High Court Practice Flashcards

1
Q

What is an Anton Pillar?

A

It is an application brought on an urgent basis and without notice to the opposing party when the applicant has a reasonable belief that the opposing party is in possession of vital evidence and that there are real/well-founded apprehension that such opponent intends to destroy or dispose of the evidence before discovery/trial.

The applicant brings the application before the court for an order permitting them to obtain the evidence.

Applicant must prove that they have:

1) prima facie case
2) evidence that party in possession of evidence which they might destroy/dispose so as to defeat the ends of justice
3) the specific documents sought which may be destroyed

NOT TO BE USED AS A FORM OF EARLY DISCOVERY AS IN VIZIYA case

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2
Q

What is a spoliation application?

A

It is an application that provides relief to people who have been deprived of their goods without due legal process having been followed.

  • such person can regain possession of the dispossessed goods using the spoliation application.

Must prove:

  • had undisturbed and peaceful possession of goods
  • allege and prove unlawful deprivation of goods
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3
Q

What are the two types of interpleaders?

A

The first type takes place in respect of property attached in execution where the sheriff has attached the property of a judgment debtor and another person claims ownership of that property.

The second type relates to adverse claims being made by two or more persons against the applicant in respect of money.

The process is as follows:
1) the applicant will deliver an interpleader notice to the relevant claimants, delivers the interpleader to court and pays the money to the registrar of the court who will hold it until conflicting claims decided.

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4
Q

When will the court grant absolution from the instance?

A

Either at the end of the plaintiff’s case or at the end of the whole case, dismissing the plaintiff’s claim. It has the effect of leaving both parties in the same place and does not amount to res judicata. Plaintiff entitled to bring fresh case once more evidence obtained.

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5
Q

When do you raise an exception?

A

It is raised when the excipient alleges that a pleading against which he excepts is inherently defective and is a legal objection.

The legal objection to a pleading is that it is not legally valid as it stands for its intended purpose.

the grounds on which to except are as follows:

1) vague and embarassing
2) particulars do not disclose a COA/defence

  • It must be raised within the period allowed for the filing of any subsequent pleading.
  • before the exception is raised on the ground that it is vague or embarrassing, the excipient should by notice w/in 10 days of the pleading, afford opposing party opportunity to remove COC
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6
Q

What is the difference between appeal and review?

A

Appeal:

  1. must be noted within period prescribed in terms of the rules
  2. Appellant bound by the record
  3. court bound to the merits of the matter before concluding if the decision of the court a quo was right
  4. Application for leave to appeal or notice of appeal automatically suspends the operation of the court a quo’s decision until appeal decided
  5. Court determining appeal’s decision overturns decision of court a quo and declares its own decisions to be the decision of the court a quo

Review:

  1. must be brought within a reasonable period (not fixed)
  2. applicant not bound by the record
  3. merits not entertained, merely looks at the manner in which the decisions was reached
  4. does not necessarily suspend the decision under review
  5. May set aside decision of court a quo but it does not substitute that decision with its own. Orders the applicant to refer matter back to court de novo for a hearing de novo
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7
Q

Discuss how to go about amending a pleading.

A
  1. Deliver notice of intention to amend pleading stating the particular amendments. Such notice must further state that any objections to the amendment should be delivered within 10 days of notice failing which amendment will be deemed to not be objected to.
  2. If objection delivered within 10 days, must clearly state the grounds on which such objection is founded. Party amending may within 10 days of receipt of objection apply to court on notice for leave to amend and set matter down for hearing. Unless court directs otherwise, amending party must effect amendments by delivering pages in amended form within 10 days.
  3. If no objection delivered within 10 days, the party to whom the notice was sent will be deemed to have agreed to the amendment. On expiry of the 10 day period for the objection, effect the amendment.
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8
Q

List the different types of special pleas

A
  1. Special Plea in abatement (quashes claim altogether):
    - Prescription: where the claim has prescribed
    - Res judicata: where the same cause between the same parties has been previously tried
    - Absence of jurisdiction: where the court does not have jurisdiction to hear the matter
    - Absence of Locus standi: where plaintiff doesn’t have sufficient legal capacity in the proceedings
  2. Dilatory Special Plea (does not abate the claim, only delays proceedings):
    - Arbitration:
    - Misjoinder or non Joinder
    - Lis pendens
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9
Q

What is the difference between a special plea in abatement and a dilatory special plea?

A

A special plea in abatement destroys the cause of action an quashes the claim made.

A dilatory special plea postpones the the operation of the plaintiff’s cause of action.

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10
Q

Who can raise a special plea?

A

The defendant can raise the special plea against the plaintiff’s plea.

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11
Q

What is the difference between a special plea and an exception?

A

A special plea raises a special defence and is directed at an underlying legal problem. The special plea is procedural in character and either destroys or postpones the operation of the cause of action. It is not an objection to the merits of the case.

An exception is raised when there is a legal objection to the merits of the claim. The objection raised against the pleading is that the pleading as it stands is not legally valid for its purpose.

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12
Q

What is a Summary Judgment?

A

It is a procedure that allows the plaintiff to obtain judgment against a defendant summarily without the matter proceeding to trial. It is applicable where a defendant has entered a defence and the plaintiff has a reasonable belief that the defence entered is not a bona fide defence.

It may be raised for following claims:

1) based on liquid document
2) liquidated demand
3) delivery of specified movable property
4) ejectment

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13
Q

What amendment was made in respect of Summary Judgments and what gap has it created in the law?

A

Previously, a Plaintiff could apply for summary judgment after receipt of the notice of intention to defend. An amendment prescribes that application for summary judgment can only be made after the defendant has filed a plea.

The issue this may present, which was ventilated in the Belrex v Barday case in 2021, is that subsequent to the delivery of the summary judgment, the defendant is entitled to amend their plea. The amendment does not preclude the defendant from amending its plea even after summary judgment has been applied for.

This creates a lacunae in the law and an opportunity for defendants to use this tool to frustrate the plaintiff in their application for summary judgment.

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14
Q

What are the timelines in a Summary Judgment application

A

1) Application for summary judgment - 15 days after Defendant’s plea
2) Opposing Affidavit - 5 days before hearing
3) Hearing

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15
Q

What is a Default judgment, who can use it and when?

A
  • A default judgment is a judgment entered against a defendant who has failed to defend a claim brought against them. It can be used by the plaintiff.
  • There are four instances in which default judgment may be entered:

1) D has not served NOITD/ failed to do so timeously
2) D has served NOITD but has not delivered their Plea

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16
Q

What are the monetary jurisdictions for HC, MC and Small Claims Court, respectively?

A

Magistrates Court - Minor criminal and civil matters up to R200 000 in the District court and between R 200 000 and R 400 000 in the Regional court
High Court - No monetary limitation
Small Claims Court - Natural persons against other natural/juristic persons. Claims up to R20 000.

17
Q

Explain the differences between action and application proceedings and name examples of each.

A
  1. Parties
  2. How each commenced
  3. Further pleadings v affidavits
  4. Dispute on the papers v by hearing
  5. Preparation for trial
  6. Motion court v trial court
18
Q

Which proceedings would you opt for in divorce matter - action or application?

A

A divorce matter is limited to being instituted under action proceedings as a real dispute of fact may arise which cannot be resolved without oral evidence.

19
Q

Where would you file a summons in a case where the debtor consented to the jurisdiction of a particular court and they have since relocated to another jurisdiction?

A

I would either file the summons within the jurisdiction of the court wherein the defendant now resides or wherein the whole cause of action arose.

20
Q

Name an example of an instance that stops/interrupts prescription

A

1) service of a process where the creditor claims payment of debt from the debtor.
2) acknowledgment of debt by debtor

21
Q

What are the grounds for review?

A
  1. Absence of jurisdiction by the court
  2. Interest in the cause
  3. Bias
  4. Malice or corruption
  5. Gross irregularity in the proceedings
  6. admission of inadmissible/incompetent evidence
  7. Rejection of admissible/competent evidence
22
Q

In Divorce proceedings, which court would you issue summons from if the defendant and plaintiff reside in different areas and the marriage was concluded at a different area?

A

Where the parties concluded the marriage.

23
Q

Explain the edictal citation procedure

A

It is a process that enables the Plaintiff to sue a person that is outside of the Republic.

1) Necessary to obtain leave of court to serve a process/document instituting proceedings outside of RSA

2) Obtain such leave by bringing ex parte application to court
- NOM and founding affidavit
- Explain nature and extent of claim
- grounds upon which court has jurisdiction
- manner of service court asked to authorise
- court will order time period within which Defendant must service NOITD

24
Q

Explain the substituted service procedure?

A

Application is brought when litigant wants to commence proceedings against a party whose physical whereabouts are unknown to the litigant.

1) Applicant brings Ex Parte application for leave to effect substituted service (NOM and affidavit)

2) Affidavit will address
- Nature of claim
- grounds for jurisdiction
- last known whereabouts of defendant & attempts to locate same
- suggested method of service

3) Court will order method of service that is most likely to cause defendant to become aware of the proceedings.

25
Q

Which summons are used in a delictual claim

A

Combined Summons

26
Q

What is the difference between a normal application and an urgent application?

A

A normal application must comply with the ordinary provisions of the Uniform rules and forms of court as prescribed.

An urgent application is regulated by rule 6(12) of the URC and it enables the court to dispense with the forms and service under circumstances where urgent relief is sought by an applicant to such degree that the ordinary rules relating to time and notice cannot be complied with.

An applicant may bring an urgent applicant not only when there is a threat to their life or liberty, but under circumstances where there is a threat to a commercial interest.

E.g. transfer of property registration imminent and applicant wishes to interdict registration as only became aware of such registration recently and has substantial interest in the transfer thereof.

27
Q

What can the plaintiff to a divorce do when she does not know the whereabouts of her husband?

A

Apply to court Ex Parte for leave to give effect to substituted service.

28
Q

What is a declaration?

A

it is a pleading delivered in proceedings commenced by simple summons. The Plaintiff will issue simple summons. The Plaintiff will deliver their NOITD within 10-20 days. Plaintiff must deliver their declaration within 15 days of NOITD (which is comparable to particulars of claim in respect of combined summons).

29
Q

Explain the importance of taking proper instructions

A

The most important outcome of a consultation with a client is to establish what their legal issue is, obtain facts regarding the legal issue, advise them accordingly and obtain their express instructions.

It is important to take proper instructions because a legal practitioner must ensure that they understand what is required from them by the client. An attorney must always ensure that they are working on the client’s instructions and in their best interests.

30
Q

Explain what “cause of action” is

A

It is a legal fact which gives rise to an obligation which results in liability.

31
Q

Under what circumstances does a dispute of fact arise?

A
  1. Respondent denies substantial factual allegations and makes contrasting factual allegations that the applicant denies
  2. Respondent admits substantial factual allegations and makes further substantial factual allegations that the applicant denies
  3. The respondent alleges that has no knowledge of allegations made by applicant but alleges that applicant is unreliable, untrustworthy and that facts relied upon by applicant are untrue.
    4.
32
Q

Distinguish between a curator bonis, curator ad litem and a curator personam

A
  1. A curator bonis is appointed by the court to administer a person’s property and affairs in general
  2. A curator ad litem is appointed by the court to represent a person in civil litigation
  3. A curator personam is a person appointed to oversee the patient’s daily living, care and treatment
33
Q

Distinguish between an incola and peregrinus

A

1) An incola is a local litigant domiciled within the jurisdiction of the court
2) A peregrinus is a foreign litigant that is not domiciled within the jurisdiction of the court

34
Q

List and explain the prerequisites for an action

A

There are four stages in an action

  1. Pleadings stage - define the issues in dispute in writing
  2. Pre-trial stage - preparation for trial e.g. Discovery of documents, witness statements, pre-trial conference
  3. Trial - oral evidence
  4. Judgment - decision made by court and order delivered
35
Q

Distinguish between Combined, Simple and Provisional Sentence Summons

A
  • A Combined Summons may be used for any kind of claim where it is appropriate, especially unliquidated/illiquid claims such as damages and divorce. It contains particulars of claim which set out the facts relied upon in support of claim.
  • A Simple Summons must be used for claims of debt or a liquidated demand and specifically in respect of:
    a) cancellation of a contract and ejectment
    b) interdict
    c) delivery of property
    d) overdraft
    A simple summons is delivered to the defendant specifying the period in which the latter should enter a defence. Once NOITD delivered, the plaintiff must deliver their declaration.
  • A Provisional Sentence Summons must be used in respect of liquid documents
    a) cheque
    b) acknowledgment of debt
    c) mortgage
    It is a hybrid procedure containing elements of both action and motion procedure. It commences by way of summons but is adjudicated on affidavits.
36
Q

Discuss Joinder and distinguish it from a Third Party Procedure

A

All persons who have a substantial and direct interest in the relief must joined as parties in the proceedings. They may be joined as Co-Plaintiffs or Co-defendants. There are two types of joinder:

a) Joinder of convenience - based on same questions of law/fact
b) compulsory joinder - rights so directly affected that joined

A third-party procedure differs from joinder as it applies where the party in the action claims that he is entitled, iro any relief claimed against him to a contribution or indemnification by a third party.

37
Q

Distinguish between misjoinder and non-joinder

A

Misjoinder entails the joinder of a person who does not have interest in the matter whereas non-joinder is the failure to join an essential party to the proceedings when you ought to.

38
Q

What are the different methods of service?

A
  1. Personal service
  2. At place of residence or business
  3. At chosen domicilium citandi
  4. At registered office or principal place of business
  5. On Partnership, firm or voluntary association
  6. On local authority