEAR after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

B. Hold office for THREE (3) YEARS after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

C. Hold office for FIVE (5) YEARS after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

D.Hold office for SEVEN (7) YEARS after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

A

B. Hold office for THREE (3) YEARS after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified

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8
Q

Minor subject (10%) in the MT Board Exam:

A. Clinical Chemistry
B. Hematology
C. Immunology, Serology & Blood Banking
D. Clinical Microscopy

A

D. Clinical Microscopy

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9
Q

In order to pass the MT examination, a candidate must obtain a general average of at least ___ in the written test.

A. General average of at least 50%
B. General average of at least 65%
C. General average of at least 70%
D. General average of at least 75%

A

D. General average of at least 75%

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10
Q

Refresher course for applicants who have failed the Board Examination for the ___ time.

A. First time
B. Second time
C. Third time
D. Fourth time

A

C. Third time

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11
Q

Certificate of Registration as Medical Technologist is issued to any successful applicant who has attained the age of:

A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21

A

D. 21

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12
Q

Revocation:

A. Unanimous vote (3/3)

B. Majority vote (2/3)

A

A. Unanimous vote (3/3)

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13
Q

Suspension:

A. Unanimous vote (3/3)

B. Majority vote (2/3)

A

B. Majority vote (2/3)

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14
Q

Which of the following can only be done in a tertiary category laboratory?

A. Crossmatching
B. Routine chemistry
C. Routine hematology
D. Special hematology

A

D. Special hematology

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15
Q

Start of renewal of Clinical Laboratory License:

A. October 1
B. November 1
C. December 1
D. January 1

A

A. October 1

Feedback

Non–hospital based clinical laboratories shall file applications for renewal of LTO beginning on the FIRST DAY OF OCTOBER UNTIL THE LAST DAY OF NOVEMBER of the current year.

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16
Q

The LICENSE TO OPERATE (LTO) issued to the CLINICAL LABORATORY is valid for:

A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. Five years

A

A. One year

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17
Q

Acceptable patient identifiers include:

A. Patient’s name, gender, medical record number

B. Patient’s name, gender, date of birth

C. Patient’s name, requesting physician, medical record number

D. Patient’s name, date of birth, medical record number

A

D. Patient’s name, date of birth, medical record number

Feedback

Acceptable patient identifiers include the patient’s name, an identification number assigned by a health care facility such as the medical record number, or date of birth.

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18
Q

LICENSE TO OPERATE (LTO) Blood Service Facilities is valid for a period of ____ years.

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

A

C. 3 years

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19
Q

According to DOH A.O. 2020-0031, certificate of accreditation of laboratories for DRINKING WATER ANALYSIS is valid for __ year(s) and expires on the last day of December. TAKE NOTE OF YEAR 2020 DOH REVISION.

A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. Five years

A

C. Three years

Feedback

Administrative Order No. 2006-0024 known as the “Rules and Regulations Governing the Accreditation of Laboratories for Drinking Water Analysis

Certificate of Accreditation is valid for 2 years and expires on the last day of December

DOH A.O. 2020-0031 (July 17, 2020)
Revised Rules and Regulations Governing the Accreditation of Laboratories for Drinking Water Analysis Laboratory for Drinking Water Analysis (LDWA)

DOH Certificate of Accreditation is valid for 3 years, effective from January 1 of the first year, and shall expire on the last day of December on the third year

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20
Q

Part of drinking water analysis, except:

A. Calcium
B. Fecal coliform test
C. Sodium
D. Potassium

A

D. Potassium

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21
Q

License and accredit drug testing centers in each province and city:

A. DOH
B. PDEA
C. PNP
D. PRC

A

A. DOH

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22
Q

Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA):

A. Shabu
B. Meth
C. Ice
D. Ecstasy

A

D. Ecstasy

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23
Q

Random drug test:

A. Applicants for firearm’s license

B. Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcers

C. Students of secondary and tertiary schools

D. Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or local government

A

C. Students of secondary and tertiary schools

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24
Q

A drug test is valid for:

A. Six weeks
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years

A

C. One year

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25
Q

All results of HIV/AIDS testing shall be confidential and shall be released only to the following persons, except:

A. Person who submitted himself/herself to such test

B. Boyfriend of the patient

C. Either parent of a minor child who has been tested

D. Legal guardian in the case of insane persons or orphans

D. Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the AIDSWATCH program

A

B. Boyfriend of the patient

Feedback

All results of HIV/AIDS testing shall be confidential and shall be released only to the following persons:

