HGST Study Guide Flashcards
1
Q
The gunner’s triangle is a logical sequence of events which standardizes the engagement method, in order of - ___ ___, ___, ___, ___ ___. This method ensures that the firing crew member uses a complete cross-check, while verbalizing the engagement process parameters for the opposite crew member to maneuver the aircraft appropriately.
A
Target heading
Range
Store
Weapons employment
2
Q
Neutralization knocks the target out of battle temporarily. ___ percent or more casualties usually neutralize most units. The unit becomes effective again when…
A
10
Casualties are replaced and equipment is repaired
3
Q
Destructive fires put the target out of action permanently. A unit with ___ percent or more casualties is usually rendered permanently ineffective, depending on the type and discipline of the force.
A
30
4
Q
The three target-effect standards for armed helicopter engagements are: ___, ___, and ___.
A
Suppression
Neutralization
Destruction
5
Q
What are the four kill standards classified as?
A
Mobility
Firepower
Combined mobility and firepower
Catastrophic
6
Q
The four types of ballistics influencing projectiles fired from helicopters are…
A
Interior
Exterior
Aerial
Terminal
7
Q
Interior ballistics include…
A
Barrel wear Launcher tube misalignment Thrust misalignment Propellant charge Projectile weight
8
Q
Exterior ballistics include…
A
Gravity Airspeed Yaw Projectile drift Wind drift
9
Q
What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile?
A
Time of flight and wind acting on the cross-sectional area of the projectile
10
Q
Yaw is the angle between the centerline of the projectile and its trajectory which results in the projectile’s trajectory changing which increases drag. Where would a projectile have its maximum yaw?
A
Near the muzzle and gradually subsiding as the projectile stabilizes.
11
Q
The exterior ballistic which causes a clockwise spinning projectile to move to the right is called what?
A
Projectile drift
12
Q
Do Apache drivers have to compensate for Projectile drift?
A
No. Pilots should note that Apache ballistics algorithms compensate for this phenomenon, so aircrews do not have to make adjustments.
13
Q
Trajectory shift and projectile drift combine to constitute the ___-___ ___.
A
Port-starbord effect
14
Q
AH-64D Pilots should recognize that compensation for trajectory shift is accomplished automatically by the WP if…
A
- ) TADS is the LOS (TSE)
2. ) FCR is the LOS (Scan-to-scan correlation)
15
Q
___ ___ is the result of a downward jump when shooting to the right and an upward jump when shooting to the left.
A
Projectile jump
16
Q
___ ___ ___ is caused by the motion of the helicopter as the projectile leaves the weapon.
A
Angular rate error
17
Q
Angular rate error occurs when an aircrew fires rockets from a hover using the pitch-up delivery technique. Hover fire engagements can be achieved at a range of approximately ___ meters without changing the aircraft pitch attitude
A
4,500
18
Q
___ ___ describes a projectile’s characteristics and effects on a target. Projectile functioning such as blast, heat, and fragmentation are influenced by fuze and warhead functioning, impact angle, and surface condition.
A
Terminal ballistics
19
Q
Angle of impact is a characteristic of ___ ballistics
A
Terminal
20
Q
Because the rocket is accelerating as it leaves the launcher, the force acting upon the fins causes the nose of the rocket to turn into the wind. This is known as ___ ___ ___.
A
Relative wind effect
21
Q
What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets (besides poor pilot technique) and what is done to minimize that error?
A
Thrust misalignment
Rocket spin
22
Q
Maximum effective range is defined as…
A
The longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target
23
Q
Hellfire II missiles share a common rocket motor and SAD. The M120E5 is a single thrust, rod and tube motor design containing approximately 9.1kg of class 1.1 propellant. Maximum velocity is approximately ___ meters per second (MACH __)
A
470
1.4
24
Q
Running fire is defined as the tasks that are conducted at maneuver speeds between…
A
50 KTS and VNE
25
Running fire performed at airspeeds above ___ will offer a mix of aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy.
ETL
26
Turret bending is the single largest contributor to the perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64D 30mm cannon. Turret bending compensation is applied by the weapons processor during the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd rounds how?
1st: None
2nd: half
3rd: full
27
AH-64 ballistics algorithms automatically compute rotor downwash compensation for rockets based on AC gross weight, air density ratio, and longitudinal true airspeed. However, this compensation assumes rocket launch is initiated at ___ altitudes.
OGE
28
Rotor downwash influence is reduced to zero at approximately ___ knots ___ airspeed because the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher forward bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to zero.
33
| indicated
29
The target state estimator (TSE) is utilized to derive states using the following three inputs:
1. ) Processed range data from the laser range validator
2. ) TADS pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros
3. ) Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGIs
30
Crewmembers will not use ___ affiliated graphic control measures/icons/symbols to mark enemy locations and vice-versa to avoid fratricide and other unnecessary confusion.
friendly
31
To provide time and space to set up a running or diving fire attack, the AMC selects an initial point (IP). Normally, the IP is located approximately __ to __ km from the target and acts as a starting point for the attack run.
8
| 10
32
When selecting the initial point for a running or diving fire attack it should be one of what two things?
1. ) Easily identifiable terrain feature
| 2. ) TSD/C-Scope icon
33
Transmission of the 5-line CCA Brief (G2A) constitutes clearance to fire expect in what situation?
Danger close
34
The 4 T's associated with aircraft control (firing techniques) during rocket engagements are what?
Target
Torque
Trim
Target
35
What are the two types of fire?
Direct and indirect
36
What are the four modes of fire? How would you describe them?
Hover Moving (Equal to or greater than ETL but less than 40KTS) Running (40KTS to VNE) Diving (10* below the horizon, 40KTS to VNE)
37
The five firing techniques are...
Hover, Running, Diving, Low altitude bump, and diving/running fire initial point.
38
___-___ ___ maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low-altitude run-in with a 300-1,000 foot (bump) about 1,500 to 2,000 meters prior to the target.
Low-altitude bump
39
After weapon's release the crew executes a turn away from the target. This maneuver is called a ___ ___ formerly referred to as a break.
pull-off
40
The AMC selects the appropriate team employment technique and will brief using what?
Technique
Pattern
Munitions
Range
41
The AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based on the tactical situation utilizing the following terminology...
Shooter/cover
Shooter/shooter
Looker/shooter
42
What technique is used to adjust fire that requires the aircrew member firing the weapon to sense projectile impacts of the weapon system and use proper technique to adjust the rounds on target. Crews can use this method with the cannon, machine gun, and rocket engagements.
Burst on Target (BOT)
43
The three techniques of applying burst on target correction include ___, ___ ___, and ___ methods.
Recognition
Milliadian relation
LRF
44
You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters. You then adjust your line or sight to the right of the target and fire again, hitting the target. This is what burst on target method?
Kentucky windage or recognition
45
You fire a pair of rockets at a target, missing long. You then laze the approximate center of the rocket's impact point and adjust your range down (manual range) to fire your next pair. This is the ___ method of Burst on Target.
LRF
46
When the LRF/D is not working, referencing the target size vs symbology to determine range to target is known as what Burst on Target method?
Milliradian Relationship method
47
At shorter distances with the M261 warhead, the RAD takes longer to overcome momentum, ___ dispersion. As range increases, the rocket loses momentum, increasing effectiveness of the RAD.
Increasing
48
What are the three levels of SAFE?
1. ) Finger off trigger
2. ) Weapons de-WASed
3. ) A/C SAFEd
49
What is danger close for 30mm rounds?
500: 75m
1000: 95m
1500: 115m
50
During the dynamic harmonization of the AWS, what three things are accomplished / required?
1. ) Heading to target +/- 5* at a range of 500 to 1500 meters
2. ) Place 5 to 10 rounds in the target
3. ) Accurately transcribe the dynamic harmonization data to the aircraft logbook
51
The M789 HEDP projectile is an ___-___ and ___ ___ round capable of defeating light armored vehicles.
anti-personnel
| anti material
52
The M789 round shaped warhead forms a high-velocity jet for light armor penetration. Armor penetration ranges from ___" at 500 meters to ___" at 3km with the spin compensated copper liner.
This is generalized as __" at 2500m.
1.5
3
2
53
The M789 burst radius is ___ meters. However, the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the surface conditions, impact angle, velocity, and target type.
4
54
The M789 round has an approximate velocity of ___ meters per second at the muzzle and slows steadily thereafter.
805
55
The three types of rounds the 30mm can accommodate and description of them are...
M788 (TNG)
M789 (HEDP)
M848 (Dummy)
56
What is the time of flight for a 2km 30mm shot?
5.8 seconds
57
When FXD is selected by the pilot the ___ will only be displayed in the ___ ___ symbology. When FXD is selected by the CPG, ___ will have the CCIP displayed in their respective formats.
CCIP
PLT Format
Both
58
When actioning the gun or rockets from the cyclic in either crew station, the range will change to the last valid ___ range when HMD is the selected sight.
Manual
59
During a FXD gun engagement, you action the gun by momentarily placing the WAS on the cyclic forward to the gun position. When WASed, the gun will relocate and remain in the FXD position of...
0* azimuth
| +.87* elevation
60
The gun duty cycle is as follows...
6 50x round bursts with 5 seconds in between followed by a 10 minute cool down.
For settings other than 50, it can be generalized as no more than 300 rounds in the preceding 60 seconds followed by a 10 minute cool down, after which cycles can be repeated.
61
The WARNING related to the 30mm stoppage states...
If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding 10 minutes and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
62
The maximum effective range for the 30mm is...
1500 to 1700 meters
63
When firing the AWS in NORM, LOS INVALID is a safety inhibit. When firing the AWS in ___ mode, it becomes a ___ inhibit and the operator can override the inhibited message via the weapons trigger second detent.
FXD
| Performance
64
The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of ___ degrees left or right, ___ degrees elevation (___ degrees within ___ degrees of the centerline), and ___ degrees depression.
```
+86
+11
+9
10
-60
```
65
(T/F) Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FXD mode.
True
66
The 30mm is limited to ___ degrees in azimuth when rockets are actioned simultaneously.
60
67
The 30mm is limited to ___ degrees in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fires if it is on the inboard pylon.
52
68
The LOS reticle flashes when the crew member's LOS is ___ or his selected LOS is at ___. It also flashes when...
Invalid
Limits
Gun is WASed and has failed and is not following the crew member's head
69
There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?
The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground.
70
In the event of the GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be ___ in elevation. Gun azimuth may not provide proper wire strike protection due to wire cutter angle.
Stowed
71
What is the WARNING associated with the 30mm?
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of life, injury, or death.
72
The software ballistic limit for the 30mm is ___m
4200
73
The maximum capacity of the ammunition handling system is ___ rounds.
1200
74
The 100-gallon aux fuel cell includes ___ round ammunition storage magazine, making a maximum capacity of about ___ rounds.
242
| 300
75
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ___ degrees in elevation to prevent ___-___ during landing.
+11 degrees
| dig in
76
In the event of an IHADSS failure with the gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is ___. When the gun is de-actioned, it will return to...
Prohibited
| the stow position
77
The rate of fire for the 30mm is...
625 +/- 25
78
When conducting the AWS harmonizationn, the CPG positions the dashed reticle over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then pressing the ___ switch.
Store/update
79
The Side-loader/Magazine Controller (S/MC) performs three distinct ammunition handling system functions?
Counting, Control of the carrier drive assembly, Control of the loader assembly for up and downloading.
80
How many rounds will be displayed on the 30mm while in the training mode?
888
81
What is danger close for 2.75" rockets?
300: 140m
800: 210m
1500: 305m
82
With the Hellfire Rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?
A: 24
B: 8
E: 6
83
M439/M261 with M66 motors are not authorized at ranges less than ___m and ___KTS
1000
| 90
84
___ ___ is a safety inhibit that is displayed when vertical acceleration is less than .5G and may cause main rotor blade to obstruct the trajectory of the rocket.
ACCEL Limit
85
The ___ crew member to WAS has control of the weapon system. The only time this is not true is if the CPG has rockets WASed via the ___ WAS switch and the pilot actions rockets, resulting in...
Last
LHG
COOP Rockets
86
The M261 MPSM has ___ M73 submunitions and provides range settings from ___m to about ___m.
9
500
7000
87
Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than ___ inches of armor.
4
88
The M261 is a MPSM warhead for ___-___ and ___ ___ applications.
Anti material
| anti personnel
89
The MPSM warhead body is ___ drab with ___ markings.
Olive
| Yellow
90
The M261 contains ___ individual M73 sub-munitions with a shaped charge warhead for a perforating light armor and a fragmenting steel case for anti-personnel effects.
Nine
91
The MPSM submunitions will land ___ degrees off center ___ percent of the time, resulting in a ___% probability of producing personnel injuries within a ___m radius.
5
66
90
20
92
An MPSM submunition landing ___ degree off center has a ___% probability of producing casualties within a __m radius.
30
90
5
93
The Mk66 rocket achieves maximum velocity at approximately ___m from the launch of the aircraft.
300
94
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than ___ with two ___ launchers every ___ seconds or fire only ___ outboard launcher installed without restriction.
pairs
outboard
three
one
95
In each M267 MPSM training warhead there are ___ inert submunitions and ___ smoke producing submunitions.
6
| 3
96
Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___m from other airborne helicopters.
51
97
The ARS can be employed independently by either crew member or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is ___, ___, or ___.
HMD
TADS
FCR
98
When the rockets are in the cooperative mode the WP will still use the ___ Sel LOS and range data in the fire control solution and will disregard ___ LOS and range data.
CPG
| PLT
99
Is the PLT permitted to make changes to the RKT page when in the cooperative mode?
Yes
100
What does the inclusion of a HERO filter provide for a rocket?
Hazard of Electronic Radiation to Ordinance, prevents the rocket from inadvertent ignition due to electromagnetic radiation (radio waves)
101
MK66 Mod __ rockets are prohibited from use on Army Apaches and Kiowa Warriors due to the possibility of ejection of the rocket motor stabilizing rod.
2
102
The Flachette rocket detonates about ___m before the predetermined range.
150
103
Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD can be achieved at a range of approximately ___m
4500
104
The Mk66 motor/fuse/warhead combination currently is supported by our software?
6PD, RC, IL, SK, MP, and FL.
105
Firing the MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than ___ft AGL and for all other flight conditions of ___ft AGL is not authorized.
7
| 5
106
The minimum range to target when firing Flachette rocket is ___ meters. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is __ to __km. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than __km.
800
1
3
3
107
When forward airspeed exceeds __KTAS, do not use M229/M423 warhead/fuze combination for engagement of targets under ___m distance, and ensure the line of fire is clear of obstruction.
10
| 140
108
When at a hover or forward airspeed is less than __KTAS, engagement distance and the requirement for line of fire to be clear of obstruction may be reduced to ___m. Firing this combination with the ballistics for the M151 warhead will result in reduced rocket range.
10
| 110
109
Re-inventory and attempting to fire 6MP, 6FL, and 6SK rocket types, after a no-fire event, is not recommended due to significant impact of accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least ___ days to allow the M439 fuze to reset.
10
110
The M257 Illumination (overt) warhead provides one million candlepower for ___ seconds or more.
100
111
The M278 IR Illumination warhead will provide IR light at one million candlepower for __-__ seconds.
150-210
112
The danger close range for K/M/N/FA/L Hellfires are ___m at all ranges.
The danger close range for Hellfires is ___m at all ranges.
110
130
113
Firing the missile near the endue of constraints reduces the missiles probability of hit. Aircrews should attempt to align the missile as close as possible, both ___ and ___, to the gun target line prior to firing.
Vertically and Horizontally
114
An offset of __ to __ degrees to the firing side should be used when possible to preclude the missile from flying through the TADS FOV.
3
| 5
115
What are the nine laser emitting factors?
```
Boresight error
Beam divergence
Backscatter
Attenuation
Spot Jitter
Overspill/Underspill
Podium Effect
Entrapment
```
116
When the seeker LOS differs from the TADS LOS by more than __ degrees and the seeker is locked onto the autonomous laser spot, the LOBL constraints box will indicate an out-of-constraints condition.
2
117
Backscatter can NOT be overridden by the trigger second detent. This is a ___ inhibit.
Safety
118
To eliminate a backscatter lock on, stop lading the target. Switch to ___-___, and use a minimum of ___ seconds delay from missile separation (___ seconds from trigger pull).
LOAL-Direct
2
3
119
Missile constraints are driven by what for the following:
LOBL
LOAL DIR
LOAL LO/HI
Missile seeker
LOS
ACQ/B5
120
(T/F) The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ window.
False, it is driven by WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM.
121
The missile seeker has a ___ degree seeker limit from the missile centerline.
+/- 30*
122
LOAL HI/LO maximum engagement range is __km
8
123
LOAL DIR maximum engagement range is __km
7
124
LOBL maximum engagement range is __km
7
125
When SAL missiles are fired from more than ___ feet above the target's altitude, or if ... fire the missile LOBL
800
| Very short minim ranges are required
126
Avoid firing LOAL when the launch altitude is greater than ___ feet above the target due to limited ability of the missile seeker to look down sufficiently to acquire the laser spot.
800
127
What is the minimum engagement ranges for a LOBL SAL missile with a zero degree offset? 20 degree offset?
500/700
128
The LOBL missile constraint box is ___.
+/- 20 degrees
129
The LOAL missile constraint is ___.
+/- 7.5 degrees
130
LOAL LO will clear a ___ foot mask with a ___ meter standoff from the obstacle.
260
| 600
131
LOAL HI will clear a ___ foot mask with a ___ meter standoff from the obstacle.
1000
| 1500
132
Due to seeker look down limits, the minimum engagement range for ___ engagements should be increased as follows:
- Increase minimum range by ___ meters between 50-400 feet.
- Increase minimum range by ___ meters between 401-800 feet.
LOAL
500
1000
133
Peak velocity of the missile when launched at sea level is ___ meters per second (___KTS and MACH __).
475
923
1.4
134
Arming can only occur when the missile's acceleration exceeds __Gs.
10
135
The fuze is armed between ___-___ meters from the launching platform for all hellfire's except the R model which is armed at ___ to ___ meters.
150 to 300
| 375 to 500
136
If a ___ ___ is on a launcher rail, the aircraft prevents live missiles from being launched from that launcher.
Training missile
137
The AGM-114K,L, and P configurations utilize a tandem shaped-charge warhead to enhance performance against reactive armor. The ___ ___ initially defeats explosive reactive armor, IOT allow main warhead to penetrate main armor layer.
precursor warhead
138
All hellfire missiles consist of ___, ___, ___, and ___ section.
Guidance
Warhead
Propulsion
Control
139
The SAL seeker has 5 operating modes. They are...
```
Cage
Slave
Stare
Scan
Track
```
140
There are 2 pilot-controlled guidelines to adhere to IOT minimize the hellfire missile roll tipoff:
1. ) Load from the ___ ___ rail and out for each pylon.
2. ) ___ ___ airspeeds lower the probability of roll-off
Upper inboard
| Higher launcher
141
The firing trajectory that affords the lowest faith path for all missiles is LOAL-___
DIR
142
During Remote engagements, ensure designator offset angle does not exceed ___ degrees. Missile guidance performance is improved at designator angles less than ___ degrees.
60
| 45
143
For LOBL firing mode, the articulation will position the pylon at ___ degrees above the target pitch line-of-sight.
+4
144
For LOBL firing mode in Lot 13.1/13.2, the articulation will position the pylon +4 degrees above what instead of the above the horizon?
The target pitch LOS.
145
K, L, M, N, P, and R model missiles are all considered SAL __ missiles.
II
146
Targets shall be a minimum of ___m from the firing point when firing point when firing M/N/K2A missiles.
800m
147
When employing a K2A against personnel in the open, aiming where achieves maximum shrapnel dispersion?
The ground just short of the target
148
Do not fly faster than ___KTAS when firing the AGM-114F-A missile.
90
149
Restrict the forward airspeed of all AH-64 aircraft to no greater than ___ knots during running fire of the hellfire K2A, M, and N missiles.
90
150
When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes between a bold and normal line, that missile is selected as what in the firing sequence?
The next missile to be launched
151
In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WP reserve for the priority channel?
3
152
What is the definition of ripple fire?
Multiple missiles launched with 2 or more unique laser channel codes.
153
The hellfire II designator exclusion zone is a 3D, __ degree cone which originates at the firing aircraft, extending outward to the maximum range of the missile.
30
154
The three conditions that will cause a REMOTE message to be displayed in the HAD are the following:
1. ) The firing ACFT's LRFD code does not match the requested (PRI) code
2. ) The selected sight is HMD
3. ) The laser is off
155
When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is ___. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is ___ ___.
Active
| Not avtive
156
What is the rule of thumb for determining the climb of a missile?
100 feet for every 1km
157
The rule of thumb for computing maximum laser delay is...
(TOF / 2) - 2
158
If it is anticipated that both the pilot and CPG will operate the FCR during the Mission, then an FCR operational check should be completed in ___ crew stations.
Both
159
The FCR will provide reliable data while maneuvering up to ___ degrees in roll, and ___ to ___ degrees in pitch. Flight outside these parameters may result in degraded FCR performance.
20
| +20 to -15
160
To decrease the effect of target velocities building up over time, the crew should attempt to fire the LOAL TADS to RF missile hand over to no longer than ___ to ___ seconds after the TARGET DATA message disappears.
5 to 7
161
Target symbols are dimmed after a period of time to indicate that target data is stale:
1. ) Moving: __
2. ) Stationary: __
5 seconds
| 30 seconds
162
The NTS symbol will become dashed if...
1. ) A/C is not armed
2. ) FCR is not selected as a sight
3. ) Weapon system is not actioned (WASed)
163
When the RF missile is actioned and a secondary target is passed to the RF missile, the WP will pass the North, East, and Down information of the target to the DP by monitoring the ___ ___ ___ message.
2nd Target Inhibit
164
Priority Fire (PF) zones are displayed in white as a quadrilateral to indicate a geographic area in which target priority is established as the highest for prioritization and display. It is displayed in the ___ but not ___.
GTM
| RMAP
165
Selecting the FCR Mode switch to RMAP, after RMAP is initially selected, displays target symbols ___ ___ ___.
without radar video
166
When FCR target data is displayed, switching from RMAP to GTM will display information in the selected format. Selecting ATM or TPM will do what?
Eliminate all ground targeting data.
167
Targets blank as they exit the scan sector except for the NTS. NTS will become ___ and ___ intensity when NTS is at the edge of sector scan (crew member may select new NTS).
Dashed and partial
168
The CUED search button is used to quickly orient the FCR to a RFI detected radar emitter conduct a scan. Selecting the CUED search button is a quick way to do what?
Mode, point, size, and initiate the FCR for a scan.
169
When an emitter selected for cued search is a ground emitter, what happens?
The FCR is commanded to RMAP and the FCR centerline is commanded to the azimuth of that emitter.
170
If the emitter is located beyond the azimuth limits if the RMAP, the FCR will not perform a cued search. If this condition occurs, a LIMITS message will be displayed in the Sight Status Field of the HAD for a minimum of ___ seconds.
10
171
If the CUED search button is pressed during a normal FCR scan, the scan will be ___ and a new one will be ___.
Discontinued
| Initiated.
172
When the FCR BIT ORIDE is selected from the FCR UTIL page, Initiated BIT (IBIT) will only conduct critical item BIT and will terminate early, after a minimum run time of approximately __ to __ seconds.
30 to 45
173
Target velocities are set to ___ during TADS to RF handover, if target velocities are under a specific threshold.
Zero
174
___ ___ is transfer of aircraft internal data to the missile inertial platform, which occurs automatically, whether inflight or not, at missile power up with no pilot action required.
Transfer Alignment
175
__ is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that transfer alignment has occurred, and the missile is ready to receive the target.
R
176
___ ___ ___ is when a missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target.
Doppler Beam Sharpening
177
The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on stationary targets between the ranges of ___ to ___ km. If the target is not detected, the missile will revert to LOAL.
1 to 2.5
178
The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode RF missiles will be powered up at ___ minute intervals. This does NOT occur when missiles are actioned.
10
179
A RF missile can receive a target handover from one of the following three sources:
TADS, FCR, IDM
180
The ___ mode is initiated when the firing command occurs.
Post launch
181
The target ___ and ___ modes are terms used to explain the different ways that the missile seeker improves its chances of locating and hitting LOBL and LOAL targets.
Acquisition and tracking
182
The missile has three target acquisition modes...
Pre-terminal, terminal, and moving target acquisition
183
The missile has two tracking modes...
Pre-terminal and terminal track
184
If the missile determines the target requires a LOBL acquisition, it will try to acquire it by radiating ___ consecutive times for about ___ seconds per.
3
| 3
185
When a stationary target is handed over the RF missile between ___ and ___ km, the missile will radiate and attempt to LOBL. At this range the missile must achieve LOBL. IF the target is not detected or track is subsequently lost, the message "NO ACQUIRE" will be displayed and firing will be inhibited.
.5 to 1km
186
RF DBS trajectory based on what?
Target location relative to the missile centerline
187
When does DBS occur?
On stationary targets at ranges from 2.5 to 8km
188
When an RF missile uses DBS, and the target is on the left side of the missile centerline, the missile will BDS to the ___ of the target.
right
189
When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?
NA
190
How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed time ON?
30 Minutes
191
If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon? What does the symbol mean?
OT, Overtemp
192
Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?
To allow for LOAL shots only. It inhibits the RF missile from transmitting, which eliminates RF signature.
193
What does the message "TARGET DATA ?" mean in the HAD?
Indicates no target data is available (i.e. MSL WASed, RF MSL selected, and TADS is selected LOS)
194
For an RF missile shot you must track and lass the target for at least ___ seconds or until the HAD message ___ ___ ___ blanks.
3
| Target Data ?
195
The MSL CCM button enables the CCM routine within the laser missile. The selection ___ the pulse of repetition frequency tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code.
Narrows
196
The 2nd Target Inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the ___ RF missile during a ___ target engagement.
Primary
| Stationary
197
The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of ___ to ___km.
1 to 2.5
198
At a 20 degree offset launch angle an RF missile azimuth flight profile will use a maximum cross range of ___m at 8km.
990
199
(T/F) The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven what is displayed in the FCR/TSF page ACQ source window.
False
200
If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to __km, the allowable constraints angle is __ degrees.
1
| 20
201
If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is less than __km, the allowable constraints angle is __ degrees.
1
| 5
202
What is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?
1 meter, 45 degree cone off the missile nose
203
In what three modes does the RF missile operate?
Standby, pre-launch, post launch
204
If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?
RF missile page even if no RF missile are present.
205
The FCR has been selected as the active sight. The RFHO data has exceeded optimum parameters to magnitude that safety inhibits are implemented. What HAD Sight Status Field message will be displayed?
NAV DATA INVALID
206
```
The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are...
W:
M:
N:
Z:
```
90
45
30
15
207
Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes airborne stationary targets?
A
208
Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets?
B
209
Which FCR priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving targets?
C
210
```
A single scan burst in GTM provides how many scans in which FOV?
W:
M:
N:
Z:
```
2
2
3
4
211
When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range from ___ to ___, it will radiate and attempt ___ x___ times.
.5
8
LOBL
3
212
What improves STI detection and classification of MTI classification?
Scan-to-scan correlation
213
When FCR is the selected sight and the weapons system is actioned, the NTS is ___ and the symbol becomes ___.
frozen, solid
214
Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ___ symbol will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and flash for ___ seconds.
ANTS
| 3
215
The ___ ___ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter.
CUED Search
216
A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within ___ degrees of the aircraft centerline.
90
217
Up to ___ RFI emitters can be displayed.
10
218
The RFI #1 emitter will be displayed with a ___ ___ symbol around the threat symbol and target type.
Home plate
219
After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for ___ seconds, the symbol will change to ___ intensity. After ___ seconds, of no transmission receipt, the symbol will ___.
30
partial
90
blank
220
A solid asterisk is displayed in front of the range to signify that the A/C is receiving what?
Valid range data
221
A flashing asterisk is displayed in front of the range to signify that the A/C is receiving what?
Multiple target returns.
222
What is the maximum PRF laser frequency that may be entered?
1788. Each of those numbers represents the highest number for each field.
223
___ bursts of laser energy in one second are fired when pulling the RH TEDAC handle trigger to the first detent.
Three
224
The second laser trigger detent activates the laser transmitter for ranging and target designation. The range displayed in the HAD will remain ___ for up to ___ seconds following the release of the second detent.
Dynamic
| 10
225
Maximum TADS turret gimbal movement is ___ right and ___ left in azimuth, ___ degrees up and ___ degrees down in elevation.
120
180
30
60
226
FLIR image quality in both TADS and PNVS can degrade over time. The FLIR SANUC (___ ___ ___ ___ ___) process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality.
Scene Assisted Non Uniformity Correction
227
___ ___ should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if what cannot be maintained?
Crew coordination
| Ground and obstacle clearance
228
Weapons initialization is used to verify ___/___ ___ status of the weapons using fault indications and symbolic messages. It also places the weapons in a condition that will require what?
Go/No-go
| Minimal switch selection prior to engagement
229
When operating in the TESS mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit selection of the HAD when the weapons system is Armed?
TRAINING
230
The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately ___ ft AGL with a ___ degree look-down angle.
33
| One
231
What message in the HAD indicates the fire signal was sent but umbilical separation did not occur, this message is displayed for 6 seconds during which time all HF missiles on that side of the helicopter become what?
HANGFIRE
| "Not Available (N/A) and are inhibited from firing
232
On the COORD page, pressing any VAB L1-L6 makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat what?
Your ACQ source
233
Navigation range is entered automatically when a coordinate point (TXX, WXX, CXX) is selected as the ___ source and the RHG ___ button is pressed.
ACQ
| SLAVE
234
The CPG can manually ___ the selected sight to the ACQ LOS via the RHG. If the CPG selects (changes) an acquisition source, the slave function is automatically set to ___.
SLAVE
| OFF
235
Boresight aligns TADS DTV to the laser LOS from the ___ to the ___ LOS. TADS boresight is initiated from the BORESIGHT page.
DTV
| TADS
236
If TADS power is applied, selecting ___ will allow the CPG to slew antenna elevation using the RHG manual tracker control.
Manual
237
Medium field of view should be used for target acquisition and ___ or ___ should be used for target recognition and engagement.
Narrow
| Zoom
238
When using the MTT, pressing and holding the switch in the IAT position for longer than ___ seconds will initiate manual sizing control of the tracking gates.
0.6
239
While maneuvering and tracking a target with LMC, an accurate dynamic range must be maintained to target. ___ should be used anytime the A/C, target, or both are moving.
LMC
240
When using the MTT, the sensor may be changed between ___ and ___ while tracking the target, however, the target will still be tracked in the ___ ___.
DTV, FLIR
| original sensor
241
When storing a target with the TADS using the UPDT/ST switch on the LHG, a TXX message will be displayed where?
In the PLT/CPG weapon inhibit field for four seconds
242
The target and threat file has up to ___ locations protected from overwriting referred to as the safe set.
25
243
The sight/sensor system consists of what 6 items?
```
IHADSS
PNVS
TADS
FCR
RFI
AAG
UR
```
244
The TADS footprint symbol on the TSD changes from partial intensity green to full intensity ___ when TADS is lasing.
white
245
What do the TADS FOV brackets surrounding the LOS reticle indicate? What if those gates are not present?
The gates indicate what portion of the TADS imagery will be displayed if the next narrower field of view is selected.
If the gates are not present then there is no narrower field of view.
246
Describe what will happen to the TADS if the LST is in manual and the LST receives properly coded laser energy?
The thumb force controller will no longer move the TADS until the LST is turned off.
247
The initial internal boresight takes approximately ___ minutes due to the cue search process. Subsequent bore sights will take approximately ___ seconds as they use the AZ and EL cue data from the initial boresight.
2
| 30
248
If you have been operating the TADS/PNVS on the ground for more than ___ minutes or longer, perform a SANUC before takeoff.
15
249
What does the LRFD in the "last" position do?
WP uses the last return
250
An aircraft equipped with a UR is capable of receiving __, __, __, and __ bands.
C
L
S
KU
251
An aircraft is equipped with an AAG antenna is capable of receiving ___ band.
KU
252
OH-58D and One Station Remote Viewing Terminal (OSRVT) are fixed to transmit in the ground mode. To communicate with another AAG system, what must happen?
The two systems must be set up in the opposite mode.
253
What are the three categories of Aerial Ballistics?
Common
Fin Stabilized
Spin Stabilized
254
What does Common Aerial Ballistics consist of?
Rotor Downwash
Angular Rate Error
Turn Bank Error
255
What does Fin Stabilized Aerial Ballistics consist of?
Propellant Force
Center of Gravity
Relative Wind
256
What does Spin Stabilized Aerial Ballistics consist of?
Port-Starboard Effect
Projectile Jump
Trajectory Shift
257
What are Terminal Ballistics Effects Considerations?
Cone of Fire
Angle of Impact
Surface Conditions
258
What is the minimum range for an R-Model Hellfire in LOBL?
500m/700m
259
What is the minimum range for an R-Model Hellfire in LOAL FLAT?
1500m/2000m
260
What is the minimum range for an R-Model Hellfire in LOAL DIR?
1500m/2000m
261
What is the minimum range for an R-Model Hellfire in LOAL LOFT?
3500m/3500m
262
What are the impact angles for R-Model Hellfires in LOAL?
Default is DIR: Legacy
LOAL FLAT: 6* target impact
LOAL LOFT: 35* target impact
263
Is diving or running fire preferred for M789 engagements? Why?
Diving, smaller beaten zone.
264
The M151 rocket has a blast radius of __m and a lethality radius of __m
10
| 50
265
The M255A1 can penetrate __mm (1/4") of mild steel from ___m.
What angle of impact must be utilized for effective employment?
8
1000
Near perpendicular
266
How far can the M255A1 rocket body travel beyond the deployment point?
700-1200m
