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Hospitalist boards > High Yield > Flashcards

High Yield Flashcards

1
Q

Epiglottitis clinical symptoms

A

Drooling, neck, hyperextension, toxic, appearing, fever, hypoxia, retractions

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2
Q

EpiGlottitis treatment

A

Intubation, antibiotics, steroids

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3
Q

When do you see steeple sign on X-ray?

A

Croup

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4
Q

Croup treatment

A

Nebulized epi, systemic steroids, intubation if needed

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5
Q

Preceding upper respiratory infection and evidence of cervical lymphadenitis. Treatment?

A

Reassurance

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6
Q

Best way to diagnose retro pharyngeal abscess

A

CT w IV contrast

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7
Q

Causes of retropharyngeal abscess

A

Strep or staph species usually
Sometimes anaerobes
Fusobacterium necroforum in teens-high fever, dec ROM, respirator distress, Lemieres syndrome (jugular venous thrombosis)

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8
Q

Treatment for orbital cellulitis

A

ENT consultation
IV or IM antibiotics: ceftriaxone, cephalexin, Pip/tazo
Metronidazole in case of brain abscess

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9
Q

What is Potts puffy tumor?

A

Pott puffy tumor is a forehead swelling due to frontal bone osteomyelitis with associated subperiosteal abscess. PPT is a rare complication of sinusitis, but can also occur due to trauma. PPT is most commonly seen in the pediatric and young adolescent populations due to the pneumatization process and venous drainage.

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10
Q

Patient with cheek pain, fever, swelling, and erythema of overlying skin, pain increased with oral intake

A

Parotitis
Usually viral-mumps paramyx
Treatment is pain control, warm, compress, IV clindamycin, or vancomycin

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11
Q

What is a known complication of parotitis?

A

Facial nerve palsy

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12
Q

Most common cause of mastoiditis

A

Strep pneumonia

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13
Q

Treatment of mastoiditis

A

Broad spectrum IV. Antibiotics and surgical IND.

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14
Q

Causes of microcytic anemia

A

Iron deficiency versus thalassemia

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15
Q

Macrocytic anemia causes

A

B12/folate def, hypothyroidism

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16
Q

Normalcy anemia causes

A

Blood loss, hemolysis, lead, chronic disease

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17
Q

Mutation in beta globin gene

A

Sickle cell disease

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18
Q

How to treat acute chest syndrome

A

Strep pneumonia and mycoplasma coverage

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease?

A

Salmonella

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20
Q

How does hydroxy urea help sickle cell disease patients?

A

Increases fetal hemoglobin concentration

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21
Q

How does folic acid help sickle cell patients

A

Supports red blood cell turnover

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22
Q

What is for virchows triad?

A

Stasis, endothelial injury, hypercoagulability

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23
Q

How do you diagnose pulmonary embolus?

A

CT angiogram

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24
Q

How do you treat thrombosis in kids with sickle Cell?

A

Anticoagulation: enoxaparin is the standard. Usually three months for provoked DVT/PE or 6 to 12 months for unprovoked. Then transition to oral rivaroxaban

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25
Q

Hemarthrosis, easy bruising, epistaxis, bleeding with circumcision would make you worry for what?

A

Hemophilia
Suspect this with an isolated elevated PTT

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26
Q

Management of hemophilia

A

Desmopressin and aminocaproic acid for preventing clot breakdown
Factor infusion or FFP for low factor levels

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27
Q

Patient presents with mucosal bleeding, bruising, menorrhagia

A

Von Willebrand disease (platelet adhesion factor)

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28
Q

Genetic causes of thrombocytopenia

A

Fanconi disease, gaucher, Wiskott-Aldrich, TAR syndrome

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29
Q

Baby presents with absent radius. What diagnostic modality would be our next step?

A

CBC to look for thrombocytopenia.
Tar syndrome

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30
Q

Treatment for ITP

A

Usually supportive care but short course of steroids if needed

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31
Q

Treatment for HUS (fever, anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal dysfunction)

A

Early hydration improves outcomes.
Eculizimab is helpful for some sub types

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32
Q

Fever and neutropenia that waxes and wanes every 3 to 6 weeks

A

Cyclic neutropenia
Treat w G-CSF

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33
Q

Pancreatic insufficiency, bone marrow dysfunction, skeletal abnormalities and short stature

A

Schwachman diamond syndrome

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34
Q

And what is the most common cause of child maltreatment?

A

Neglect

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35
Q

If you suspect abuse or neglect, are you compelled to report the family even if you’re not sure?

A

Yes, we are mandated reporters

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36
Q

What is the most common presentation of physical abuse?

A

Skin injuries

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37
Q

Is bruising normal in an infant?

A

Bruising is rare in preambulatory infants

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38
Q

What is the most common location for accidental bruising?

A

Over bony prominences
If location is on the butt, genitals, cheeks, etc. that is less likely to be accidental

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39
Q

What do abusive patterns of bruises look like?

A

More bruises, clusters of bruises, imprint of object

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40
Q

Children and infants presenting with excessive bruising, what workup should we do?

A

CBC, PT/PTT, VWf ag/activity, factor 8 and 9 levels for hemophilia

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41
Q

What is TEN4-FACESp

A

Infant/children with bruises in these areas should raise your concern
TEN: torso, ears, neck.
4: children less than four years of age and infants less than four months of age.
FACES: frenulum, angle of the jaw, cheek, eyelid, sclera.
P: patterned injury

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42
Q

What type of fractures are highly associated with the abuse?

A

Infants and toddlers with midshaft, humorous or femur fractures.
Non-mobile infants with fractures.
High specificity fractures: rib, scapula, classic metaphyseal lesions, vertebrae, sternum

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43
Q

What labs to workup fractures in kids you suspect abuse in?

A

Ca, Phos, Alk phos, Mg, PTH, 25-hydroxyvitamin D

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44
Q

Indications for skeletal survey

A

• Bruises, burns or other skin injuries in non-ambulatory infants
• Oral injuries in non-ambulatory infants
• Burns concerning for abuse in children < 2
• Fractures concerning for abuse in children < 2
• Unexplained intracranial injuries (hemorrhage and hypoxic-ischemic injury)
• Unexplained, unexpected sudden death
Infants and siblings < 2 years and household contacts of an abi child **Twins!!)

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45
Q

recommended occult workup for abdominal injury in children less than five years old?

A

AST/ALT, lipase
If AST/ALT is > 80 or lipase > 100 get a CT of the abdomen with contrast or if there’s any external evidence of abdominal injury

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46
Q

What is the leading cause of child abuse related fatality?

A

Abusive head trauma

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47
Q

Initial screening for abusive head trauma

A

Head CT not head ultrasound

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48
Q

If head CT shows intracranial injury or hemorrhage in a suspected child abuse case, what should be your next step?

A

MRI brain and spine
Dilated opthalmalogic exam

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49
Q

How do you calculate prevalence?

A

Total number of people with the condition divided by population at risk

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50
Q

How do you calculate sensitivity in the 2 x 2 table?

A

A/A +C or true positive/everyone with the disease
SNOUT rules out

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51
Q

Is sensitivity dependent on incidence?

A

No it’s just dependent on characteristics of the test itself

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52
Q

What does specificity indicate in plain terms?

A

If a patient does not have the disease what is the likelihood the test will be negative

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53
Q

How do you calculate specificity?

A

True negative/everyone without disease
D/B+D
SPIN rules in

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54
Q

In plain terms, what is positive predictive value and negative predictive value?

A

PPV: what is the likelihood I have the disease if I test positive?
NPV: what is the likelihood I don’t have the disease if I test negative?

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55
Q

What is a graph that shows the trade-off between sensitivity and specificity called?

A

Receiver operating characteristic curve

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56
Q

If someone has screened positive for a disease like positive PPD…What is the most important characteristic of a confirmatory test?

A

That it is highly specific.
If you hear screening think specificity

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57
Q

Screening for a disease like screening for ebola amongst travelers. What is the most important statistic?

A

Sensitivity

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58
Q

Screening for a disease like screening for ebola amongst travelers. What is the most important statistic?

A

Sensitivity

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59
Q

What would be the most important statistical test if you are deciding to omit urine culture in a febrile infant with negative urinalysis?

A

NPV

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60
Q

What statistical test is most important if you’re interpreting a positive rheumatoid factor in a patient with no signs or symptoms of auto immunity

A

PPV

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61
Q

What is a case control study?

A

Retrospective; compares cases (with disease) to controls (without) to identify past exposures

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62
Q

What is a case control study?

A

Retrospective; compares cases (with disease) to controls (without) to identify past exposures

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63
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

Prospective or retrospective; follows a group over time to assess the effect of exposures on outcomes

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64
Q

What is a cross-sectional study?

A

Snapshot; examines the relationship between variables and outcomes in a population at one point in time

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65
Q

What is a randomized controlled trial?

A

Prospective; participants are randomly assigned to groups to test the effect of an intervention

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66
Q

Informed consent components

A

Capacity to consent
Disclosure of options
Voluntariness

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67
Q

Areas were adolescence can legally give consent

A

Mental health
Sexual health
Substance abuse
Emancipation or mature minor

68
Q

Symptoms of episodic tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, posturing/dystonia, agitation, and discomfort

A

Dysautonomia

69
Q

Treatment for dysautonomia

A

Beta blockers like propanolol, alpha 2 Agonist like clonidine, dopamine, like bromocriptine, gabapentin

70
Q

Medication management for bladder dysfunction/neurogenic, bladder, resulting from peripheral or central nervous system injury

A

clean intermittent catheterization
Alpha blocker like tamsulosin or doxazosin
Anticholinergics like oxybutynin
Botox in detrusor

71
Q

What is the major side effect of Dantrolene?

A

Black box warning for hepatotoxicity

72
Q

What is the major side effect of Dantrolene?

A

Black box warning for hepatotoxicity

73
Q

Which class of drugs has the greatest negative impact on cognitive function and patients with brain injury?

A

Benzodiazepines

74
Q

If a patient needs to self administer a drug (hospital doesn’t have it) the hospital must:

A

Ensure an order allowing self administration of the drug is written

75
Q

What is the cutoff for hypoglycemia per the AAP and pediatric endocrine society for the first four hours of life?

A

AAP less than 40
PES less than 50 (for first 24 hours)

76
Q

What is the cutoff for hypoglycemia per the AAP and pediatric endocrine society for the first four hours of life?

A

AAP less than 40
PES less than 50

77
Q

What is the cutoff for hypoglycemia per the AAP and pediatric endocrine society for 4-24 hours of life?

A

AAP less than 45
PES less than 60 (24-48 hours)

78
Q

What is a syndrome that can cause hypoglycemia? What are the features?

A

Beckwith Wideman syndrome.
Everything is big: big tongue, eyes, macrosomia, umbilical,hernia, cryptochordism, posterior ear pit or anterior lobe crease

79
Q

Contraindication for PTX

A

Porphyria

80
Q

What to consider with a baby that has a direct hyperbilirubinemia

A

Galactosemia
Hypothyroidism
Sepsis.
Biliary atresia and other causes of cholestasis

81
Q

How does a kid with Biliary atresia present?

A

Acholic stools
Persistent jaundice 3 to 5 weeks.
Hepatomegaly.

82
Q

How do you work up a child suspected of having biliary atresia?

A

Ultrasound.
Hida scan
Liver biopsy.
Gold standard: intraoperative cholangiogram

83
Q

What is the definitive treatment for biliary atresia?

A

Kasai procedure less than 60 days is the best outcome

84
Q

What is a syndrome that would present with direct hyperbilirubinemia that is autosomal dominant, kid has a triangle shaped face with a broad forehead and deep, set eyes, pointed chin, elongated nose with a bulbous tip. Bike duct, paucity, stasis, cardiac PPS, butterfly vertebrae, CNS vasculopathy

A

Alagille syndrome

85
Q

What respiratory distress cause will have decreased lung markings?

A

PPHN

86
Q

What chest x-ray finding will be seen with meconium aspiration syndrome and what infection can mimic this syndrome?

A

Patchy infiltrates.
Listeria pneumonia can mimic

87
Q

What is neonatal hyperviscosity syndrome?

A

Small baby who is plethoric with high hematocrit and is grunting/in respiratory distress, hypoglycemic
Blood cells are eating up the glucose

88
Q

Newborn presents with maternal history of flu like symptoms and ingestion of unpasteurized milk/cheese/undercooked poultry. Newborn has a patchy chest x-ray resembling MAS and also had meconium stained fluid. Baby has a nodular skin rash is stressed.

A

Listeria.
Fetus is stressed, which is why they end up with meconium
Modular skin rash is called granulomatosis infantisepticum

89
Q

Newborn with chlamydia pneumonia…treatment?

A

Azithromycin for 3 days or erythromycin for 14 days

90
Q

Is it ok to breastfeed if Hep C positive?

A

Yes

91
Q

Not moving arm/hand. Claw hand

A

Klumpke
C8/T1

92
Q

What does VACTERL stand for

A

Vertebrae
Imperfect anus.
Cardiac.
TEF
Renal
Limb

93
Q

Which congenital anomaly includes extra fingers and toes, as well as heart, renal, brain, eye, cleft lip palate, IUGR?

A

Trisomy 13

94
Q

Which congenital anomaly has overlapping fingers, club feet, low set ears, and lots of other stuff

A

Trisomy 18

95
Q

Baby with conotruncal CHD-TOF, hypoplastic thymus (low T cells), parathyroid hypoplasia (calcium)

A

DiGeorge 22q11

96
Q

Mom 16 weeks pregnant and has increased alpha fetoprotein

A

Anencephaly

97
Q

Contraindications for BF

A

Galactosemia
HIV
Untreated brucellosis
Active herpes/TB
Suspected/confirmed Ebola
Opioids/PCP/cocaine
Radioactive isotope therapy

98
Q

Baby with jaundice, CATARACTS, vomiting, helatomegaly, poor feeding, diarrhea, and E. COLI SEPSIS in the first few days of life

A

GALT or galactosemia

99
Q

Doe infant ingestions: One pill can kill (name them)

A

Clonidine
Fentanyl
Beta blockers
Ca Channel blockers

100
Q

During which period of time after an ingestion can you use activated charcoal?

A

60-90 min

101
Q

Which substances can you not use activated charcoal for an ingestion?

A

Corrosive substances
Will not work with rapidly absorbed liquids or elements on the periodic table (iron, lead, potassium, calcium, lithium, cyanide)

102
Q

What is the antidote for ingestion of organophosphates?

A

Atropine
Pralidoxime

103
Q

What is the antidote for ingestion of toxic alcohol’s like methanol or ethylene glycol?

A

Bicarbonate, Fomepizole for both
Also Folate for methanol and pyridoxine for ethylene glycol

104
Q

If the question stem states that they have altered mental status, and everything is up (increased heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, temperature), agitated. What to ingestion categories are you going to distinguish between?

A

Anticholinergic vs sympathomimetic

105
Q

Signs of an anticholinergic ingestion versus cholinergic

A

Anticholinergic: red, dry, blind, mad, hot. MYDRIASIS
Cholinergic: salvation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, bronchorrhea, fasciculations MIOSIS

106
Q

When comparing an anticholinergic versus a sympathetic ingestion, all of the vital signs will be increased in the pupil sizes will both be dilated. What is one way to distinguish between the two of them?

A

Sympathomimetic will have diaphoresis (also tremor and seizure)

107
Q

Tx for anticholinergic ingestion

A

Physostigmine

108
Q

If everything is going down, decreased heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, temperature, depressed, mental status think about which ingestions

A

Opioids, sedative hypnotics, ethanol

109
Q

Question includes information on a Tylenol ingestion, but the labs were obtained prior to the four hour mark. If the lab is below treatment level, what do you do next?

A

Repeat at four hour mark

110
Q

When do you give N-acetylcysteine, other than when the level is above the treatment line?

A

If a Tylenol ingestion exceeds 150 mg/kg or over 7.5 g
Unknown time of ingestion and Tylenol level is over 10 µg per milliliter.
Patient with known Tylenol ingestion with abnormal AST/ALT, PT/INR

111
Q

Pit viper bite management versus coral snake bites.

A

Pit viper bites (rattlesnakes, copperheads, cottonmouth) cause hemotoxic/derma, toxic issues and bleeding disorders so you have to check PTT/PT/INR, D dimer, fibrinogen

112
Q

Patient with symptoms of opsoclonus (rapid disconjugate eye movements) of acute onset along with other neuromuscular signs. What bite or sting?

A

Scorpions

113
Q

Usually after a bite they do not recommend early primary closure, except for which part of the body…

A

Face and neck

114
Q

What indicates a poor prognosis in drowning?

A

Submersion more than five minutes.
No early basic life support.
Development of ARDS

115
Q

Heat stroke is a temp of greater than what?

A

> 104/F40C
AMS

116
Q

Hypothermia versus hyperthermia: in which one do you use IV fluids to correct the temperature?

A

Hypothermia-warmed IVF w dextrose
Contraindicated in hyperthermia

117
Q

Radiographic modality to work up, abdominal trauma in pediatrics?

A

CT with IV contrast

118
Q

When you’re working up a burn, is superficial thickness or a first-degree burn included in the calculation of total body surface area included?

A

No

119
Q

When does a patient need a burn center referral?

A

Partial thickness burns greater than 10% TBSA
BURNS THAT INVOLVE FACE, HANDS, FEET, GENITALIA, PERINEUM, MAJOR JOINTS
Any third-degree burns
Electrical burns/Chemical burns/Inhalation injury
Burns in complicated pts

120
Q

What are the only two FDA approved treatments for children and teens with depression?

A

Fluoxetine (children and teens)
Escitalopram (teens only)

121
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment for kids with somatic disorders?

A

CBT

122
Q

Clues in the question stem that should lead you towards diabetes insipidus

A

Central: mentions trauma, cns infections, hypothalamic or pituitary defect
Nephrogenic : meds-lithium especially, chronic renal failure, sjogrens, sickle cell disease, polycystic kidney disease

123
Q

What does the lab look like in diabetes and insipidus?

A

Increase serum osmolality, decreased urine osmolality.
Decreased urine spec gravity, increased serum sodium, increased urine volume

124
Q

How does primary polydipsia differ from diabetes insipidus on labs?

A

In primary polydipsia, the serum osmolality is low as compared to diabetes insipidus where it is high
Serum sodium will be normal in primary polydipsia

125
Q

Next step after dx of central diabetes insipidus

A

Brain MRI
Tx w PO DDAVP
Correct free water deficit

126
Q

Tx for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Thiazide diuretics or indomethacin

127
Q

Pt w hyponatremia and some other condition like pneumonia, a neurological infection, or medication‘s, like carbamazepime NSAIDS, etc.

A

Think about SIADH

128
Q

Differences between SIADH and diabetes insipidus

A

SIADH is freewater excess, hyponatremia serum hypo osmolality with inappropriate urine hyperosmolality (concentration)
Diabetes inipidus is free water loss, hypernatremia with polydipsia/polyuria/dilute urine

129
Q

What can affect absorption of levothyroxine in the treatment of congenital hypothyroidism?

A

Soy containing foods/formulas.
Meds such as iron.
Calcium

130
Q

Newborn screening is likely to miss which type of hypothyroidism?

A

Central hypothyroidism

131
Q

Which lab value will be different for Hashimoto’s versus congenital hypothyroidism

A

Both of them have low free T4 and high TSH, but Hashimoto’s is positive for anti-thyroid antibodies

132
Q

In hyperthyroidism or Graves’ disease, what labs do you get and what is the mechanism?

A

You’ll see low TSH, high T4 and T3
TSH receptor activating or stimulating antibodies… TSI or TAHR-Ab

133
Q

Treatment of hyperthyroidism

A

Methimazole
Can cause agranulocytosis so get baseline anc

134
Q

Patient with numbness around the mouth with tingling and fingers and toes and maybe some muscle cramps.

A

Hypocalcemia

Probably won’t mention but maybe Chvostek sign, trousseau’s sign (BP cuff induced tetany), seizures

135
Q

Vitamin D deficiency vs hypoparathyroidism

A

Vitamin D/ calcium, and phosphorus will start off normal.
Hypoparathyroidism: calcium is low and phosphorus is high

136
Q

Bones, stones, groans, and psychiatric overtones

A

Hypercalcemia (>12-14)

137
Q

Classic presentation for adrenal insufficiency

A

Fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia

138
Q

What lab findings would suggest Addison’s disease?

A

Low cortisol (if low or drawn at wrong time move to ACTH stimulating test)
High ACTH
Positive adrenal auto immune antibodies

139
Q

Treatment for primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Correct, hypotension and dehydration, hypoglycemia, electrolyte imbalance
Correct cortisol deficiency
Glucocorticoid stress dosing if sick sick
Fludricortisone

140
Q

What studies to order for critical sample of glucose less than 50 mg/L?

A

Stat glucose level
Insulin
C-peptide
Cortisol
Growth hormone.
Beta hydroxybutyrate
Lactate and free fatty acids.
Comprehensive metabolic panel

141
Q

Work up for an infant with recurrent I hypoglycemia

A

Exocrine profile.
Free insulin
Ammonia
Plasma amino acids
Urine Organic acid

142
Q

What is the criteria for medical management of appendicitis and what antibiotics do you use?

A

Over seven years old.
Normal white blood cell count (less than 18,000)
Less than 48 hours of pain
Confirmed on imaging
No preggers or super sick
Ceftriaxone and metronidazole

143
Q

What is the criteria for medical management of appendicitis and what antibiotics do you use?

A

Less than seven years old.
Normal white blood cell count (less than 18,000)
Less than 48 hours of pain
Confirmed on imaging
No preggers or super sick
Ceftriaxone and metronidazole

144
Q

If a kid presents with bilious vomiting, hemodynamic instability and distention, tenderness, peritonitis and hematochezia. What is the work up and treatment?

A

Malrotation.
Diagnosed with upper G.I.
Treat with the Ladds procedure

145
Q

What does duodenal atresia look like on x-ray and what congenital anomaly is associated with?

A

Double bubble
Trisomy 21

146
Q

How to distinguish Crohn’s disease from ulcerative colitis

A

Crohn’s: patchy, mouth to anus, full thickness, perianal fistula, erythema nodosum and pyoderma gangrenosum, cobblestoning, non-caseating granulomas

Ulcerative colitis: colon only, mucosal layer only, toxic megacolon, crypt abscess

147
Q

Who should you image if they have AMS?

A

Trauma, edema, bleeding, shunt malfunction, mass effects.
If you’re worried about empyema or abscess, do it with contrast

148
Q

What three infections have high rates of febrile seizures?

A

Salmonella, shigella, roseola

149
Q

Seizures: who to treat

A

After second unprovoked seizure, those presenting in status, known neurological disease with expected recurrence of seizures

150
Q

Acute management of seizures:

A

benzodiazepines.
If that fails, levetiracetam, valproic, fosphenytoin, phenobarbital loads

151
Q

Child with fever, headache, photophobia, and cochlear implants is at risk for what infection

A

Meningitis

152
Q

Which infection causing meningitis has a really high opening pressure?

A

Lyme

153
Q

What is a major cause of chronic headaches?

A

Medication overuse

154
Q

What are some risk factors for pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Vitamin A in excess
Tetracycline
Sleep apnea
Lupus

155
Q

Treatment of botulism

A

Under one-year-old: human derived botulism immunoglobulin
Over one year-old: equine serum botulism antitoxin

156
Q

Lumbar puncture that shows cytogenic dissociation (100–150 protein, less than 10 white blood cells)

A

Guillan Barre

157
Q

Patient newly diagnosed with Duchene muscular dystrophy…what is the next best step?

A

ECHO

158
Q

Lab finding in Kawasaki disease

A

Anemia for age
Thrombocytosis
Hypoalbuminemia
Elevated ALT
Leukocytosis
Sterile pyuria

159
Q

Patient with alopecia, diarrhea, dermatitis with erythematous plaques on the cheeks and buttocks

A

Acrodermatitis enteropathica
Inherited defect in zinc absorption

160
Q

Port wine stains in a distribution of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve are associated with what condition

A

Sturge-Weber syndrome

161
Q

What is DRESS?

A

Drug rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms
Etiology: phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, sulfonamides, trimethoprim
Patients are sick appearing with lymphadenopathy, rash, organ dysfunction, most commonly hepatitis.
Starts one to six weeks after the exposure

162
Q

How is dress diagnosed and treated?

A

Labs will show eos, atypical lymphocytosis, pancytopenia, elevated AST ALT.
Get skin biopsy if uncertain.
Treatment is removal of offending agent.
High dose corticosteroids

163
Q

What is Brutons agammaglobulinemia?

A

Absence of B cells
Presents after 6 mos
Severe infections
No tonsils
Need monthly IVIG

164
Q

What is common variable immune deficiency?

A

Acquired disorder of antibody production.
Presents after 2yo
Low IgA, IgG, IgM
Lymphoma, autoimmune disease
Monthly IVIG

165
Q

What are the characteristics of DiGeorge?

A

CATCH 22
Cleft palate
Abnormal faces.
Thymic plasia leading to T cell deficiency.
Congenital heart defects.
Hypocalcemia
Chromosome 22 microdeletions

Hospitalist boards (5 decks)

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