  1. Person who submitted himself/herself to such test
  2. Either parent of a minor child who has been tested
  3. Legal guardian in the case of insane persons or orphans
  4. Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the AIDSWATCH program
  5. Justice of the Court of Appeals or the Supreme Court
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26
Q

The Professional Regulation Commission, otherwise known as the PRC, is a ____-man commission attached to office of the President for general direction and coordination. [Currently, to DOLE]

A. Two-man
B. Three-man
C. Four-man
D. Five-man

A

B. Three-man

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27
Q

The current (September 2022) PRC CHAIRPERSON is:

A. Marilyn Barza
B. Teofilo Pilando
C. Charito Zamora
D. Jose Cueto

A

C. Charito Zamora

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28
Q

If a medical technologist was not able to complete the number of CPD units upon renewal of PRC license, he may sign a/an: [ONLY UP TO DECEMBER 2023]

A. Affidavit of undertaking
B. Certificate of exemption
C. Certificate of registration
D. Suspension order

A

A. Affidavit of undertaking

Feedback

AFFIDAVIT OF UNDERTAKING
Contains your specific promises to:
1. Undertake to comply with the required number of CPD credit units during the validity of your PRC ID; and to
2. Submit proof of compliance with the required number of CPD units during the next renewal of the PRC ID

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29
Q

An act done to avoid harming the patients:

A. Beneficence
B. Non-maleficence
C. Autonomy
D. Justice

A

B. Non-maleficence

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30
Q

Obligation of MT to the patient:

A. Compliance to PRC
B. Compliance to the department of health
C. Comprehensive health education
D. Strive for excellence in professional practice

A

D. Strive for excellence in professional practice

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31
Q

All traits are mentioned in the MT CODE OF ETHICS, except:

A. Honesty
B. Humility
C. Integrity
D. Reliability

A

B. Humility

Feedback

Uphold the dignity and respect of my profession and conduct myself a reputation of reliability, honesty and integrity.

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32
Q

Fill in the blank (Code of Ethics): Be dedicated to ____.

A. Fairness to all and in a spirit of brotherhood toward other members of the profession

B. Law and shall not participate in illegal work

C. Responsibilities inherent to being a professional

D. Use of clinical laboratory science to promote life and benefit mankind

A

D. Use of clinical laboratory science to promote life and benefit mankind

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33
Q

Continuing Professional Development Act of 2016:

A. RA 7719
B. RA 9288
C. RA 10912
D. RA 7170

A

C. RA 10912

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34
Q

Published standards for GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE:

A. CDC
B. DOH
C. PRC
D. WHO

A

D. WHO

Feedback

WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION
PUBLISHED STANDARDS FOR:

  1. GOOD MANUFACTURING PRACTICE (GMP) 1999
  2. GOOD CLINICAL PRACTICE (GCP) 1995
  3. GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP) 2001
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35
Q

Components of quality assurance:

A. Pre-analytical variables
B. Analytical variables
C. Post-analytical variables
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

Feedback

Quality assurance is the broader concept, encompassing preanalytical, analytical, and postanalytical variables.

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36
Q

An example of cellular adaptation is:

A. Edema
B. Inflammation
C. Neoplasia
D. Dysplasia

A

D. Dysplasia

Feedback

Cellular adaptations:
1. Atrophy
2. Hypertrophy
3. Hyperplasia
4. Metaplasia
5. Dysplasia

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37
Q

Low temperature:

A. Enhance fixation
B. Retard fixation
C. Variable
D. No effect

A

B. Retard fixation

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38
Q

Stopping all cellular activities so that the cells can be viewed under the microscope as if they are still in their original living state:

A. Decalcification
B. Embedding
C. Fixation
D. Staining

A

C. Fixation

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39
Q

Fixative for electron microscopy:

A. Carnoy’s
B. Formalin
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Zenker

A

C. Glutaraldehyde

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40
Q

Most common and fastest decalcifying agent used:

A. Formic acid
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Sulfurous acid

A

C. Nitric acid

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41
Q

For most instances, dehydration starts by placing the fixed specimen in:

A. 70% ethyl alcohol
B. 95% ethyl alcohol
C. Absolute alcohol
D. Xylene

A

A. 70% ethyl alcohol

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42
Q

Transition step between dehydration and infiltration with the embedding medium:

A. Fixation
B. Clearing
C. Infiltration
D. Mounting

A

B. Clearing

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43
Q

Enclosed tissue processor:

A. Mechanical transfer
B. Dip and dunk
C. Fluid transfer
D. Tissue transfer

A

C. Fluid transfer

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44
Q

What are the processes (IN ORDER) done by the automatic tissue processor:

A. Fixation, clearing, dehydration and infiltration

B. Fixation, infiltration, dehydration and clearing

C. Fixation, dehydration, clearing and infiltration

D. Fixation, dehydration, infiltration and clearing

A

C. Fixation, dehydration, clearing and infiltration

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45
Q

These knives are used to cut block for ELECTRON MICROSCOPY (EM):

A. Disposal blades
B. Steel knives
C. Diamond or glass knives
D. Magnetic blades

A

C. Diamond or glass knives

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46
Q

Sections fail to form ribbons:

A. Hard spot in tissue due to calcium
B. Sections are too thick
C. Paraffin is impure
D. Knife edge is dirty

A

B. Sections are too thick

Feedback

  1. Surfaces and edges of the block are not parallel
  2. Horizontal surface of the block is not parallel to the knife
  3. Paraffin wax is too hard
  4. Knife is tilted too much
  5. Sections are too thick
  6. Knife is dull
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47
Q

Effect of basic pH to ripening process:

A. Slower oxidizing process
B. More rapid oxidizing process
C. Variable
D. No effect

A

B. More rapid oxidizing process

Feedback

pH will have effect on rate of oxidation.
1. Neutral aqueous solution of hematoxylin will form hematein in a few hours
2. Alkaline solutions - more rapid oxidizing process
3. Acid solutions - slower oxidizing process

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48
Q

RETICULIN FIBERS IN GOMORI’S silver impregnation stain:

A. Black
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Green

A

A. Black

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49
Q

A stain containing silver nitrate for demonstration of spirochetes:

A. Fite-Faraco
B. Warthin-Starry
C. Masson-Fontana
D. Mallory’s PTAH

A

B. Warthin-Starry

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50
Q

Frozen sections are stained by hand because:

A. Staining is more accurate
B. Prevent overstaining
C. Faster for one or a few individual sections
D. Predictable colors

A

C. Faster for one or a few individual sections

Feedback

Frozen sections are stained by hand, because this is faster for one or a few individual sections.

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51
Q

_______ are raised against specific cellular _____ and then conjugated with a _______.

A. Antigen, antibody, visual marker
B. Visual marker, antigen, antibody
C. Antibody, antigen, visual marker
D. Visual marker, antibody, antigen

A

C. Antibody, antigen, visual marker

52
Q

Gastrointestinal specimens, except:

A. Gastric lavage
B. Gastric brush
C. Fine needle aspirate (submucosal lesions)
D. Induced vomiting

A

D. Induced vomiting

53
Q

Liquid-based cytology samples:

A. Body fluids
B. Touch imprint
C. Brush sampling
D. Skin scrape

A

A. Body fluids

54
Q

It is considered to be a most sensitive and specific reagent for lipid staining:

A. Sudan III
B. Sudan IV
C. Sudan Black
D. Oil Red O

A

C. Sudan Black

55
Q

One measure of the efficiency of a surgical pathology service:

A. Rapidity of accurate reporting the diagnosis to clinicians
B. Rapidity of tissue processing
C. Sufficiency of tissue preservation
D. Sufficiency of reagents and standards

A

A. Rapidity of accurate reporting the diagnosis to clinicians

56
Q

Objective of a quality assurance program in histopathology:

A. Ensure to process the tissues
B. Ensure acceptable service
C. Ensure to follow standards
D. Ensure the completeness, accuracy and timeliness of a histopathology report

A

D. Ensure the completeness, accuracy and timeliness of a histopathology report

57
Q

Primary objective in quality and safety control programs in histopathology laboratories:

A. Correctness of interpretation of reports
B. Ensure correct sampling
C. Ensure accurate treatment to patient
D. Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment

A

D. Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment

Feedback

Promotion of health and safety of patient, laboratory personnel and environment should be the primary objective in quality and safety control programs adopted by the histopathology laboratories.

58
Q

Which of the following fixatives contains picric acid, formalin, and acetic acid?

A. Zenker
B. Helly
C. Bouin
D. Zamboni

A

C. Bouin

59
Q

The volume of fixative should exceed the volume of the tissue by:

A. 1 to 2 times
B. 5 to 10 times
C. 10 to 20 times
D. 25 to 50 times

A

C. 10 to 20 times

60
Q

Which of the following fixatives contains formalin, potassium dichromate, and mercuric chloride?

