Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PANCE > High Yield > Flashcards

High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

Triad of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

DX and TX

A
  1. Hemolytic anemia- dark cola colored urine in AM
  2. Venous thrombosis of large vessels
  3. Pancytopenia–> hypercoagulable

DX: flow cytometry, ACQUIRED SC mutation
Tx Eculizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

dysphagia + esophageal webs + atrophic glossitis + Fe def.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is SIADH and what electrolyte abnormalities are a result

A

excess ADH–> free water retention–> impaired water excretion

  • hyponatremia (isovolemic hypotonic hyponatremia)= no signs of edema
  • increased urine osmo. ( concentraed urine despite decrease serum osmo)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Treatment of:

  1. Diptheria
  2. Botulism
  3. Tetanus
  4. Gas gangrene (myonecrosis)
  5. Listeriosis
  6. Antrax
  7. Syphilius
  8. Lyme disease
  9. RMSF
  10. Toxoplasmosis
  11. Pin worms (enterobiasis)
  12. MAC
  13. Rabies
  14. Hookwork
A
  1. diptheria antitoxin + PCN or Erythromycin x 2 weeks
  2. boatulism antitoxin + resp. support (add PCN G if wound botulism only)
  3. Tetanus Ig + Metronidazole (or PCN)
  4. IV PCN + IV clindamycin, debridement
  5. IV ampicillin (+ Gentamicin if meningitits)
  6. Ciprofloxacin
  7. PCN G
  8. Doxy, Amoxicillin in <8 and preg, (add IV ceftriaxone if severe)
  9. Doxy
  10. sulfadiazene (or clindamycin) + pyrimethamine (w/ folinic acid/leucovorin)
  11. Albendazole
  12. Clarithromycin + Ethambutol
  13. Rabies vaccine (day 0,3,7,14 +/- 28 if immunocomp.) + rabies Ig
  14. Albendazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CXR: honeycombing, diffuse reticular opacities, ground glsas

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

-restrictive pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe findings of Obstructive shock

A
  1. CO: decreased, SVR: increased, PCWP: increased*
  2. cool, clammy skin
  3. Respiratory distress*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe hypertrophic cardiomyopathy murmur changes with different positions

A
  1. Decrease w/ increased venous return: squatting, laying down, handgrip
  2. increase w/ decreased venous return: valsalva, standing, exertion, amyl nitrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Wegners

A

small vessel vasculitis w/ granulomatous inflammation and necrosis of nose, lungs and kidneys

  1. Upper resp./nose sx- refractory sinusitis or saddel nose deformity
  2. Lower resp. tract sx- cough, hemopytsis
  3. Glomerulonephritis- crescent shape RPGN

+C-ANCA

TX: corticosteroids + cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clinical manifestations of DI

A
  1. polyuria + polydipsia
  2. hypernatremia (increased serum osm)
  3. dehydration, hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

SE of phenytoin

A
  1. rash (erythema multiform/SJS)
  2. gingival hyperplasia
  3. hirsutism
  4. hypothension
  5. arrhythmias (esp. w/ rapid administration)
  6. nystagmus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

SE of Lithium

A
  1. hypothyroidism
  2. hypoNa+
  3. increased urination and thirst
  4. DI
  5. hyperparathyroidism
  6. seizures
  7. arrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tamoxifen vs Raloxifene

A

Tamoxifen (E. antagonist of breast and uterus)

  1. increased risk of endometrial CA and hyperplasia
  2. reduce breast CA*
  3. slows progression of osteoporosis

Raloxifene (E. antagonist of breast)

  1. reduce breast CA
  2. slows progression of osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CXR: pleural plaques/thickening, intersitital fibrosis, MC in lower lobes

A

asbestosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe findings of Septic shock

A

(type of distributive shock)

  1. CO: increased, SVR: decreased, PCWP: increased or decreased
  2. warm extremities, flushed
  3. brisk cap refill with wide pulse pressures and bounding pulses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tx of Rheumatic fever

A
  1. ASA +/- corticosteroids in severe cases

2. PCN G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CXR: peribronchial fibrosis, bronchial wall thickening, “tram track” bronchials,

A

bronchiectasis
*foul smelling sputum, hemoptysis
MC- H. influenza, if CF= pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  • transmitted by raw pork, boar, or bear
  • myositis, eosinophilia*, periorbital edema
  • larvae in striated muscles
A

Trichinosis

TX: self limiting–> albendazole if severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sx of anterior cerbral artery stroke

A
  1. contraleral sensory/motor LE>UE–> abnormal gait
  2. face spared
  3. impaired judgement, confusion, personality change (flat affect)
  4. urinary incontinence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SE of 2nd generation antipyschotics agents

dopamine antagonist and serotonin antagonist

A
  1. EPS sx (less w/ Clozapin and Quetiapine) overall less than 1st geneartion
  2. increased prolactin (less)
  3. weight gain w/ Olanzapine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HIV drug SE

  1. ____= vivid dreams, depression, neuro disturbances
  2. __ = renal stones
  3. ___= bone marrow suppression
  4. ___= pancreatitis and periphearl neuropathy
A
  1. Efavirenz
  2. Indinavir
  3. Zidovudine
  4. NRTIs (truvada)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What vaccines are contraindicated with:

  1. Bakers yeast
  2. eggs
  3. gelatin
  4. thimerosal
  5. Neomycin and streptomycin allergy
A
  1. Hep B
  2. Influenza,
  3. influenza, varicella
  4. multi-dose vx
  5. MMR and inactivated polio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MOA and SE of thiazolidinediones (pioglitazone, rosiglitazone)

A

MOA: increased insulin sensitivity at peripheral receptor site

  1. fluid retention and edema/CHF
  2. cardiovascular toxicity w/ rosiglitazone- MI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Uses of carbamazepine

A

seizures, bipolar, trigeminal neuralgia, Central DI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

TX of central DI

A
  1. desmopressin/DDAVP

2. carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe findings of Cardiogenic shock

A
  1. CO: decreased, SVR: increased, PCWP: increased*
  2. cool, clammy skin
  3. Respiratory distress*

*only shock where you give small amounts of isontonic fluids for tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  • tight, shiny thickened skin

- calcinosis cutis, raynauds, esophageal motility disorder, claw hand (sclerodactyly) telangiectasia

A

Scleroderma
DX: + anti-centromere Ab, + anti-SCL Ab

TX: dMARDs, corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Crohns or US?

  1. stovepipe sign vs string sign
  2. cobblestone vs pseudopolyps
  3. P-ANCA vs ASCA
  4. mucosa + submucosa
  5. LLQ, colicky pain vs RRL, crampy pain
  6. toxic megacolon vs. granulomas
  7. Wt loss vs tenemus, urgency
A
  1. stove= UC, string= C
  2. cobble= C, pseudo= UC
  3. ANCA= UC, ASCA= C
  4. Mucosa + sub= UC, transmural= C
  5. LLQ= UC, RLQ= C
  6. toxic megacolon= UC, granuolmas= C
  7. wt. loss= C, tenesmus, urgency= UC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do you treat active TB?

A
  1. Isoniazide + rifampin + ethambutol (or streptomycin) + pyrazinamide for 6 months total (PZA can be stopped after 2 months)
  2. respiratory isolation for 1st 2 weeks of tx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of breathing pattern?

  1. periods of deep breathing alternating w/ periods of apnea, smooth increases in rate of breathing w/ smooth gradual decrease w/ periods of apnea
  2. irregular respirations w/ quick shallow breaths of equal depth with irregular periods of apnea
  3. rapid continuous respiration
A
  1. Cheyne-Stokes (HF, Resp. depression, uremia, brain damage)
  2. Biot’s (opioid-induced resp. depression, CNS depression)
  3. Kussmaul’s (metabolic acidosis, DKA, renal failure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

pemphigus vulgaris vs bullous pemphigoid

A

PV: autoimmune d/o secodary to desmosome distruption
+anti-desmosome/anti-epthelial Ab (HSN type 2)
+ Nikolsky and rupture easily
TX: HD corticostoroids–> methotrexate

BP: autoimmune subepidermal blistering in elderlies (HSN type 2)
tense bullae that dont rupture easily
- Nikolsky
TX: corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. anti-dsDNA
  2. anti- centromere Ab
  3. anti-Mi2 Ab
  4. anti-smooth muscle Ab
  5. anti- endomysial Ab
  6. anti-mitochondrial Ab
  7. perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic Ab
  8. anti- signal recognition protein (SRP)
  9. anti- cyclic citrulinatal peptide (CCP)
A
  1. SLE
  2. scleroderma
  3. dermatomyositis–> aloso Gottrons papules
  4. autoimmune hepatitis
  5. celiac
  6. PBC
  7. PSC
  8. polymyositis
  9. RA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What can cause nephrogenic DI

A

lithium, amp B, hypercalcemia and hypokalemia, ATN, hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sx of Lacunar infarct

A
  1. pure motor MC
  2. ataxic hemiparesis and clumsiness Leg>arm
  3. dysarthria
  4. Hx of HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Tx of heparin induced thrombocytopenia

A
  1. stop heparin

2. Direct thrombin inhibitors (argatroban or bivalirudiin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What meds are:

  1. direct thrombin inhibitors
  2. direct Factor Xa inhibitors
  3. antiplatelet
  4. Indirect thrombin inhibitors
  5. Inhibitors of Vit. K dependent clotting factors (10, 9, 7, 2)
A
  1. Dabigatran (pradaxa), argatroban, bivalirudin
  2. rivaroxaban (xarelto), apixaban (eliquis)
  3. clopidogrel, ticagrelor (brillinta)
  4. heparin
  5. warfarin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

SE of rifampin

A
  1. thrombocyotpenia
  2. orange colored secretions
  3. GI upset, flu-like sx
  4. hepatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

SE of phenobarbital

A
  1. depression
  2. osteoporosis
  3. irritability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where is the herniation?

  1. lateral hip/thigh/groin pain, sensory loss on bottom on foot btwn 1st and 2nd toe, weak big toe dorsiflexion, , heel walking harder than toes
  2. posterior calf pain, plantar foot surface, plantar flexion, toe walking harder than heel, loss of ankle jerk
  3. anterior thigh pain, sensory loss to medial ankle, weak ankle dorsiflexion, loss of knee jerk and weak knee extension
A
  1. L5 (L4-L5)
  2. S1 (L5-S1)
  3. L4 (L3-L4)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

SE of 1st generation antispychotic agents

dopamine antagonist

A
  1. EPS sx (dyskinesia (torticollis–> give diphenhydramine IV), tardive dyskinesia, parkinsonism),
  2. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (hyperthermia)–> give bromocriptine
  3. Prolong QT, arrhythmias
  4. increased prolactin**
  5. weight gain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe the findings of Hypoadrenal shock

A

(type of distributive shock)

  1. CO: decreased, SVR: decreased, PCWP: decreased or decreased
  2. hypotension refractory to fluids or pressors
  3. low serum glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

DX:
1. lobar capillary hemangiomas, MC in pregnancy and kids and high incidence of gingival involvement - friable red nodules

  1. ulcerative skin lesion 2/2 immune dysregulation, a/w IBD, RA, spondyloarthropathies- painful necrotic ulcerw/ irregular purple undermined borders and purulent base
A
  1. Pyogenic granuloma— TX: excision, curettage

2. Pyoderma gangrenosum– Tx: TD topical steroids

42
Q

What organism?

  1. “S”, comma, seagull shaped organism, Gram neg.
  2. dusky, necrotic tissue (nose), septate hyphae w/ regular branchig at wide angels
  3. safety-pin appearance, Gram neg. rod
  4. parasites w/in RBC in tetrads (Maltese cross)
  5. Morulae in WBCs, mulberry-shaped aggregates
  6. Owls eye appearance biopsy
A
  1. campylobacter jejuni
  2. Aspergillosis
  3. Plaque (Yersinia pestis)
  4. Babesiosis
  5. Ehrlichiosis (same tick as Lyme- Ixodes)
  6. CMV (HHV5)
43
Q

What is considered a positive PPD test?

A
  1. 5mm or greater: HIV+, immunocompromised, close contact with active TB, calcified granulomas on CR (healed or old TB)
  2. 10mm or greater: (high risk population) healthcare workers, homeless, immigrants, incarcerated
  3. 15mm or greater: everyone else with no RF
44
Q

Tx of IBD

A
  1. Aminosalicylates (sulfasalazine + folic acid, mesalamine)
  2. corticosteroids (flares)
  3. immune modifying agents (methotrexate)
  4. Anti-TNF agents (infliximab, adalimumab)
45
Q
  • Farmer exposed to contaminated soil

- presents w/ wt. loss, steatorrhea, fever, LAD, rhythmic motion of eye muscles while chewing

A

Whipple’s disease

DX: duodenal biopsy–> + periodic acid- schiff (PAS)-positive macrophages and dilation of lacteals

TX: PCN or Tetracycline 1-2 years

46
Q

SE of Ethosuximide

A
  1. drowsy/dizzy
  2. ataxia
  3. HA
  4. GI upset
47
Q

aspiration PNA are most common found in __ lobe and are __ bacterias

A

RLL

anaerobes

48
Q

MOA and SE of GLP-1 agonists (Exenatide, liraglutide)

A

MOA: mimic incretin–> increases insulin secretion, decreased glucagon secretion, and delays gastric emptying

  1. CI w/ gastroparesis
  2. hypoglycemia
  3. pancreatitis
49
Q

MOA and SE of sulfonylureas (glipizide, glyburide, glimepiride)

A

MOA: stimulate pancreatic insulin release from Beta cells (insulin secretagogue)

  1. hypoglycemia (MC)
  2. GI upset
  3. disulfiram reaction (sulfa allergy)
  4. Wt. gain
  5. CP450 inducer
50
Q

emphysema v chronic bronchitis

A

emphysema

  1. MC sx= dyspnea
  2. hyperinflation, yperresoance to percussion, decreased BS and fremitus, barrel chest, pursed lip breathing
  3. resp. alkalosis
  4. Matched V/Q defects, mild hypoxemia

Chronic bronchitis

  1. MC sx= productive cough
  2. rales, crackles, rhonchi, wheezing, cor pulmonale–> MA.Tachy , peripheral edema, cyanotic
  3. resp. acidosis, increased HCT/RBC*
  4. SEVERE V/Q mismatch (poor perfusion), severe hypoxemia and hypercapnia
51
Q

CXR: cavitary lesions MC in RUL w/ bulging fissure

A

Klebsiella PNA

52
Q

SE of streptomycin

A
  1. Ototoxicity (CN 8)

2. nephrotoxicity

53
Q

MOA and SE of metformin

A

MOA: decreased haptic glucose production

  1. Lactic acidosis (not given if renal or hepatic impairment)
  2. GI sx
  3. Macrocytic anemia (decreased B12 absorption)
  4. Renal failure if given w/ iodinated contrast (stop 24 hrs prior and resume 48 hrs post)
54
Q

Tx of SIADH

A
  1. restrict H20
  2. Demeclocycline in severe cases (inhibits ADH)
  3. Severe hyponatremia: IV hypertonic saline w/ furosemide

*rapid correction of hyponatremia= risk of central pontine myelinolysis

55
Q

Describe LAE and RAE on EKG

A

LAE: m-shaped P wave in II (> 0.12 sec), biphasic P in V1 with larger terminal component

RAE: tall p wave in II, 3mm or greater and biphasic p wave in V1 with larger initial component

56
Q

Management of sickle cell

A
  1. Pain control- IV hydration and O2 (AVOID Meperidine)
  2. Hydroxyurea- reduces pain (increased RBC wter, decreased sickling formation, increased HgbF)
  3. Folic acid- RBC production and DNA synthesis
  4. SHiN immunizations
  5. Osteomyelitis 2/2 salmonella- Cipro if >18y/o otherwise ceftriaxone

Kids proph: PCN (4months-6y/o) + folic acid

57
Q

Common causes of SIADH

A
  1. Stroke (SAH), head trauma, meningitis, CNS tumors,
  2. post-op
  3. Small cell lung CA
  4. meds: narcotics, NSAIDs, anticonvulsants, carbamazepine, IV cyclophosphamide, antidepressants (TCA/SSRIs), HCTZ, ecstasy
  5. hypothyroidism, conn syndrome
58
Q

Cardiac presentation of

  1. Dilated cardiomyopathy
  2. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
  3. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
A
  1. LV dilation, thin walls, decreased EF, regional or global LV hypokinesis (systolic dysfunction)- dilated and weak
  2. Dilation of both atria, diastolic dysfunction, Kussmaul sign
  3. Asymmetric wall thickness (esp septal), LVH, diastolic dysfunction, SAM
59
Q

How do you DX DI

A
  1. Establish dx w/ fluid restriction (will continue to produce dilute urine)
  2. differentiate central DI from nephrogenic DI–> desmopressin stimulation test
    - reduction in dilute urine= central
    - no change, continual production of dilute urine= nephrogenic
60
Q

Sx of posterior cerebral artery stroke

A
  1. visual hallucinations, contralateral homonymous hemianopsia
61
Q

Tx of HHS

A

1st- IV fluids (NS)
2nd- regular insulin
3rd- potassium

62
Q

SE of carbamazepine (tegretol)

A
  1. hyponatremia
  2. SIADH
  3. SJS
  4. blood dyscrasias (rare)

Use for: seizures, bipolar, trigeminal neuralgia, Central DI

63
Q

How do you manage:

  1. Dawn phenomenon
  2. Somogyi effect
  3. Insulin waning
A
  1. bedtime injection of NPH, avoid late night snacking
  2. decrease nighttime NPH or give bedtime snack
  3. move insulin dose to bedtime or increased the evening dose
64
Q

SE of Benzisoxazoles (risperidone, ziprasidone)

A
  1. EPS

2. increased prolactin

65
Q

Diseases w/ eschars

A
  1. Tularemia (a/w rabbits)
  2. Anthrax (painless, black, found in livestock)
  3. Leishmaniasis (a/w female sandfly)
  4. Coccidiodomycosis
  5. Mucormycosis (rhino-orbital- cerebral infection ex. sinusitis)
66
Q

How do you diagnose active TB

A
  1. Screen w/ PPD
  2. Confirm w/ acid fast smear and sputum culture x 3 days (AFB culture is gold standard)
  3. CXR: upper lober= reactivation (cavitary lesions), middle/lower lobe= active TB, millet seeds= miliary
67
Q

SE of ethambutol

A
  1. Optic neuritis*–> scotoma, color perception problems, visual changes
  2. peripheral neuropathy
68
Q

Describe the percussion, fremitus, and breath sound finding for:

  1. PNA
  2. pleural effusion
  3. Pneumothorax/ Obstructive lung dz
A
  1. PNA: percussion: dull, fremitus: INCREASED, BS: egophony, bronchial
  2. pleural effusion: percussion: dull, fremitus: decreased, BS: decreased
  3. Pneumothorax/ Obstructive lung dz: percussion: HYPERRESONANCE, fremitus: decreased, BS: decreased
69
Q

causes of transexudative pleural effusion

A

PE= MC

pneumonia

70
Q

Tx of OD of:

  1. anticholinergics
  2. tricyclic antidepressants
  3. organophosphate poisoning (cholinergics)
  4. Iron
  5. tumor lysis syndrome
A
  1. physiostigmine
  2. supportive- sodium bicarb
  3. atropine + pralidoxime
  4. deferoxamine
  5. allopurinol and fluids
71
Q

SE of isoniazide

A
  1. Hepatitis*
  2. peripheral neuropathy*–> given pyridoxine (B6 to prevent)
  3. drug-induced lupus rash
  4. cytochrome P450 inhibition
72
Q

SE of clozapine

A

agranulocytosis and myocarditis, prolonged QT, wt gain

73
Q

How do you tx latent TB?

A
  1. Isoniazide + pyridoxine (B6) X 9 months
  2. if HIV + or granuloma on CXR: Isoniazide + pyridoxine (B6) X 12 months

*latent TB= no sx, + PPD, neg. CXR– not contagious

74
Q

Biphasic fever, Biphasic rash (maculopapular), severe myalgias and joint pain, HA,

  • hemorrhagic fever
  • hepatitis
A

Dengue fever (Flavivirus)

TX: volume support, acetaminophen,

75
Q

Describe the labs found in anemia of chronic dz

A
  1. low serum Fe
  2. high ferritin
  3. low TIBC
76
Q

CXR: small upper lobe nodules and hyperinflation

A

Coal workers pneumoconiosis

-obstructive pattern

77
Q

Tx of nephrogenic DI

A
  1. restrict Na+ and protein restriction and HCTZ + indomethacin
  2. if symptomatic: hypotonic fluid
78
Q

MOA and SE of DDP-4 inhibitors (Sitagliptin, linagliptin)

A

increased GLP-1

  1. pancreatitis
  2. renal failure
79
Q

Where are lesions typically found for the following lung CAs?

  1. Adenocarcioma
  2. small cell
  3. squamous cell
  4. bronchial carcinoma
A
  1. PEIRPHERAL (MC in smokers and non-smokers)
  2. central
  3. central
  4. central
80
Q

When do you use synchronized cardioversion vs unsynchronized

A

Synchronized- unstable tachycardia

Unsynchronized- VF and pulseless VT (aka defibrillate)

81
Q

MOA and SE of meglitinides (Repaglinide, Nateglinide)

A

MOA: stimulate pancreatic insulin release from Beta cell (insulin secretagogue)

  1. hypoglycemia (less than SU)
  2. weight gain
82
Q

SE of pyrazinamide

A
  1. hepatitis*
  2. hyperuricemia*
  3. photosensitive dermatologic rash*
  4. GI sx

**Caution w/ gout or liver dz

83
Q

CXR: bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, interstitial lung dz

A

Sarcoidosis

-restrictive pattern, T cell exaggeration, noncaseating granulomas, Lupus pernio

84
Q

spread by bite of female sandfly

-small erytheamatou papules, ulcerations, dry indurated plaque w/ satellite pustules, hepatosplenomegaly, regional LAD

A

Leishmaniasis

85
Q

How do screen and dx Cushings Syndrome

A

Screen:

  1. LD dex. suppression (no suppression= cushings syndrome)
  2. 24 hr urinary free cortisol: increased cort. =CS
  3. Salivary cortisol test at night: increased cort. = CS

DX and differentiating

  1. HD dex. suppression test: ( supressed= CD, no suppression= adrenal or ectopic ACTH tumor)
  2. ACTH levels: (decreased= adrenal tumor, increased/normal= CD or ectopic ACTH tumor)
86
Q

CXR: egg shell calcifications of hilar and mediastinal nodes

A

silicosis

-a/w sandblasters

87
Q
  1. ____ murmurs increase in intensity w/ squatting/ lying down
  2. __ murmurs decrease in intensity w/ valsalva/standing
  3. __ murmurs increase w/ expiration
    4 .__ murmurs increase w/ inspiration
  4. __ murmurs increase w/ handgrip
  5. __ murmurs decrease w/ amyl nitrate
A
  1. all but HCM (increased venous return)
  2. all but HCM (increased venous return)
  3. all LEFT sided murmurs
  4. all RIGHT sided murmurs
  5. regurgitation murmurs (increased backflow and afterload)
  6. regurg. murmurs (increase forward flow and decrease afterload)
88
Q

What vitamin deficiencies:

  1. Hyperkeratosis, hemorrhages (perifollicular, gums or joints), hemoatolgic anemia
  2. diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis
  3. magenta tongue, chelitis, photophobia, scrotal dermatitis
  4. ataxia, global confusion, ophthalmoplegia (abn. EOM)
  5. nighttime blindness, white spots on conjunctiva (Bitots spots) squamous metaplasia
  6. looser bone lines, bone bowing, bone pain
A
  1. Vit. C def.
  2. Niacin (B3) def.
  3. Riboflavin (B2) def.
  4. Thiamine (B1) def.
  5. Vit. A def.
  6. Vit. D def.
89
Q

MOA and SE of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (acarbose, miglitol)

A

MOA: delays intestinal glucose absorption

  1. hepatitis
  2. GI sx
90
Q

SE of valproic acid (depakene) and divalproex sodium (depakote)

A
  1. pancreatitis
  2. hepatotoxicity
  3. thrombocytopenia
91
Q

Describe the findings of Neurogenic shock

A

(type of distributive shock)

  1. CO: decreased, SVR: decreased, PCWP: decreased or decreased
  2. hypotension WITHOUT tachycardia
92
Q

Sx of middle cerebral artery stroke

A
  1. contralateral sensory/montor loss of Face, arm> LE
  2. gaze towards lesion
  3. L- aphasia, wernicke, agraphia
  4. R- spatial defects, anosgnosia
93
Q

Describe findings of Hypovolemic shock

A
  1. CO: decreased, SVR: increased, PCWP: decreased*
  2. pale, cool, mottled skin w/ dry mucous membranes
  3. prolonged cap refill
94
Q

Describe LBBB and RBBB on EKG

A

LBBB: deep S in V1, wide QRS w/ broad slurred R in V5 and V6

RBBB: Wide QRS w/ RsR’ in V1 and V2, wide S in V6

95
Q

causes of transudative pleural effusion

A

CHF=MC
Cirrhosis
nephrotic syndrome

96
Q

What is Jones Criteria

A

Dx rheumatic fever (2 major or 1 major + 1 minor) + evident of recent strep

Major: (JONES)

  1. Joint (migratory polyarthritis)
  2. Oh my heart- active carditits
  3. Nodules
  4. Erythema marginatum
  5. Sydenhams chorea

Minor:

  1. fever
  2. Joint pain
  3. increased acute phase reactants (CRP, ESR, leukocytosis)
  4. Prolonged PR interval
97
Q

puncture wound from raw fish or meat–> non-pitting edema, purplish erythema w/ sharp irregular margis extending peripherally but clearing centrally

A

Erysipeloid (gram + bacillus)

TX: PCN G or V

98
Q

Describe the labs found in iron def. anemia

A
  1. low serum Fe
  2. low ferritin
  3. high TIBC
99
Q

Sx of vertebral artery stroke

A
  1. vertigo, nystagmus, NV

2. diplopia

100
Q

MOA and SE of SGLT-2 inhibitor (canagliflozin, dapagliflozin)

A

MOA: increased urinary glucose excretion

  1. thirst
  2. nausea
  3. UTIs

PANCE (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions