High Yield (NZ) Flashcards

1
Q

Carbamazepine key SE

A
  • Contraindicated in absence/myoclonic jerks
  • Rash (+SJS)
  • Leukopenia
    Hyponatremia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Valproate key SE

A
  • Weight gain
  • Embryopathy/teratogenic
  • Hair loss
  • Pancreatitis
  • Hepatic failure
    Lamotrogine interaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Topiramate key SE

A
  • Nephrolithiasis
  • Weight gain
  • Acidosis
    Glaucoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clonazepam key SE

A
  • Increased secretions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Phenobarbitone key SE

A

Rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Phenytoin key SE

A
  • Rash
  • Serum sickness
  • Hirsuitism
  • Gum hypertrophy
    Osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lamotrogine key SE

A
  • Rash
  • SJS
  • Severe hypersensitvity
    Valproate interaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Vigabatrin key SE

A
  • Weight gain
  • Retinopathy
    Psychosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Oxycarbazepine key SE

A

Hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  • Which AEDs decreases half life of lamotrogrine and which increase half life?
  • Which drugs are CYP inducers and which are CYP inhibitors?
A

Drug Interactions
Decrease half life of lamotrogine
* Carbamazepine
* Phenytoin
* CYP inducers, increase metabolism

Increase half life of lamotrogine
* Valproate - increases levels of most AEDS
* Valproate - enzyme inhibitor

Valproate increases levels of carbamazepine (and most AEDs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Epilepsy:
What is overview of how to classify epilepsy?

A
  • Are they having seizures vs other events? - Witness account
    • What is seizure type?
    • What is epilepsy type?
    • Do they fit epilepsy syndrome? Need EEG/VEM
    • Cause/etiology of epilepsy? - Labs, genetics, imaging
      Mx - acute, broad spectrum - antiseizure medications, ketogenic diet, VNS (vagal nerve stimulation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Epilepsy:
What is definition of epileptic seizure and epilepsy?

A
  • Epileptic seizure - transient episode of neurological dysfunction brought about by abnormal synchronous and excessive discharge or cerebral neurons
    • Epilepsy - occurrence of 2 or more (recurrent) unprovoked epileptic seizures > 24 hours apart
    • A single seizure and evidence of seizure predisposition ( at least 60%) over next 10 years
    • An epilepsy syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Epilepsy:
What is physiology of nerve cells and nerve conduction?

A
  • Nerve cells are resting, exciting or inhibiting other nerve cells
    • Signals travel down cell body –> axon –> synapse
    • Modified by ion (sodium, potassium, calcium) currents across channels in nerve cell membrane
    • Neurotransmitters pass across synapses
    • Excitatory (eg glutamate) or inhibitory (GABA/glycine) towards next neuron
      Seizures occur when imbalance within these excitatory and inhibitory circuits in the brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Epilepsy:
What are common DDx/mimics for seizures?

A
  • Vasovagal
    • Cardiac arrythmias -always consider cardiac (ECG - QTc), vagal responses
    • Breath holding attacks - 6 month - 6 years, upset, hold breath, pale, limp, twitching of limbs
    • Day dreaming - especially in developmental delayed/intellectually impaired
    • Self stimulating behaviour - infantile masturbation- legs crossed over pelvis
    • benign neonatal sleep myoclonus- only when asleep, history, subcortical, not synchronous or organised
    • Migraine
    • Simple motor tic
    • Night terrors/parasomnias
      Pseudoseizures - often a new seizure type in a patient with epilepsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Epilepsy:
What are characteristics of frontal lobe focal seizure?

A
  • Frontal (contains motor)
  • Involve motor of face and eyes
  • Hyperkinesia
  • Abduction, adduction of lower limbs
  • Motor - face and eyes
    Contralateral side
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which medication makes absence seizures worse?

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Epilepsy:
What are types of generalised seizures?

A
  • Tonic - stiff
    • Clonic - jerks
    • Tonic clonic - stiff then jerks
    • Absence - typical, atypical, myoclonic absence - jerking with absence, eyelid myoclonia - jerking of eyelid
    • Myoclonic - jolt, Myoclonic - atonic - jolt, then lose tone, myoclonic - tonic - jolt then stiff
    • Atonic - lose tone
      Spasms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Epilepsy
What are types of focal seizures?

A

Characterised by
* Motor - focal clonic/tonic/dystonic (contract involuntarily)
* Focal - sensory
* Hypermotor
* Spasms
Non motor
* Autonomic
* Behavioural arrest
* Sensory
* Emotional
* Impaired or aware
May evolve to bilateral convulsive seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is characteristics of childhood absence syndrome?

A
  • Hyperventilates
    • 3 Hz spike and wave - spike and slow wave
    • Lasts ~ 5 seconds
    • Cannot recall word during this time
    • Tx -1st line- Ethosuximide, 2nd line Sodium valproate
    • Prognosis - good, grow out by 2 years
      Older - absence seizure + myoclonic seizures - juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, older, not so encouraging, lifelong
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is risk with febrile convulsions of recurrent of FC and epilepsy?

A

Risk of recurrence
* < 12 months - 50%, < 12 months - 20%
* Other risk - FHx of C, low temperature, short duration between fever and Sz
* No risk factor and > 18 months - 4%
* Al risk factors and < 18 months - 76%
Risk of epilepsy
* ~ 3%
* Risk factors:
* FHX 1st degree relative of epilepsy
* Complex FS - prolonged/focal
* Abnormal neurology
* No risk factor - 1%
* 1 risk factor - 2%
2 or more - 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are features of temporal lobe focal seizure?

A
  • Focal (most common type)
    • Temporal lobe - staring, lip smacking, fidgeting, head and eye turning to one side
    • Can be caused by prolonged febrile convulsion (50 mins) causing scarring of temporal lobe and hippocampus
    • Difficult to treat, refractory
      Often require surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are characteristics of Dravet syndrome?

A
  • Often present with febrile seizure, hemiclonic
    • Then develops afebrile seizures and developmental regression
    • Genetic testing
    • Na channel
      Carbazepine for focal seizure - worsens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Benign rolandic epilepsy?

A
  • Rolandic epilepsy
    • Symptoms from sleep
    • Facial jerking, drooling, aphasic, bilateral jerking
    • Sharp slow waves, centrotemporal spikes
      Prognosis - usually resolves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Lennox Gaustaut?