A. Zenker
B. Helly
C. Carnoy
D. Orth

A

B. Helly

61
Q

Precipitate left in tissues that have been fixed in solutions containing mercuric chloride may be removed by immersion in:

A. Running water
B. Sodium thiosulfate
C. Weak ammonia water
D. Iodine

A

D. Iodine

62
Q

Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain:

A. 4% formaldehyde
B. 10% formaldehyde
C. 37 to 40% formaldehyde
D. 98 to 100% formaldehyde

A

C. 37 to 40% formaldehyde

Feedback

Important:
Commercial stock solution: 37 to 40% formaldehyde
As fixing fluid: 10% formalin

63
Q

Formalin pigment may be removed from tissue by:

A. Running water
B. Alcoholic iodine
C. Alcoholic picric acid
D. Potassium permanganate

A

C. Alcoholic picric acid

64
Q

To prepare a 10% solution of formalin, which of the following amounts of water should be added to 100 mL of stock formaldehyde:

A. 1,000 mL
B. 900 mL
C. 450 mL
D. 10 mL

A

B. 900 mL

Feedback

Important: 1:10 dilution

1 part 40% formaldehyde
9 parts water
TV = 10

65
Q

Carnoy fluid is prepared with acetic acid, alcohol, and:

A. Chloroform
B. Formalin
C. Acetone
D. Osmium tetroxide

A

A. Chloroform

66
Q

The first and most important procedure in the preparation of a tissue for microscopic examination is the choice of:

A. Fixative
B. Dehydrating agent
C. Clearing agent
D. Staining technique

A

A. Fixative

67
Q

Generally, an increase in the temperature of the fixative solution:

A. Decreases the tissue autolysis
B. Decreases the fixative penetration
C. Increases the speed of fixation
D. Increases the volume of fixative needed

A

C. Increases the speed of fixation

68
Q

Which of the following may cause tissue to become overhardened?

A. Prolonged fixation
B. Abbreviated fixation
C. Inadequate dehydration
D. Incomplete clearing

A

A. Prolonged fixation

69
Q

To prevent polymerization of formaldehyde, which of the following is added to the commercial stock solutions?

A. Methyl alcohol
B. Formic acid
C. Paraformaldehyde
D. Sodium phosphate

A

A. Methyl alcohol

70
Q

Which of the following is a dehydrating agent?

A. Formalin
B. Xylene
C. Benzene
D. Alcohol

A

D. Alcohol

71
Q

A clearing agent for use in processing tissues for paraffin embedding must be miscible with the:

A. Fixative and paraffin
B. Dehydrant and paraffin
C. Fixative and dehydrant
D. Paraffin and water

A

B. Dehydrant and paraffin

72
Q

Dioxane is a reagent that can be used:

A. For both fixing and dehydrating tissues
B. For both dehydrating and clearing tissues
C. In very small volume ratios
D. For long periods without changing

A

B. For both dehydrating and clearing tissues

73
Q

A reagent that CANNOT be used for dehydrating tissue is:

A. Benzene
B. Absolute alcohol
C. Dioxane
D. Acetone

A

A. Benzene

74
Q

Which of the following chemicals is NOT a clearing agent?

A. Chloroform
B. Dioxane
C. Ethanol
D. Xylene

A

C. Ethanol

75
Q

The process of removing water from tissue is called:

A. Dehydration
B. Reduction
C. Oxidation
D. Clearing

A

A. Dehydration

76
Q

The dehydration and clearing steps can be omitted when using:

A. Celloidin
B. Epoxy resin
C. Glycol methacrylate
D. Water-soluble wax

A

D. Water-soluble wax

77
Q

During microtomy, it is noted that most of the tissue is very hard and shrunken. One of the first things to check to prevent its happening in the future is the:

A. Presence of water in the clearing agent
B. pH of the fixative
C. Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin
D. Freshness of the reagents on the processor

A

C. Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin

78
Q

The temperature of the oven used to maintain a supply of melted paraffin for embedding tissue should be about:

A. 43C
B. 43F
C. 60C
D. 60F

A

C. 60C

79
Q

When using a microscope with a x10 ocular and a x40 objective, the total magnification is approximately:

A. 100
B. 400
C. 1,000
D. 4,000

A

B. 400

Feedback

Important:
Total magnification (TM)
= magnification of objective x magnification of ocular
= 10 x 40
= 400

80
Q

The microwave oven creates heat in staining solutions by:

A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Nonionizing radiation
D. Electrolytic action

A

C. Nonionizing radiation

81
Q

Harris hematoxylin is used on tissue sections to stain:

A. Fat
B. Glycogen
C. Nuclei
D. Cytoplasm

A

C. Nuclei

82
Q

Ripening of hematoxylin is a process of:

A. Hydrolysis
B. Oxidation
C. Mordanting
D. Reduction

A

B. Oxidation

83
Q

The active staining ingredient in ripened hematoxylin solutions is:

A. Hematin
B. Hematein
C. Hematoxylin
D. Hemosiderin

A

B. Hematein

84
Q

The most important step in regressive hematoxylin staining is:

A. Postmordanting in picric acid
B. Use of hematoxylin containing acetic acid
C. Differentiation in acid-alcohol
D. Washing in water after the hematoxylin

A

C. Differentiation in acid-alcohol

85
Q

Mordants are used to:

A. Change the refractive index of the tissue
B. Help differentiate stains
C. Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye
D. Oxidize staining solutions

A

C. Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye

86
Q

The combination of a dye and a mordant is called a/an:

A. Base
B. Accelerator
C. Lake
D. Buffer

A

C. Lake

87
Q

Mercuric oxide (or sodium iodate) is used in Harris hematoxylin to:

A. Form hematein
B. Prevent oxidation
C. Serve as the mordant
D. Stabilize the solution

A

A. Form hematein

88
Q

DNA can be demonstrated with:

A. Eosin
B. Pyronin
C. Feulgen reaction
D. Fast green

A

C. Feulgen reaction

89
Q

The mordant in Weigert hematoxylin is:

A. Iron
B. Aluminum
C. Mercury
D. Tungsten

A

A. Iron

90
Q

Acetic acid is added to Harris hematoxylin to:

A. Keep heterochromatin from staining
B. Make nuclear staining more specific
C. Ripen the hematoxylin
D. Form a dye lake

A

B. Make nuclear staining more specific

91
Q

Which of the following is stained rose by the methyl green-pyronin (MGP) technique?

A. Heterochromatin
B. DNA
C. RNA
D. Golgi apparatus

A

C. RNA

92
Q

Differentiating in the H&E stain is an example of using:

A. Excess mordant
B. Weak acid
C. Oxidizers
D. Buffers

A

B. Weak acid

93
Q

The Feulgen reaction demonstrates:

A. DNA only
B. RNA only
C. Both DNA and RNA
D. Phosphoric acid groups

A

A. DNA only

94
Q

Sections for special stains have been accidentally stained with hematoxylin. To remove the hematoxylin, place the sections in:

A. Acid alcohol
B. Dilute ammonia
C. Lithium carbonate
D. Isopropyl alcohol

A

A. Acid alcohol

95
Q

Glycogen is best demonstrated by the use of:

A. Crystal violet
B. Mayer mucicarmine
C. PAS with and without diastase
D. Alcian blue with and without hyaluronidase

A

C. PAS with and without diastase

96
Q

Amyloid can be demonstrated with:

A. Congo red
B. Mayer mucicarmine
C. Cresyl echt violet
D. Alcian blue

A

A. Congo red

97
Q

Which of the following methods best demonstrates elastic tissue?

A. Verhoeff
B. Silver impreganation
C. Gomori trichrome
D. PAS

A

A. Verhoeff

98
Q

The oil red O stain requires which of the following sections?

A. Paraffin
B. Celloidin
C. Frozen
D. Plastic

A

C. Frozen

99
Q

The oil red O stain might be used to demonstrate:

A. Rhabdomyosarcomas
B. Leiomyosarcomas
C. Liposarcomas
D. Adenocarcinomas

A

C. Liposarcomas

100
Q

The best stain for the demonstration of Mycobacterium leprae is the:

A. Fite
B. PAS
C. Kinyoun
D. Gram

A

A. Fite

101
Q

The PAS reaction will demonstrate fungi, because the cell wall contains:

A. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Reducing substances
D. Argyrophilic protein

A

B. Carbohydrates

102
Q

A stain that may be used to demonstrate calcium is the:

A. Gomori chromium hematoxylin
B. Fontana-Masson
C. von Kossa silver nitrate
D. Schmorl method

A

C. von Kossa silver nitrate

103
Q

The Perl’s stain is used for the detection of:

A. Reducing substances
B. Hemosiderin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Calcium

A

B. Hemosiderin

104
Q

A tissue frequently used as a control for the Fontana-Masson stain is:

A. Skin
B. Lymph node
C. Liver
D. Spleen

A

A. Skin

105
Q

Toluidine blue stains:

A. Helicobacter
B. Legionella
C. Spirochetes
D. Chlamydia

A

A. Helicobacter

106
Q

Acridine orange demonstrates:

A. Cell wall
B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleic acid
D. Flagella

A

C. Nucleic acid

107
Q

Spirochetes in fixed tissue are best demonstrated by:

A. Histochemical techniques
B. Vital staining
C. Metallic impregnation
D. Physical methods

A

C. Metallic impregnation

108
Q

Muscle that histologically contains cytoplasmic cross-striations and has multiple nuclei located at the edge of the fibers is classified as:

A. Smooth
B. Visceral
C. Skeletal
D. Cardiac

A

C. Skeletal

109
Q

The terms “squamous,” “cuboidal,” and “columnar” describe cells that have their origin in which tissue?

A. Connective
B. Muscle
C. Epithelium
D. Bone

A

C. Epithelium

110
Q

Another name for fat cells is:

A. APUD cells
B. Myocytes
C. Adipocytes
D. Histiocytes

A

C. Adipocytes

111
Q

Elastic fibers have an affinity for:

A. Sudan
B. Indigo
C. Brazilin
D. Orcein

A

D. Orcein

112
Q

Transitional epithelium refers to:

A. Endothelium
B. Urothelium
C. Mesothelium
D. Metaplasia

A

B. Urothelium

113
Q

Which of the following histological features is unique to cardiac muscle?

A. Cross-striations
B. Peripherally located nuclei
C. Intercalated discs
D. Non-branching fibers

A

C. Intercalated discs

114
Q

In addition to its ability to stain argentaffin cell granules, the Fontana-Masson technique may also be used to stain:

A. Lipids
B. Collagen
C. Melanin
D. Spirochetes

A

C. Melanin

115
Q

A delicate three-dimensional connective tissue meshwork that forms the framework of organs, such as the spleen and lymph nodes, is made of:

A. Elastic fibers
B. Reticular fibers
C. Smooth muscle
D. Basement membrane

A

B. Reticular fibers

116
Q

The connective tissue cells actively involved in wound healing are:

A. Plasma cells
B. Mast cells
C. Macrophages
D. Fibroblasts

A

D. Fibroblasts

117
Q

An example of an exogenous pigment is:

A. Argentaffin
B. Melanin
C. Chromaffin
D. Carbon

A

D. Carbon

118
Q

The staining method considered to be most sensitive and specific for COPPER is the:

A. Chloranilic acid
B. Rhodanine
C. Orcein
D. Aldehyde fuchsin

A

B. Rhodanine

119
Q

The nerve process carrying electrical impulses away from the cell body is called a(n):

A. Neuron
B. Dendrite
C. Synapse
D. Axon

A

D. Axon

Feedback

Dendrites bring electrical signals to the cell body and axons take information away from the cell body.

120
Q

Hemosiderin, hemoglobin, and bile pigment are classified as:

A. Endogenous pigments
B. Artifact pigments
C. Exogenous pigments
D. Extraneous pigments

A

A. Endogenous pigments

121
Q

Malignant tumors of connective tissue are known as:

A. Carcinomas
B. Lipomas
C. Sarcomas
D. Fibromas

A

C. Sarcomas

122
Q

A rhabdomyosarcoma (malignant tumor, skeletal muscle) is suspected in a biopsy submitted to the laboratory. To aid in making a definitive diagnosis, a helpful stain would be the:

A. Phosphotungstic acid-hematoxylin (PTAH)
B. Gomori aldehyde fuchsin
C. Verhoeff-van Gieson
D. Periodic acid Schiff

A

A. Phosphotungstic acid-hematoxylin (PTAH)

123
Q

The use of mounting media makes stained tissue components more visible by:

A. Distinguishing only the nuclei
B. Distinguishing only the cytoplasm
C. Destaining after hematoxylin
D. Improving the index of refraction

A

D. Improving the index of refraction

124
Q

Neuritic plaques of Alzheimer’s disease consist of abnormal cell processes often in close proximity to deposits of:

A. Amyloid
B. Phospholipids
C. Neuromelanin
D. Astrocytes

A

A. Amyloid

125
Q
A

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