HIPAA Flashcards

1
Q

What is HIPAA

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996

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2
Q

What does HIPAA do?

A

Protects privacy and security of certain health information

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3
Q

HIPAA privacy rule?

A

establishes national standards for the protection of certain health information.

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4
Q

HIPAA security rule?

A

Establish a national set of security standards for protecting certain health information that is held or transferred in electronic form

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5
Q

What did the HITECH act 2009 do?

A

Expanded rules to business associates

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6
Q

HIPAA Privacy rule

A

Intended to protect privacy of all individually identifiable health information

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7
Q

What 2 things does the privacy rule protect?

A
  1. Protects privacy of all individually identifiable health information
  2. Protects identifiable health information held or transmitted by a covered entity or associate in any form
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8
Q

What 3 specific things does protected health information include? (3)

A
  1. physical or mental health condition
  2. provision of health care to the individual
  3. payment for the provision of health care to the individual.
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9
Q

When is patient authorization not required for disclosure of PHI?? (5)

A
  1. Information sharing needed for treatment
  2. Disclosure to family, friends, others involved in care of the individual as well as for notification purposes
  3. Information needed to ensure public health and safety
  4. Information needed to prevent or lessen imminent danger
  5. Disclosure in facility directories
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10
Q

What must an adequate privacy notice include? (6)

A
  1. The required heading
  2. A statement of uses and disclosures
  3. A statement of individual rights
  4. A statement of the covered entity’s duties
  5. An explanation of how to complain
  6. Required contact information
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11
Q

What does the security general rule do?

A

Establishes national standards to protect individuals electronic personal health information that is created, received, used, or maintained by a covered entity.

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12
Q

How does the security rule define confidentiality?

A

To mean that e-PHI is not available or disclosed to unauthorized persons

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13
Q

What 4 things must covered entities do under the security rule?

A
  1. Ensure the confidentiality of all e-PHI
  2. Protect against reasonably anticipated, impermissible uses
  3. Protect against reasonably anticipated threats to security
  4. Ensure compliance by workforce
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14
Q

What is the breach notification rule?

A

Requires HIPAA covered entities and their business associates to provide notification following a breach of unsecured protected health information

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15
Q

What is the definition of breach?

A

an impermissible use or disclosure under the Privacy Rule that compromises the security or privacy of the protected health information

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16
Q

HIPAA considerations for PT practice (5)

A
  1. Patient identification
  2. Evaluation procedures
  3. Sign in and out processes
  4. Physical layout of facility
  5. Computer security
17
Q

What are the penalties for violating HIPAA

A
  1. Civil or criminal sanction
  2. civil=fines, usually the result of inadvertent violations
  3. Criminal involve monetary penalties and jail time
18
Q

What are 3 causes of improper payment?

A
  1. Incorrect coding
  2. No documentation or insufficient documentation
  3. Medically unnecessary
19
Q

How does the fraud prevention system work?

A
  1. Monitors 4.5 claims each day
  2. Alerts generated and consolidated around providers and subsequently prioritized based on risk
  3. Regional results are provided to the zone program integrity contractor analyst and investigators
  4. Results available yo CPI and law enforcement
  5. ZPICs now work the top 100 leads in each zone
20
Q

What is fraud?

A

Health Care fraud schemes commonly include purposely billing for services that were not provided or were not medically necessary, billing for a higher level of service than what was provided, misreporting costs or other data to increase payments, paying or receiving kickbacks, illegally marketing products, and or stealing providers or beneficiaries’ identities… Basically inappropriate billing practices

21
Q

What is abuse?

A

Practices that either directly or indirectly result in unnecessary costs to Medicare or Medicaid, including misuse of codes on a claim, charging excessively for services or supplies, and billing for services that were not medically necessary

22
Q

What is the false claims act?

A

Civil liability for knowingly submitting or causing to be submitted a false or fraudulent claim to the federal government

23
Q

What is the anti-kickback statute

A

Criminal offense to knowingly and willfully offer, pay, solicit, or receive remuneration or induce or reward referrals of items or Services reimbursable by a federal health care program

24
Q

Stark law or physician self referral law

A

Prohibits referral for health services to an entity in which the physician (or member of immediate family) has ownership slash investment interest or a compensation arrangement

25
Q

Criminal health care fraud statue

A

Prohibits knowingly and willfully executing or attempting to execute a scheme or artifice to defraud a healthcare benefit program, or to obtain (by false or fraudulent pretenses) any of the money or property owned by or in the custody of the Health Care Program

26
Q

Whistleblower statue

A

Provision extended by Affordable Care Act to protect against retaliation

27
Q

What are penalties in general for violating anti-fraud laws/statutes?

A

Fines, prison, exclusion from federal program

28
Q

What is a compliance program?

A

Compliance programs enable providers and employers to reduce exposure to penalties and sanctions, and as a results improve efficiency and quality of services

29
Q

What is the benefit of compliance programs? 2

A
  1. Can show track record of following the rules

2. Illustrates that a compliance program is in place to ensure practitioners are acting appropriately

30
Q

What are some of the top compliance issues in physical therapy?

A
  • Services not medically necessary
  • Services not provided or documented
  • Up-bundling or upcoding
  • Time documentation inconsistent with service billed
  • Inappropriate personnel
  • Provider ID numbers misused
  • Care below accepted standards
  • Waving of copays o
31
Q

What are types of Medicare/Medicaid fraud and abuse violations?

A
  • Providing and billing for PT services without a PT license and/or without the appropriate supervision of a physician or licensed PT as required by federal and state law
  • Billing for PT services when the service performed was unskilled and did not constitute PT
  • Billing for PT services that were never performed, only partially performed, or not medically necessary
  • Licensee, knowingly or unknowingly, billing the incorrect code for treatment
32
Q

Why is so much effort invested in program integrity by Medicare?

A

Medicare Integrity Programs (MIP) protect Medicare from improper payments as well as fraud, abuse, and waste

33
Q

Who can deliver PT services that can be billed under medicare?

A

Physician, Non-Physician practitioner, PT, PTA

34
Q

What is “incident-to” billing?

A
  • “Incident to” services relate to services furnished as an integral, although incidental, part of the physician’s personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness.
  • A licensed healthcare provider such as a PT may provide the required services under the physician’s direct supervision, and these services are billed by the physician.
35
Q

What types of payment for referrals is acceptable under Medicare?

A

None, you can’t pay anyone for referrals because of the anti-kickback law

36
Q

What is a Corporate Integrity Agreement?

A

A corporate integrity agreement is negotiated by the Office of the Inspector General (OIG) as part of the settlement of federal health care program investigations into false claim violations

37
Q

What is the look back period for Medicare Recovery Audit Contractors?

A

3 years

38
Q

What is PHI?

A
  1. “Protected health information” (PHI)- Individually identifiable health information, including demographic information.