A
  • Abnormal movements and spasms
    • Development stagnates
    • Initial response to Tx
    • Evolves tonic and absence seizures
      Can develop from West syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are key syndromes for neonatal period?
Benign familial neonatal epilepsy * AD * Within 7 days * Tonic clonic seizures Ohtahara syndrome * Tonic * Can develop into infantile spasms Early myoclonic encephalopathy * Myoclonic seizures Can develop into infantile spasms
26
When should EEG be performed and timing?
* EEG does not rule out a diagnosis of epilepsy * Should not be ordered in unsure whether events are epileptic seizures or not * Should be performed for all children who have epileptic seizure as essential for diagnosing epilepy stpe and making epilepsy syndrome diagnosis * Making this diagnosis helps to direct therapy, direct further Ix, prognostic info Timing - single epileptic seizure - within 8 weeks, 2 or more epileptic seizures - within 2 weeks, suspected developmental or epileptic encephalopathy - as soon as possible - eg within 48 hours for infantile spasms
27
How to interpret unexpected normal EEG result?
* Half of children with epilepsy will have normal EEG - normal EEG does not exclude * Only capturing 20 mins in time * Gold standard is video capturing EEG of ictal event- difficult in practice * Rolandic - no sleep obtained * Absence - no hyperventilation, Temporal lobe events - No HV, no sleep deprivation, sampling errors
28
What are abnormal EEG findings and proportion related to having epilepsy?
* 1-2 Hz spike wave - 98% * 3 Hz spike wave - 97% * Fast rhythmic activity - 97% * Temporal spikes - 90% * Occipital spikes - 90% * Centro-temporal spikes - 55-85% Spikes - 2-3% people without epilepsy will have
29
Epilepsy When is MRI indicated?
* Develop epilepsy before aged 3 * Any suggestion of focal epileptic seizure onset on Hx, Ex or EEG * Epileptic seizures continue in spit of first line medications * Not required in genetic generalised epilepsies (or clear genetic focal epilepsy) Subtle lesions may be hard to find - repeat imaging
30
What is Status Epilepticus and 2 important time points?
* 5 minutes or more of continous clinical and/or electrographic seizure activity or recurrent seizure activity without recovery * Most Sz last less than 5 mins, if seizures until then unlikely to stop spontaneously * T1 - 5 mins - time when seizures unlikely to cease spontaneously, abortive Tx introduced T2 - 30 mins - time to neuronal injury with generalised convulsive seizures - due to hypoxia, need to escalate to more aggressive Mx
31
What is acute Mx for seizure?
* ABCS * IV access * 2 x midazalom or benzo -not ongoing doses and benzos downregulate GABA receptors and make refractory to further AEDs * AED - keppra or phenytoin * Earliest possible termination of seizure to prevent neuronal damage * EEG monitoring Search for cause - glucose, Ca
32
What is rescue medication and when indicated?
* Buccal midazolam 2.5 - 10mg Rescue medication - over 3 months, prolonged febrile or afebrile tonic and/or clonic seizures (> 5 minutes)
33
What are 1st line AED for generalised and focal epilepsy types?
Generalised: * GTC: * Over 3 - sodium valproate * Under 3 - clobazam, levetiracetam, lamotrogine * Myoclonic - Valporate, clobazam * Tonic/atonic - Valproate, clobazam Focal * Carbamazepine Lamotrogine - Han Chinese HLA-B 1502
34
What are first line treatments for epilepsy syndromes? (Absence, juvenile myoclonic, centrotemporal spikes)
Absence epilepsy * 1st - Ethosuximide (same efficacy as valproate but less side effects) * 2nd - Valproate, lamotrogine * 3rd - Levetiracetam, clobazam, acetazolamide Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy * 1st - Valproate * 2nd - lamotrogine, levetiracetam, topiramate Childhood epilepsy with CT spikes * 1st - carbamazepine, lamotrogine 2nd - levetiracetam, valproate
35
What are 1st line AED treatment for more serious epilepsy syndromes? (IS, Dravet, Lennox Gastaut)
Infantile spasms * 1st - Prednisolone/ACTH - 2 weeks then taper * 1st (with tuberous sclerosis) - Vigabatrin * 2nd - Vigabatrin, ketogenic diet Dravet syndrome * 1st - Valproic acid, clobazam * 2nd - levetiracetam, ketogenic diet, stiripentol Lennox Gastaut syndrome * 1st - Valproate, clobazam 2nd - ketogenic diet, rufinamide, felbamate
36
What are some precision treatment, gene specific Tx?
* TS - vigabatrin, mTOR inhibitors * SCN1a (Dravet) - valproate, clobazam, lev, CBD, fenfluramine * KCNQ2 (Developmental and epileptic encephalopathy - carbamazepine, phenytoin * PRRT2 (benign familial infantile seizures- carbamazepine * SLC2A1 (absence or myoclonus) associated GLUT1 - ketogenic diet HLA-B*1502 antigen - identify individuals at high risk of carbamazepine induced SJS
37
Where do main classes of AEDs work?
* GABA - valproate, vigabatrin, benzos, barbiturates, gabapentin * Na + channels - carb, lamotrogine, phenytoin * SV2A - levetiracetam * NMDA - valproate Ca - Ethosux
38
What are alternative treatments to AEDs?
* Vagal nerve stimulation * Ketogenic diet * Epilepsy surgery Immunomodulation - steroid, IVIG
39
What is SUDEP and risk factors?
* 1/3,000 * Higher risk with neurodisability, CP, can't clear secretions - 25% over 20 years * High seizure frequency, convulsive During or shortly after seizure - resp failure, seizure induced bradyarrythmias
40
NMD: What are key features on history for neuromuscular disease?
* Weakness and sensory * Distribution - single limb, patchy, proximal, distal * Acuity - acute vs chronic * PHx - was child previously normal? * Trauma, illness, meds, immunisations, toxin exposure Rate of deterioration
41
What is myopathic facies?
* Expressionless, sunken cheeks, bilateral ptosis, unable to elevate corners of mouth * Open mouth High arched palate- way it descends is how strong muscles are
42
NMD: What are causes of different distributions of weakness?
* Nerve disease - mainly peripheral * SMA - generalised * SMA III and limb girdle muscle dystrophy - Duchenne - proximal Facio - scapular humeral dystophy - scapula, facial weakness
43
NMD: What are targeted examinations for neuromuscular disease?
Gower sign * Sit up from chair, have to assist self standing up * Proximal weakness Myotonia * Difficult opening fist from clenched fist * Induce mytonia by tapping on thenar eminenence- coming in Fasciculations * Denervation Scapular winging * Limb girdle dystrophies Facio-scapular humeral dystrophy
44
NMD: What are features of neuropathy?
* Numbness * Pain * Sensitivity to touch * Coordination difficulty - proprioception * Weakness Bladder/bowel dysfunction
45
NMD: What are main causes of acquired vs congenital NMD?
Acquired -Is and Ts * Inflammation * Iatrogenic - chemo agents * Infection * Trauma * Toxic - organophosphates * Tumour Congenital * Genetic/metaboilc Maternal - check mother
46
What is the best test if confident for CMT?
* Gene testing CMT1a - 17p11PMP-22 (chromosome 17 duplication)
47
What is common presentation for CMT1
* Muscle wasting, difficulties with proprioception, co-ordination, balance Family history often positive - dominant inheritance
48
NCS - What are parameters measured?
* Latency - Speed of conduction - time relationship between stimulus and the response (speed of conduction) Amplitude - How well preserved the signal is- voltage relationship between stimulus and response (preservation of voltage)
49
NCS - What is conduction velocity and what pathologies does it show?
* Examines intergrity of myelin sheath * Wire intact - conducts faster * Eg - CMT Type 1 - demyelinating neuropathies * Conduction velocity decreases below 50% in CMT Type 1 * Sensory fibres are most vulnerable and affected first In severe demyelination, sensory responses may be altogether absent
50
NCS - What is amplitude and which pathologies does it show?
* Any pathology which reduces number of nerve fibres or muscle fibres will reduce amplitude * Lose nerve fibres * Eg - CMT Type 2 - axonal neuropathies * Sensory fibres affected first, decreased amplitude * Progresses, motor amplitudes decreases Velocity also slowed down due to decrease of fast conducting fibres
51
What are 2 types of CMT and findings on NCS?
Type 1 - demyelinating -loss myelin and slower conduction, decreased conduction velocity Type 2 - axonal loss - less muscle fibres, decreased amplitude
52
What are causes of demyelinating, axonal and inflammatory neuropathy?
Demyelinating - decreased conduction velocity * CMT 1 and 4 * HMSN 3 * Krabbe * MLD Axonal - decreased amplitude or block * CMT 2 Inflammatory CIDP
53
What is clinical presentation and pathophys of myaesthenia gravis?
* Opthalmoplegia - paralysis of extraocular eye movements * Ptosis CXR * Thymus hyperplasia Enlarged thymus - benign * Problem at neuromuscular junction ACh receptor blocked by antibody
54
What expect on NCS for myaesthenia gravis?
* Accumulation of ACh, block NMJ * Amplitudes and conduction velocities normal * Slow repetitive stimulation of muscle - decremental response * Each subsequent response lower and lower Could also be other things that block NMJ - eg organophosphate phosphates
55
What is difference between dystrophy and myopathy and expected CK?
* Dystrophy - degenerative loss and destruction of previously normal architecture, relatively high CK Myopathy - abnormal architecture, minimal increase in CK
56
What is SMA?
* Recessive * 2nd most common after CF * 1 in 40-60 carrier * 1/10,000 * SMA0 - all 4 copies deleted, lethal in utero * Type 1 SMA - lost SMN1, have SMN2 * Type 2 SMA - 3 x SMN2, lost 1 SMN1 * Type 3 SMA - 4 x SMN * Loss of SMN1 protein Multiorgan
57
What is EMG electromyography? 2 common pathologies?
* Muscle function and individual motor units * Needle placed into muscle or motor unit What is pathology seen on EMG? * SMA - active denervations, random potentials, fibrilliations - seen clinically as fasciculations Myotonia - high frequency discharges vary in amplitude and frequency
58
NF1: What is genetics?
* 1:3,000 * Autosomal dominant * 30-50% new mutations * Due to mutations in NF1 gene * Tumour suppressor gene - codes for neurofibromin - regulates cell signal transduction pathways 100% penetrant by 5 years
59
NF1: diagnostic criteria?
Diagnostic Criteria - requires 2 or more 1. Equal or more than 6 café au lait patches - (not uncommon to see 1-2) ,> 5mm prepubertal, > 15mm postpubertal 2. 1st degree relative with NF - must examine parents/siblings 3. Axillary or inguinal freckling - develop by ~ 5 4. Optic nerve glioma - 15%, normal vision, symptomatic 2%, loss of vision/proptosis if expands. Treat with carboplatin - critical, can preserve vision 5. 2 neurofibromas or 1 plexiform neurofibroma - neurofibroma - peripheral nerve sheath tumour, benign, plexiform neurofibroma - more extensive tumour, can become malignant 6. Lisch nodule - tan coloured harmatomas of iris, do not affect vision, Opthal with slit lamp Distinctive osseous lesions - thinning of long bones, long bone/sphenoid wing dysplasia, pathological #
60
NF1: Other Complications/ Manifestations
UBOs - unidentified bright objects * Hyperintense regions on T2 MRI * Cerebellum > brainstem > internal capsule * Benign * Present in 2/3 * Increase in size until 10 y.o then often disappear Seizures * 5% * ? Assoc with UBOs * If focal, consider intracranial malignancy Learning difficulties * 50%, ID 5% * Lower IQ but not everyone CNS Tumours * Optic nerve gliomas common * Other CNS tumours not as common (but x 5 risk than general population) Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath tumours * Neurofibrosarcoma * Pre-existing plexiform neurofibromas * Painful, rapid growth * Highly malignant - PET and surgery Spinal Neurofibromas * Infiltrate spinal * Extensive and painful Scoliosis * Most common in adolescence Short stature * 10-15% Macrocephaly * Common, related to stature, brain volume increased Hypertension * 6% - renal artery stenosis, phae Pubertal disturbance * Rare, consider CNS lesion Mortality Mean age death 54/59
61
NF1: Monitoring?
Yearly: * Learning evaluation and formal psychometric evaluation * Neuro assessment * BP * Scoliosis * 6-12 monthly Opthal Routine neuroimaging not recommended (controversial)
62
NF2: Genetics?
Genetics * Autosomal dominant * Up to 50% new mutations * Due to mutations in NF2 gene * Tumour suppressor gene - codes for merlin - merlin links between membrane proteins/cell cytoskeleton * Fully penetrant * Non sense/frameshift - severe disease Missense - milder
63
NF2: diagnostic criteria?
Diagnostic Criteria - one of 1. Bilateral vestibular schwannoma 2. First degree relative with NF2 AND unilateral vestibular schwannoma or 2 of meningioma, schwannoma, glioma, neurofibroma, lenticular opacities (cataracts) 3. Multiple meningiomas AND unilateral vestibular schwannoma, 2 of schwannoma, glioma, neurofibroma, lenticular opacity
64
NF2: Clinical Features?
CNS Tumours * Almost all will have bilateral vestibular schwannoma by aged 30 Neurological lesions * Vestibular schwannoma 95% * Meningiomas * Spinal tumours Eye lesions * Cataracts 60-80% * Retinal harmatomas Other * Unilateral hearing loss 35% * Focal weakness * Tinnitus * Bilateral hearing loss * Balance dysfunction * Seizure * Focal sensory deficit * Visual loss * DON'T get > 6 CAL/Lisch nodules/axillary freckling Average age of death 36
65
NF2: Management
* Average age death 36 * Spinal tumours in 2/3 * Annual MRI * Surgical Mx of vestibular schwannoma * Monitor and treat cataracts as needed * New Rx - Avastin (bevacizumab) - shrinks vestibular schwannomas
66
Tuberous Sclerosis - genetics
* Autosomal dominant (2/3 new, 1/3 FHx) * Abnormal TSC1 or TSC2 (tumour suppressor gene) --> encode tuberin and hamartin --> abnormal signalling/expression --> hamartomas * Multiple benign harmartomas (benign growth disorganised cells) of multiple organs * Tuber = potato
67
TS - skin findings and approx %
SKIN 3 Hypomelanotic depigmented lesions (Ash leaf) · May only be seen on Woods lamp · Present in nearly all Shagreen patch · Leathery · 60% Ungual/periungal fibroma · Nail Facial Angioma or Forehead plaque · Adenoma sebaceum "acne like" - 75% · Butterfly/malar region · Forehead plaque - distinctive brown fibrous plaque on forehead - 25%
68
TS - brain and CNS findins
``` BRAIN (>75%) · Cortical tubers "potatoes" · Subependymal nodules · Astrocytoma - subependymal giant cell astrocytoma · Can cause hydrocephalus · White matter radial migration · Seizures · ID Behavioural issues ```
69
TS - renal, cardiac, other and complications?
``` RENAL (common 80%) · Renal angiomyolipomas · Can bleed · Multiple renal cysts - benign · Renal cell carcinoma 3% ``` CARDIAC · Cardiac angiomyolipomas · Rhabdomyomas OTHER Opthal · Retinal lesions (harmatomas), Mulberry lesions RESP · LAM - lymphangiomyomatosis Complications · 85% with TS have Cx · Seizures - infantile spasms - 20% will have TS, myoclonic, partial, GTCS, can be refractory to Tx · Intellectual Disability 50% - mild to severe Behaviour - ADHD, autisim, sleep
70
TS - surveillance, Mx and counselling?
``` Surveillance • Brain - MRI, EEG • Renal - imaging • Cardiac - Echo, ECG • Resp ``` Mx • mTOR inhibitors - sirolimus, everolimus • Renal - embolisation • Seizures - vigabactrin Genetic counselling • Must assess parents - Woods lamp, MRI brain, renal, opthal If normal, recurrent risk 2% (not 0% gonadal mosaicism)
71
Encephalitis What is it and common causes?
* Brain inflammation * Infectious 75% - enterovirus 10%, parechovirus 10%, bacterial 8%, influenza 6%, HSV 6%, mycoplasma pneumoniae 6% * Immune - 25% ADEM 18%, anti NMDA 6% * 5% mortality - most from infectious * 1/3 have mod-severe neurological sequale Study excluded neonates
72
Encephalitis What is definition and criteria?
* Altered mental state > 24 hours (with no alternative cause) * 2 for possible, 3 probable/confirmed: * Fever wtihin 72 hours * New seizures (not fully attributable to pre-existing disorder) * New onset focal neuro findings * CSF WCC > 5 * Neuroimaging abnormality consistent with encephalitis * EEG abnormality consistent with encephaliitis And EXCLUSION of encephalopathy caused by trauma, metabolic, tumour, alcohol, sepsis, other infectious causes
73
ADEM - Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
What is it and clinical presentation? * Monophasic inflammatory disease * Age 5-8 * Often a preceeding acute systemic infection or vaccination * Prodrome - fever, malaise, headache, myalgia, nausea and vomiting * Rapidly progressive encephalopathy not explained by fever * Behavioural change or altered consciousness - must be present * Other polyfocal neurological signs - CN palsies, hemiparesis, ataxia, myelopathy or optic neuritis Abnormal MRI
74
ADEM What are most common clinical signs?
* Unilateral/bilateral pyramidal signs * Acute hemiplegia * Ataxia * CN palsies * Visual loss due to optic neuritis * Seizures * Spinal cord involvement - often silent, inflamm protocols always have MRI brain and spine Impairment of speech
75
ADEM What are common CSF findings? What are common MRI findings?
* Mild pleocytosis (less than 50 WCC) * Oligoclonal bands uncommon ADEM What are common MRI findings? * T2 hyperintense lesions (T2 CSF white but FLAIR CSF signal suppressed) * Deep and subcortical white matter * Sparing of periventricular white matter and corpus callosum * Deep grey matter (thalamic and basal ganglia) less common * Cerebellum, brainstem and optic nerves Spinal cord involvement detected in absence clinical defect
76
ADEM What are common DDx?
* Infections bacterial, viral and fungal - should be covered with aciclovir, cannot tell clinically between ADEM and acute viral encephalitis * Metabolic - organic aciduria, mitochondial disease * Autoimmune disease - SLE, Behcet's, sarcoidosis, primary CNS vasculitis * Autoimmune encephalitis * Macrophage activation - eg HLH * Malignancy - lymphoma, glioma MS
77
ADEM What is Mx?
* Antibiotics and aciclovir while excluding other diagnoses * 1st line - Steroids - methylprednisolone 3-5/7 -immunosuppressive * 2nd line - IVIG - 2-5/7, steroid unresponsive * Plasmapheresis - acute fulminant demyelinating disease Surgical decompression - raised ICP and continued clinical deterioration
78
ADEM What is prognosis?
* Rapid improvement usually over days * Full recovery 1-6 months * Full recovery 57-89% * Minor residual deficits 20-30% * Increased recognition of subtle neurocognitive deficits - subtle deficits in attention, executive function, behaviour when re-evaluated over 3 yers after ADEM Lower IQ, behavioural problems, lower educations achievement
79
MOG What is MOG and antibodies against MOG?
* MOG positive * MOG - myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein * Protein expressed on surface of oligodendrocytes and myelin in CNS Plasma cells in blood produce antibodies, cross BBB, attack MOG protein on oligodendrocytes and myelin in CNS
80
What is MOGAD?
* MOG associated demyelinating disease * Affect adult and children * Spectrum of conditions that can be MOG positive * Can be isolated ADEM ADEM + optic neuritis + longitudinally transverse myelitis
81
What are common demyelinating syndromes and approx percentage that are MOG antibody positive?
* 30% of all acquired demyelinating syndromes * 35% of relapsing disease Demyelinating syndrome and % MOG Ab positive * All acute demyelinating syndromes - 30% * ADEM 60% * Multiphasic ADEM (recurs after 3 months of initial) or ADEM-ON (optic neuritis) - 95% * Optic neuritis 37% Transverse myelitis 13%
82
MOG Ab positive What is acute Mx?
· IV methylpred 3-5/7 (similar to ADEM of any cause) · 2nd line - IVIG · Longer steroid taper > 3 months - reduced risk of relapse Most relapses occur below 0.25-0.5mg/kg/day
83
MOGAD When and what maintenance therapy to commence?
· Multiphasic, recurrence · Commence maintanence therapy · Azathioprine, mycophenolate, rituximab - all decreases relapses but not all cases Monthly IVIG - least anount of relapses
84
Multiple sclerosis Overview
· Rarer in children but earlier onset, higher disability score · Multiple episodes of CNS demyelination separated in time and space · Usually present with Clinically isolated syndrome, not ADEM Second event usually occurs in first 2 years
85
MS What is diagnostic criteria?
· Multiple episodes of CNS demyelination separated in time and space · 2 non encephalopathic clinical CNS events more than 30 days apart, more than 1 area of CNS · 1 non encephalopathic CNS event with MRI findings and a follow up MRI 1 new lesion · 1 episode ADEM (encephalopathy) and a non encephalopathic CNS event 3 months later, differnet area · Non ADEM event with associated MRI findings Aggressive - to start disease modifying treatment earlier
86
MS What are differentiating factors between ADEM and MS?
· ADEM: 5-8 yr, equal gender, viral prodrome common, encephalopathy required, seizures cmmon, MRI large lesions, CSF WCC variable, oligoclonal bands variable, MS: adolescent, F>M, viral prodrome uncommon, seizures rare, MRI over time new lesions, pleocytosis rare, oligoclonal bands common
87
MS What is Mx?
· Methylprednisolone - immunosupressive, anti-inflammatory Disease modifying medications - Fingolimod (most used now), intergeron B 1a, copaxone, natalizumab
88
AQP4 Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder NMOSD What is it?
· Acquired inflammatory demyelinating disease · Mainly involved optic nerves, brainstem and spinal cord, severe attacks of optic neuritis and transverse myelitis · Childhood- late adulthood - ~39, female >male · Aggressive, 80% risk relapse · 50% chance of visual impairment or wheelchair dependent within 5 years Start maintenance therapy after 1st episode
89
NMSOD What are clinical features?
Optic neuritis · Bilateral simultaneous or sequential ON rapid · Visual impairment > 60% Transverse myelitis · Complete - para or tetraparesis · Longitudinally extensive (>3 vertebral segments) · Mainly cervical or thoracic cord Can go to lower medulla - cause brainstem symptoms - vomiting, hiccups
90
NMOSD What is acute Mx?
· 1st line - steroid - high dose IV methylpred 3-5/7 · Long taper 3-6 months · 2nd line - IVIG · Plasma exchange Earlier escalation to PLEX had better outcomes
91
NMDA receptor encephalitis What is it?
· 1/3 < 18 years · F>M · Anti-NMDA receptor antibodies - directed against GluN1 subunit of NMDA receptor · Best tested on CSF (15% missed on serum, MOG and AQ can be tested serum) High risk of underlying tumour, mainly ovarian teratoma - do US or MRI
92
NMDA receptor encephalitis What are common clinical features?
· Behaviour change · Psychiatric - Psychosis, delusions, hallucinations, agitation, aggression, catatonia, 77% of adult patients first see psyhiatrist. Rarely only manifestation · Loss of speech, aphasia, perseveration, mutism · Dyskinesia - orofacial and oculogyric movements and perseverative (repetitive movements) · Seizures · Sleep disturbance/insomnia Dysautonomia
93
NMDA encephalitis What is treatment?
· Tumour removal · 1st line - methyprednisolone, oral pred or IV pulse 3-12 months · Severe patients - AND IVIG or PLEX · Rituximab - 2 weeks after first line, for 4 weeks · Prolonged admission/slow recovery - up to 18 months · Symptom control - anticonvulsants, benzos, clonidine, chloral, sodium valproate Caution with antipsychotic use - > 50% have dystonic reaction or NMS
94
Demyelinating disease What are common antibodies and which anatomy assoc with?
· Neuronal surface or synaptic antigens - NMDA · Oligodendrocyte antibodies - MOG Astrocytes - AQP4
95
GBS What is cause and overview?
· Acute monophasic polyradiculoneuropathy · Acute inflamm demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP) in children, adults axonal · Criteria - progressive, ascending, bilateral legs then arms, reduced tendon reflexes · Elevated CSF protein - 1/3 have normal if early · Preceding infection 3-6 weeks earlier - Campylobacter 30%, CMV, EBV, mycoplasma
96
GBS What are common presenting features?
· Non specific pain - can be severe require gaba · Ascending weakness - 60% unable to walk, 10-15% require ventilation · Peak 7-10 days Autonomic dysfunction - bladder, constipation, hypertension, tachycardia
97
GBS - findings on NCS?
· Proximal nerve root affected, mainly demyelination · First week - prolonged/absent F waves · Prolonged distal latency - decrease conduction - myelin · Conduction block · Second week: · Reduced CMAP amplitude - lose motor fibres · Prolonged distal latency - less myelin · Reduced conduction velocity Sensory nerves affected 50%
98
GBS What is Mx?
· IVIG or PLEX · NOT steroid · Eculizumab ongoing trials · Tx related fluctuation - 10% · 5% have acute onset CIDP (chronic inflamm demyelinating polyneuropathy) · Other Sx - pain, bladder, bowel Rehab
99
Opsoclonus-myoclonus-ataxia syndrome What is it, clin pres, cause, association? Ix and Mx?
· Opsoclonus - erratic eye movements · Myoclonic jerks · Ataxia - wide based gait, unsteady · Behavioural disturbance · Irritability · Cause - autoimmune inflammatory reaction targeting CNS tissue, triggered by either paraneoplastic or infectious event · 1-3 years 50% have neuroblastoma What are Ix? · CSF - normal or mild pleocytosis, oligoclonal bands 30%, B cell · Urine catecholamines - neuroblastoma · MRI · May need to repeat if normal OMA Syndrome What is Mx? · Tumour resection · Steroid - ACTH or pulse dex over oral pred · Aggressive Tx, aim for complete remission Improved developmental outcomes if aggressive with steroid + IVIG + ritux