Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Obs & Gynae (Obs) > High-Risk Pregnancy Part 2 > Flashcards

High-Risk Pregnancy Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which is more common- monozygotic or dizygotic twins?

A

Dizygotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

All dizygotic twins have what chorionicity/amniocity?

A

DCDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Monozygotic twins where the embryo splits at days 0-3 after fertilisation (morula stage) will have what chorionicity/amniocity?

A

DCDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Monozygotic twins where the embryo splits at days 4-7 after fertilisation (blastocyst stage) will have what chorionicity/amniocity?

A

MCDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Monozygotic twins where the embryo splits at days 8-14 after fertilisation (implanted blastocyst stage) will have what chorionicity/amniocity?

A

MCMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Monozygotic twins where the embryo splits at days 15+ after fertilisation (formed embryonic disc stage) will have what chorionicity/amniocity?

A

Conjoined twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Other than ethnic origin, what are some risk factors for having DCDA twins?

A

Family history, increasing maternal age, fertility treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Individuals of what ethnic origin are at increased risk of having DCDA twins?

A

Afro-Caribbean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The chorionicity of a twin pregnancy is determined by what investigation, ideally before what gestation?

A

Ultrasound, ideally before 14 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The presence of the lambda or twin peak sign on ultrasound indicates which chorionicity of twin pregnacy?

A

Dichorionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The presence of the T sign on ultrasound indicated which chorionicity of pregnancy?

A

Monochorionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which chorionicity of twins are at an increased risk of pregnancy complications?

A

Monochorionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When does twin anaemia-polycythaemia sequence typically occur?

A

After foetoscopic laser ablation for twin-twin transfusion syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens to the AFP in a multiple pregnancy?

A

Raised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How often are monochorionic twin pregnancies scanned after 24 weeks?

A

Every 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How often are dichorionic twin pregnancies scanned after 24 weeks?

A

Every 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In twin pregnancies, serial ultrasound growth scanning is used from what gestation?

A

24 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A size discordance of greater than what between twins or triplets is clinically significant?

A

> 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Twin-twin transfusion syndrome only occurs in which type of twin pregnancy?

A

MCMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In MCMA twin pregnancies, ultrasound scans are carried out every 2 weeks from what gestation?

A

16 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is twin-twin transfusion syndrome treated in early pregnancy, i.e. < 26 weeks?

A

Foetoscopic laser ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is twin-twin transfusion syndrome treated in late pregnancy, i.e. > 26 weeks?

A

Amnioreduction or septostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How often do monochorionic twin pregnancies have antenatal appointments?

A

Every 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How often do dichorionic twin pregnancies have antenatal appointments?

A

Every 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What supplements should be given to women with multiple pregnancies?
Iron, folic acid and aspirin
26
In an MCDA twin pregnancy, delivery is by induction or C-section at what gestation?
36 weeks
27
In a DCDA twin pregnancy, delivery is by induction or C-section at what gestation?
37 weeks
28
When is C-section recommended to mothers of twin pregnancies?
When the first twin is in the breech or transverse position
29
When and how should MCMA twins be delivered?
32 weeks by C-section
30
How should triplets or higher order births be delivered?
C-section
31
When should syntocinon be given when delivering twins?
After the delivery of the first twin
32
When delivering twins, you should aim for an inter-twin delivery time of what?
< 30 minutes
33
Anti-D should be given to Rhesus negative women when there is vaginal bleeding after what gestation?
12 weeks
34
Anti-D should be administered within what timeframe of the sensitising event?
72 hours
35
After 20 weeks, what investigation must be carried out after giving anti-D to a Rhesus negative woman?
Kleihauer test
36
One dose of anti-D provides cover for how long?
6 weeks
37
Is prophylactic anti-D given even if the woman has already received anti-D at a sensitising event?
Yes
38
Haemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by the passage of which type of antibody across the placenta from mother to foetus?
IgG
39
What is the first step in investigation of haemolytic disease of the newborn, where antibody titres are significantly increased?
Cell-free foetal DNA testing (for blood group genotype)
40
What investigation is used to detect foetal anaemia in pregnancies at risk from haemolytic disease of the newborn?
Doppler ultrasound of the middle cerebral artery
41
What intervention is required if a baby at risk from haemolytic disease of the newborn is found to have a middle cerebral artery velocity of 1.5 times the median for the gestation?
Foetal blood sampling and an intra-uterine infusion
42
Babies with haemolytic disease of the newborn are usually delivered at what gestation?
37-38 weeks
43
How often can intra-uterine infusions be carried out for babies with haemolytic disease of the newborn, if there is significant anaemia and foetal compromise?
Weekly
44
In babies receiving intra-uterine infusions for haemolytic disease of the newborn, at what gestation does the risk of the disease overtake the risk of delivery, and the baby should be delivered?
35 weeks
45
All babies born to Rhesus negative mothers should have cord blood taken at delivery for what investigations?
FBC, blood group and direct Coomb's test
46
Small for gestational age is defined as an estimated foetal weight or abdominal circumference below what centile on a personalised growth chart?
10th
47
Severe small for gestational age is defined as an estimated foetal weight or abdominal circumference below what centile on a personalised growth chart?
3rd
48
What is the cause of the majority of small for gestational age foetuses?
Constitutionally small
49
How is a growth restricted foetus generally picked up?
Symphysial-fundal height smaller than expected for the gestation
50
What is a normal symphysial-fundal height?
It should match the gestational age in weeks to within 2cm
51
Foetal weight is estimated based on ultrasound measurements of what?
Abdominal circumference and femur length
52
Growth restriction which is mediated by the placenta is usually associated with what other complication?
Oligohydramnios
53
Oligohydramnios is defined as a single deepest pool of amniotic fluid below what value?
2cm
54
What investigation is used to screen for poor foetal perfusion in cases of small for gestational age foetuses?
Umbilical artery Doppler
55
If a foetus is small for gestational age, but the umbilical artery Doppler is normal, what is done next?
Growth assessment every 2-4 weeks, with delivery planned for 37 weeks
56
If a foetus is small for gestational age, but the umbilical artery Doppler is abnormal, what is done next?
Daily scans until delivery via C-section
57
Stillbirth is the death in utero of a foetus from what gestation onwards?
24 weeks
58
How is the diagnosis of stillbirth confirmed?
Absence of foetal heart activity on ultrasound (must be confirmed by two sonographers)
59
After stillbirth, how is labour induced?
Mifepristone and misoprostol
60
What method of delivery is generally preferred after a stillbirth?
Vaginal
61
Is the risk of stillbirth higher in women with a previous unexplained stillbirth?
Yes

Obs & Gynae (Obs) (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions