Hindlimb Flashcards

1
Q

what is integument?

A

skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the main functions of integument?

A

thermoregulation, secretion, sensory input, pigmentation, vitamin D metaolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is thermoregulation?

A

the ability of an organism to keep its body temperature within certain boundaries, even when the surrounding temperature is very different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what parts of the body are the core temperature?

A

brain, thorax and abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what happens to temperature after a normal increase in metabolic rate?

A

increase in temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the negative feedback loop for temperature

A
change in temp/body heat production
change in body temp
change in thermosensors
change in hypothalamic activity
altered heat loss/production
body temp returns to normal range
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the sacrotuberous ligament called in horses?

A

broad ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the difference in the sacrotuberous ligament in dogs and cats?

A

absent in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what muscles arise from the sacrotuberous ligament?

A

bicep femoris, superficial gluteal, piriformis and tenuissimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where does the biceps femoris insert?

A

by way of aponeurosis over the proximal stifle region onto the tibial tuberosity, further aponeurosis and small tendon also contribute to the calcanean tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the action of the biceps femoris?

A

flexion and extension of the stifle, extension of the hock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the innervation of the bicep femoris?

A

ischiatic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

where is the femoral triangle?

A

proximal medial thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the boundaries of the femoral triangle?

A

caudal edge of caudal belly or sartorius, cranial edge of pectineus, iliopsoas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what important structures lie within the femoral triangle?

A

VAN - vein, artery nerve

femoral region so femoral VAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which of the femoral VAN lies most caudally?

A

femoral vein most caudal, femoral vein is most cranial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

do the femoral VAN lie superficially or deep within the femoral triangle?

A

superficially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what muscle does the femoral nerve supply?

A

sartorius and quadriceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the GAPE muscles?

A

gracillis, adductors, pectineus, external obturator muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what cutaneous area does the femoral nerve supply?

A

doesn’t directly supply any cutaneous area

supplied by the saphenous branch of the femoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what area of the skin does the femoral nerve supply?

A

caudal/plantar leg, crus and pes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what area of skin does the saphenous nerve supply?

A

medial leg, crus and pes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

is there a saphenous artery/vein on the medial aspect of the crus?

A

yes

medial and lateral branches of both artery and vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how many heads does the gastrocnemius have?

A

2 heads - one medial and one lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which bony structures might be associated with the heads of the gastrocnemius?

A

the fabellae - one medial and one lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

where does the gastrocnemius insert?

A

by way of strong tendon onto the calcanean tuberosity
gastrocnemius tendon initially lies superficial to the tendon of the SDFT, but then runs lateral and eventually deep to it to insert on the calcanean tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the innervation of the gastrocnemius muscle?

A

tibial branch of the ischiatic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what does the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system do to aid physiological thermoregulation?

A

changes in the blood supply to the skin and contracts the erector pili muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the the physiological thermoregulation responses?

A

autonomic nervous system, evaporative heat loss (panting and sweating), thermogenesis (shivering and non-shivering)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the role of the sympathetic nervous system in thermoregulation?

A

stimulates contraction of vascular smooth muscle controlling resistance in small blood vessels, stimulates contraction of erector pili muscle adjusting the insulating properties of fur and plumage by increasing thickness of trapped layer of air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the result of high ambient temperatures on sympathetic activity and what is the body’s response?

A

decreased sympathetic activity
relaxation of resistance arterioles so blood directed to the dermis through subcutaneous adipose tissue, bypassing insulation
erector pili muscle relaxed so less trapped air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the result of low ambient temperatures on sympathetic activity and what is the body’s response?

A

increased sympathetic activity
contraction of resistance arterioles, reduced blood flow in dermis and subcutaneous fat layer provides insulation against heat loss from vasculature
erector pili contracts, stands hairs up and increases trapped air in fur, providing further insulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the order of species in regards to their normal core temperatures from low to high?

A

horse, cow/ox, pig, sheep, cat, dog

HOPS cat dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

which of the domestic species sweat the most?

A

horses sweat lots, cattle and sheep sweat moderately, pigs, dogs and cats sweat minimally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what do pigs, dogs and cats rely on most for evaporative heat loss?

A

panting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how does panting work?

A

rapid and shallow breathing that doesn’t go all the way down to the lungs, natural frequency of oscillation so relatively little energy expended, most of the water is coming from the nasal turbinates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

will a panting dog develop a respiratory alkalosis?

A

no - panting doesn’t affect ventilation as it is only in the nasal turbinates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

where does most energy generation take place in the body?

A

60-70% in the heart, brain, liver and kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how much energy is converted to heat during voluntary exercise?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the shivering method of thermogenesis?

A

primary involuntary means of increasing heat production

antagonistic muscles contract simultaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the non-shivering method of thermogenesis?

A

increases basal metabolic rate by increasing thyroid hormone levels and in brown fat (skeletal muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

when is brown fat important for an animal and how do brown fat levels change as the animal ages?

A

important for lambs- 40% of heat production
important for hibernating animals
thought to disappear in adults/as the animal changes- some evidence emerging to suggest otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does thyroid hormone do?

A

causes slow-developing prolonged increase in metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does an increase in the secretion of thyroid hormones do to metabolic rate?

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what happens if an animal reaches the lower critical temperature of the thermoneutral zone (TNZ)?

A

animal must start heat production to maintain body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what happens in an animal reaches upper critical temperature of the thermo neutral zone (TNZ)?

A

cutaneous blood flow has reached its maximum and extra energy is required for losing heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how does an adult animals LCT and TNZ compare to that of a neonate?

A

lower LCT and wider TNZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is the name of vitamin D3?

A

cholecalciferol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

where is vitamin D3 synthesised?

A

in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

describe vitamin D synthesis

A

7-dehydrocholesterol (7-DHC) interacts with sun to make cholecalciferol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what inhibits vitamin D synthesis?

A

dense fur coat and heavy pigmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are the three stages of hair growth?

A

anagen (growing phase), catagen (transition phase with regression of the lower part of the hair follicle) and telogen (resting phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what affects the hair growth cycle?

A

genetic, age, hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

when do most animal shed their coat?

A

seasonally- with the photoperiod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

which hormones influence shedding of the coat?

A

prolactin and melatonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

how does photoperiod influence hair loss?

A

photoperiod references the length of the day and night
melatonin is produces in the dark
longer nights = more melatonin production = more shedding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

how does an decrease in thyroid hormone impact hair growth/loss?

A

decreased time spent in anagen so less hair growth

increased times spent in telogen so increased hair loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what do sebaceous glands do?

A

secrete sebum oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the function of sebum?

A

oils hairs
forms an oily film on the skin that
retards water loss, lubricates skin, inhibits growth of certain bacteria, helps spread sweat, territorial marker for some animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

how is sebum secreted onto the skin?

A

escapes during piloerection as contractions of the piloerector muscle squeeze the gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

how is water resistance of the skin improved?

A

sebaceous gland secretions (lipids)

insoluble keratin within keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

how are sebaceous glands regulated?

A

regulated by sex steroid hormones
more active after puberty
larger and more productive in the breeding season

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

do birds have sebaceous glands?

A

none within feathers

during preening birds spread secretions from a gland at the base of their tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the sebaceous gland at the base of a birds tail called?

A

uropygial gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

where are specialised skin glands found? (3 examples)

A

anal sacs in dogs and cats
interdigital pouch of sheep
infraorbital pouch of sheep
tail glands of dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

why is melanin production important?

A

camouflage, mimicry, social communication, protection against harmful effects of solar radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the function of melanocytes?

A

synthesis and package vesicles of melanin, intact vesicles are transferred into keratinocytes
when the keratinocytes reach the surface of the skin melanin is shed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what are the two pigments of melanin?

A

eumelanin (black and brown) and pheomelanin (red and yellow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what can affect pigment synthesis?

A

genetics, local factors of the skin, hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

describe the synthesis of melanin

A

melanin synthesising hormone (MSH) outside the cell binds to a MSH receptor in the cell membrane, reactions inside the cell result in pigment production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what stimulates the production of melanin synthesising hormone (MSH)?

A
UV light
disease states (cushings syndrome)
other external signals (camouflage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what are keratinocytes?

A

main cells in the epidermis, stem cells in the stratum basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what are melanocytes?

A

dispersed between basal cells, produce pigment (melanin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are Langerhans cells?

A

monocytes-derived dendritic cells, immuno-surveillance cells, important in antigen presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what are Merkel cells?

A

mostly present in basal layer, sensory associated with nerve endings

76
Q

what are the layers of the skin starting deep?

A
dermis
basal lamina
stratum basale
stratum spinosum
stratum granulosum
stratum lucidum
stratum corneum

MOST SUPERFICIAL

77
Q

what is the stratum basale?

A

a single layer of cuboidal cells in contact with the basal lamina
stem cells that divide to form new keratinocytes to replace those lost at the surface

78
Q

what is the stratum spinosum?

A

spinous/prickle cell layer

several layers of keratinocytes bound tightly together by desmosomes

79
Q

what is the stratum granulosum?

A

few layers of cells, lots of keratinisation, abundant granules

80
Q

what is the stratum lucidum?

A

outermost dead cells, loss of nuclei, translucent keratinised epidermal cells

81
Q

what is the stratum corneum?

A

the outermost layer of epidermis
flattened cells
dead keratinised cells, continuously sloughed off

82
Q

what are the two layers of the dermis?

A

papillary layer (superficial) and reticular layer (deep)

83
Q

which bones make up the pelvis?

A

ilium, pubis, acetabulum, ischium

84
Q

which part of the pelvis is best used for harvesting bone marrow?

A

wing of the ilium

85
Q

How many bones are in the sacrum of the dog compared with the horse?

A

3 in dog, 5 in horse

86
Q

what kind of joint is the sacro-iliac joint?

A

fibrous joint, fused

87
Q

what supports the sacro-iliac joint?

A

ligaments from lumbar and sacral vertebrae

88
Q

what is the iliopubic eminence?

A

where the ilium meets the pubis

89
Q

where is the pecten?

A

the concavity at the cranial aspect of the pubis

90
Q

what fills the pecten?

A

prepubic tendon

91
Q

what is the function of the prepubic tendon?

A

provides attachment for the gracilis, pectineal and several abdominal muscles

92
Q

what attaches to the ischiatic arch?

A

muscle attachment for reproductive organs

93
Q

what does the sacrotuberous ligament originate and insert?

A

originates at sacrum

inserts at tuber ischium

94
Q

what is the pelvis symphysis?

A

where the two halves of the pelvis meet in the middle

95
Q

what kind of joint if the pelvis symphysis?

A

a cartilage joint

96
Q

how is the obturator foramen bound?

A

by the pubis and ischium

97
Q

what passes through the obturator foramen?

A

blood vessels and nerves - obturator nerve

internal obturator muscle of hip rotation and stabilisation

98
Q

what does the acetabulum articulate with?

A

the femur to make the hip joint

99
Q

what ligament is in the acetabular notch?

A

transverse ligament

100
Q

what attaches to the acetabular fossa?

A

teres ligament

101
Q

what are the main centres of ossification for the pelvis?

A

in each bone of the pelvis - ischium, ilium, pubis, acetabulum

102
Q

where are the secondary centres of ossification in the pelvis?

A

dorsal iliac crests, tuber ischium and ischiatic arch

103
Q

how can you tell the difference between the pelvis of a cat and a dog on an xray?

A

in a dog, the wings of the ilium and ischium diverge
in a cat, the wings are parallel
cat has a larger and more oval shaped obturator foramen, a smaller greater trochanter and a larger lesser trochanter

104
Q

how is the head of the femur arranged?

A

the greater trochanter is lateral and the head is medial

105
Q

where are trochanters, trochlea and condyles on the femur?

A

trochanters are proximal

trochlear are distal cranial and condyles are distal caudal

106
Q

what do the condyles of the femur articulate with?

A

the tibia to make the stifle joint

107
Q

what ligament attaches to the intercondylar fossa of the femur?

A

cruciate ligaments

108
Q

where is the popliteal fossa found?

A

the hollow behind the knee

109
Q

where are the centres of ossification in the femur?

A

head
greater trochanter
body
distal epiphysis

110
Q

what shape is the patella?

A

pyramid shaped

111
Q

where is the patella?

A

sits in the trochlear groove

cranial distal femur

112
Q

what directions does the patella move?

A

proximal and distal

113
Q

how does the patella interact with muscle?

A

embedded in quadriceps muscle tendon of insertion, continues as patellar ligament inserts onto tibial tuberosity

114
Q

what are the sesamoid bones of the femur called and where do they sit?

A

fabella

embedded in the gastrocnemius muscle at the caudal distal femur

115
Q

which of the fabella is not usually ossified and so not visible on a radiograph of a cat?

A

medial fabella

116
Q

which nerves supply the hindlimb?

A

gluteal
obturator
femoral
sciatic - branches into the tibial and fibular/peroneal

117
Q

what bones make up the hip joint?

A

head of the femur and the lunate surface of the acetabulum of the pelvis

118
Q

what stabilises the hip joint?

A

teres ligament/round ligament and surrounding muscle mass

119
Q

what are the extrinsic abductor muscles of the hindlimb?
where are they in regards to the hip?
where to they originate and insert?
what innervates them?

A

gluteal muscles- superficial, middle and deep
dorsal to the hip
originate- sacrum and pelvis on the gluteal surface
insert- greater trochanter
innervated by gluteal nerve

120
Q

what are the extrinsic adductors of the hip?
where are they in regard to the hip?
what innervates them?

A
GAPE muscles- all originate at ventral surface of hip
  Gracilis - inserts tibia and calcaneus
  Adductor
  Pectineus - femur
  External obturator
innervated by obturator nerve
121
Q

what are the extrinsic limb protractors/hip flexors?

A

tensor fascia latae
iliopsoas muscle
sartorius
rectus femoris

122
Q

where does the tensor fascia latae originate and insert, and what is its innervation?

A

originates ilium, inserts fascia latae

gluteal nerve

123
Q

where does the iliopsoas originate and insert, and what is its innervation?

A

originates lumbar vertebrae and ilium, inserts lesser trochanter of femur
femoral nerve

124
Q

where does the sartorius originate and insert, and what is its innervation? how many heads does this muscle have?

A

2 heads
originates ilium, inserts femur (short head) and tibial tuberosity (long head) via patellar ligament
femoral nerve

125
Q

where does the rectus femoris originate and insert, and what is its innervation?

A

part of the quadriceps muscle
originates at ilium, inserts at tibial tuberosity via patellar ligament
femoral nerve

126
Q

which muscles are extrinsic limb retractors/hip extensors?

A

biceps femoris
semitendinosus
semimembranosus

127
Q

where does the biceps femoris originate and insert, and what is its innervation?

A

originates tuber ischium, inserts fascia latae and calcaneus

sciatic nerve

128
Q

where does the semitendinosus originate and insert, and what is its innervation?

A

originates ischium, inserts tibia and calcaneus

sciatic nerve

129
Q

where does the semimembranosus originate and insert, and what is its innervation?

A

originates ischium, inserts femur and tibia

sciatic nerve

130
Q

which bone of the crural region is weight bearing?

A

tibia

131
Q

is the fibula medial or lateral?

A

lateral

132
Q

is there rotation in the crus region?

A

no

133
Q

where are the centres of ossification in the tibia?

A

proximal end, tibial tuberosity, body and distal end

134
Q

where are the centres of ossification in the fibula?

A

proximal end, body, distal end

135
Q

what are the bones of the stifle joint?

A

femur and tibia (and patella)

136
Q

what are the menisci and where are they?

A

C shaped cartilage that is wedges, sits bewteen the femur and tibia at the stifle joint, one medial and one lateral

137
Q

what are the functions of the menisci?

A

stabilise stifle joint, cushioning, proprioception (contain nerve endings, painful if damaged)

138
Q

what do the menisco-tibial ligaments (MTL) do?

A

hold menisci to tibia

139
Q

what does the transverse ligament of the stifle joint do?

A

between the cranial aspects of the menisci to stabilise menisci

140
Q

what does the menisco-femoral ligament (MFL) do?

A

holds femur to menisci

141
Q

where do the collateral ligaments of the stifle joint originate and insert?

A

medial epicondyle of femur to tibia

lateral epicondyle of femur to fibula and tibia

142
Q

how do the cruciate ligaments sit?

A

in a cross (one cranial and one caudal) from the intercondylar fossa to the medial aspect of the lateral condyle (cranial) and the intercondylar fossa (caudal)

143
Q

what is the function of the cruciate ligaments?

A

maintain femur over the menisci and resist rotation

144
Q

where does the patellar ligament insert?

A

on tibial tuberosity

145
Q

where does the patellar move when the limb is extended?

A

proximally onto the femur

146
Q

where does the patellar move when the limb is flexed?

A

distally onto the tibia

147
Q

what muscles are the extensors of the stifle?

A

sartorius (2 heads)

147
Q

what muscles are the extensors of the stifle?

A

sartorius (2 heads)

147
Q

what muscles are the extensors of the stifle?

A

sartorius (2 heads)

148
Q

what muscles are the extensors of the stifle?

A

sartorius (2 heads)

quadriceps

149
Q

what muscles are the flexors of the stifle?

A

biceps femoris
semitendinosus
semimembranosus
gastrocnemius

150
Q

in which species are all the tarsal bones present?

A

pig and dog

151
Q

what are the centres of ossification for the tarsal region?

A

each tarsal has one in the centre, except the calcaneus which has two

152
Q

what is the joint called between the tarsus and crus?

which bones are articulating at this joint?

A

tarso-crural joint

between the talus and the tibia and fibula

153
Q

what is the joint called between the proximal and medial rows of the tarsals called?

A

proximal intertarsal joint

154
Q

what is the joint called between the medial and distal rows of the tarsals called?

A

distal intertarsal joint

155
Q

what is the joint called between the tarsus and metatarsals?

A

tarso-metatarsal joint

156
Q

what is the joint support at the tarsus?

A

synovial joint with capsules

157
Q

what supports the tarsal region?

A

collateral ligaments (long and short)
plantar ligament
fibrocartilagenous reinforcement of joint capsule
retinaculum

158
Q

where is the long collateral ligament of the tarsal region?

A

laterally - fibula to 5th metatarsal

medially - tibia to 2nd metatarsal

159
Q

where is the plantar ligament and how does it work?

A

between the calcaneus and the metatarsal bones

counteracts pull on the calcanean tuberosity by common calcanean tendon

160
Q

what are the functions of the fibrocartilagenous

reinforcement of joint capsule?

A

Friction free surface for passage of tendons

Passive maintenance of joint

161
Q

what muscles flex the hock?

A

cranial tibial muscle
peroneus longus, peroneus brevis and peroneus tertius
long digital extensor muscle
lateral digital extensor muscle

162
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the cranial tibial muscle and what innervates it?

A

originates at lateral tibia, inserts metatarsal bones

innervated by fibular branch of sciatic nerve

163
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the peroneus longus muscle and what innervates it?

A

originates lateral tibia and fibula, inserts plantar tarsus

innervated by fibular branch of sciatic nerve

164
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the peroneus brevis muscle and what innervates it?

A

originates tibia and fibula, inserts 5th metatarsal bone

innervated by fibular branch of sciatic nerve

165
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the long digital extensor muscle and what innervates it?

A

originates at extensor fossa of femur, inserts at all digits

fibular branch of sciatic nerve

166
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the lateral digital extensor muscle and what innervates it?

A

originates lateral aspect of tibia, inserts -as fuses with lateral branches of long digital extensor- on a few digits only

167
Q

what muscles extend the hock?

A

common calcanean tendon (common tendons of biceps femoris, semitendinosus, gracilis, gastrocnemius and SDF
superficial digital flexor muscle
deep digital flexor muscle

168
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the superficial digital flexor muscle and what innervates it?

A

originates at lateral popliteal fossa on the femur (associated with gastrocnemius)
inserts at calcaneus as part of the common calcanean tendon and further branches to all digits
innervated by tibial branch of sciatic nerve

169
Q

what is the origin and insertion of the deep digital flexor muscle and what innervates it?

A

originates at tibia
laterally- runs over calcaneus, part of the fibrous reinforcement of joint capsule, held by retinaculum, protected by tendon sheath
medially- runs over medial aspect of tarsus
merges the divides into four branches for the digits to insert
innervated by tibial branch of sciatic nerve

170
Q

which spinal nerves supply the hindlimb?

A

L5, L6, L7, S1, S2

dorsal branches to dorsal structures, ventral branches to lumbosacral plexus

171
Q

what kind of nerves is the gluteal nerve and where does it run?

A

motor only

runs over dorsal surface of ilium

172
Q

what kind of nerve is the obturator nerve and where does it pass?
what muscles does this nerve supply?

A

motor only
passes through obturator foramen down to medial thigh
muscles- adductors so GAPE
gracilis, adductor, pectineus, external obturator

173
Q

what kind of nerve is the femoral nerve and where does it pass?
what muscles does this nerve supply?

A

motor and sensory

motor to cranial thigh muscles (hip flexors and stifle extensors), iliopsoas, sartorius and all heads of the quadriceps

174
Q

what reflex is the femoral nerve involved in? what happens after damage of this nerve? what is it sensory to?

A

patellar reflex
cannot extend stifle (no weight bearing), loss of patellar reflex
sensory to saphenous branch, including the femoral triangle

175
Q

what kind of nerve is the sciatic nerve and where does it pass?
what muscles does this nerve supply?

A

motor and sensory

runs over dorsal surface of body of the ilium, passes caudal to hip and runs beep to biceps femoris

176
Q

what is the sciatic nerve motor to?

A

caudal thigh muscles
hip extensors
stifle flexors - biceps femoris, semitendinosus and semimembranosus

177
Q

what are the branches of the sciatic nerve?

A

tibial and fibular

178
Q

what is the tibial nerve motor to?

A

caudal crural muscles
hock extensors - gastrocnemius
digital dlexors - superficial and deep

179
Q

what is the tibial branch of the sciatic nerve sensory to?

A

caudal/plantar aspect of limb

180
Q

what is the fibular branch of the sciatic nerve motor to?

A

cranial crural muscles
hock flexors - cranial tibial and peroneus group
digital extensors - long and lateral

181
Q

what is the fibular branch of the sciatic nerve sensory to?

A

cranial/dorsal limb and lateral thigh

182
Q

what can happen if the sciatic nerve is damaged?

A

lose supply to hip extensors/stifle flexors, hock extensors/digital flexors, hock flexors/digital extensors and lose sensation to all limb except medial thigh

can still abduct, adduct and flex hip/extend stifle

183
Q

what are the two main arteries of blood supply to the hindlimn?

A

external iliac artery, which leaves the aorta to become the femoral artery

184
Q

what is the order of arteries in the hindlimn?

A

external iliac, femoral (gives off saphenous for superficial supply to paw), popliteal, cranial tibial (deep supply to paw)

185
Q

where is lymphatic drainage in the hindlimb?

A

in the popliteal area, caudal to the stifle