HGST Study Guide Flashcards
The gunner’s triangle is a logical sequence of events which standardizes the engagement method, in order of - ___ ___, ___, ___, ___ ___. This method ensures that the firing crew member uses a complete cross-check, while verbalizing the engagement process parameters for the opposite crew member to maneuver the aircraft appropriately.
Target heading
Range
Store
Weapons employment
Neutralization knocks the target out of battle temporarily. ___ percent or more casualties usually neutralize most units. The unit becomes effective again when…
10
Casualties are replaced and equipment is repaired
Destructive fires put the target out of action permanently. A unit with ___ percent or more casualties is usually rendered permanently ineffective, depending on the type and discipline of the force.
30
The three target-effect standards for armed helicopter engagements are: ___, ___, and ___.
Suppression
Neutralization
Destruction
What are the four kill standards classified as?
Mobility
Firepower
Combined mobility and firepower
Catastrophic
The four types of ballistics influencing projectiles fired from helicopters are…
Interior
Exterior
Aerial
Terminal
Interior ballistics include…
Barrel wear Launcher tube misalignment Thrust misalignment Propellant charge Projectile weight
Exterior ballistics include…
Gravity Airspeed Yaw Projectile drift Wind drift
What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile?
Time of flight and wind acting on the cross-sectional area of the projectile
Yaw is the angle between the centerline of the projectile and its trajectory which results in the projectile’s trajectory changing which increases drag. Where would a projectile have its maximum yaw?
Near the muzzle and gradually subsiding as the projectile stabilizes.
The exterior ballistic which causes a clockwise spinning projectile to move to the right is called what?
Projectile drift
Do Apache drivers have to compensate for Projectile drift?
No. Pilots should note that Apache ballistics algorithms compensate for this phenomenon, so aircrews do not have to make adjustments.
Trajectory shift and projectile drift combine to constitute the ___-___ ___.
Port-starbord effect
AH-64D Pilots should recognize that compensation for trajectory shift is accomplished automatically by the WP if…
- ) TADS is the LOS (TSE)
2. ) FCR is the LOS (Scan-to-scan correlation)
___ ___ is the result of a downward jump when shooting to the right and an upward jump when shooting to the left.
Projectile jump
___ ___ ___ is caused by the motion of the helicopter as the projectile leaves the weapon.
Angular rate error
Angular rate error occurs when an aircrew fires rockets from a hover using the pitch-up delivery technique. Hover fire engagements can be achieved at a range of approximately ___ meters without changing the aircraft pitch attitude
4,500
___ ___ describes a projectile’s characteristics and effects on a target. Projectile functioning such as blast, heat, and fragmentation are influenced by fuze and warhead functioning, impact angle, and surface condition.
Terminal ballistics
Angle of impact is a characteristic of ___ ballistics
Terminal
Because the rocket is accelerating as it leaves the launcher, the force acting upon the fins causes the nose of the rocket to turn into the wind. This is known as ___ ___ ___.
Relative wind effect
What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets (besides poor pilot technique) and what is done to minimize that error?
Thrust misalignment
Rocket spin
Maximum effective range is defined as…
The longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target
Hellfire II missiles share a common rocket motor and SAD. The M120E5 is a single thrust, rod and tube motor design containing approximately 9.1kg of class 1.1 propellant. Maximum velocity is approximately ___ meters per second (MACH __)
470
1.4
Running fire is defined as the tasks that are conducted at maneuver speeds between…
50 KTS and VNE
Running fire performed at airspeeds above ___ will offer a mix of aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy.
ETL
Turret bending is the single largest contributor to the perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64D 30mm cannon. Turret bending compensation is applied by the weapons processor during the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd rounds how?
1st: None
2nd: half
3rd: full
AH-64 ballistics algorithms automatically compute rotor downwash compensation for rockets based on AC gross weight, air density ratio, and longitudinal true airspeed. However, this compensation assumes rocket launch is initiated at ___ altitudes.
OGE
Rotor downwash influence is reduced to zero at approximately ___ knots ___ airspeed because the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher forward bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to zero.
33
indicated
The target state estimator (TSE) is utilized to derive states using the following three inputs:
- ) Processed range data from the laser range validator
- ) TADS pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros
- ) Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGIs
Crewmembers will not use ___ affiliated graphic control measures/icons/symbols to mark enemy locations and vice-versa to avoid fratricide and other unnecessary confusion.
friendly
To provide time and space to set up a running or diving fire attack, the AMC selects an initial point (IP). Normally, the IP is located approximately __ to __ km from the target and acts as a starting point for the attack run.
8
10
When selecting the initial point for a running or diving fire attack it should be one of what two things?
- ) Easily identifiable terrain feature
2. ) TSD/C-Scope icon
Transmission of the 5-line CCA Brief (G2A) constitutes clearance to fire expect in what situation?
Danger close
The 4 T’s associated with aircraft control (firing techniques) during rocket engagements are what?
Target
Torque
Trim
Target
What are the two types of fire?
Direct and indirect
<p>What are the four modes of fire? How would you describe them?</p>
Hover Moving (Equal to or greater than ETL but less than 40KTS) Running (40KTS to VNE) Diving (10* below the horizon, 40KTS to VNE)
The five firing techniques are…
Hover, Running, Diving, Low altitude bump, and diving/running fire initial point.
___-___ ___ maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low-altitude run-in with a 300-1,000 foot (bump) about 1,500 to 2,000 meters prior to the target.
Low-altitude bump
After weapon’s release the crew executes a turn away from the target. This maneuver is called a ___ ___ formerly referred to as a break.
pull-off
The AMC selects the appropriate team employment technique and will brief using what?
Technique
Pattern
Munitions
Range
The AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based on the tactical situation utilizing the following terminology…
Shooter/cover
Shooter/shooter
Looker/shooter
What technique is used to adjust fire that requires the aircrew member firing the weapon to sense projectile impacts of the weapon system and use proper technique to adjust the rounds on target. Crews can use this method with the cannon, machine gun, and rocket engagements.
Burst on Target (BOT)
The three techniques of applying burst on target correction include ___, ___ ___, and ___ methods.
Recognition
Milliadian relation
LRF
You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters. You then adjust your line or sight to the right of the target and fire again, hitting the target. This is what burst on target method?
Kentucky windage or recognition
You fire a pair of rockets at a target, missing long. You then laze the approximate center of the rocket’s impact point and adjust your range down (manual range) to fire your next pair. This is the ___ method of Burst on Target.
LRF
When the LRF/D is not working, referencing the target size vs symbology to determine range to target is known as what Burst on Target method?
Milliradian Relationship method
At shorter distances with the M261 warhead, the RAD takes longer to overcome momentum, ___ dispersion. As range increases, the rocket loses momentum, increasing effectiveness of the RAD.
Increasing
What are the three levels of SAFE?
- ) Finger off trigger
- ) Weapons de-WASed
- ) A/C SAFEd
What is danger close for 30mm rounds?
500: 75m
1000: 95m
1500: 115m
<p>During the dynamic harmonization of the AWS, what three things are accomplished / required?</p>
- ) Heading to target +/- 5* at a range of 500 to 1500 meters
- ) Place 5 to 10 rounds in the target
- ) Accurately transcribe the dynamic harmonization data to the aircraft logbook
The M789 HEDP projectile is an ___-___ and ___ ___ round capable of defeating light armored vehicles.
anti-personnel
anti material
The M789 round shaped warhead forms a high-velocity jet for light armor penetration. Armor penetration ranges from ___” at 500 meters to ___” at 3km with the spin compensated copper liner.
This is generalized as __” at 2500m.
1.5
3
2
The M789 burst radius is ___ meters. However, the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the surface conditions, impact angle, velocity, and target type.
4
The M789 round has an approximate velocity of ___ meters per second at the muzzle and slows steadily thereafter.
805
The three types of rounds the 30mm can accommodate and description of them are…
M788 (TNG)
M789 (HEDP)
M848 (Dummy)
What is the time of flight for a 2km 30mm shot?
5.8 seconds
When FXD is selected by the pilot the ___ will only be displayed in the ___ ___ symbology. When FXD is selected by the CPG, ___ will have the CCIP displayed in their respective formats.
CCIP
PLT Format
Both
When actioning the gun or rockets from the cyclic in either crew station, the range will change to the last valid ___ range when HMD is the selected sight.
Manual
During a FXD gun engagement, you action the gun by momentarily placing the WAS on the cyclic forward to the gun position. When WASed, the gun will relocate and remain in the FXD position of…
0* azimuth
+.87* elevation
The gun duty cycle is as follows…
6 50x round bursts with 5 seconds in between followed by a 10 minute cool down.
For settings other than 50, it can be generalized as no more than 300 rounds in the preceding 60 seconds followed by a 10 minute cool down, after which cycles can be repeated.
The WARNING related to the 30mm stoppage states…
If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding 10 minutes and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control.
The maximum effective range for the 30mm is…
1500 to 1700 meters
When firing the AWS in NORM, LOS INVALID is a safety inhibit. When firing the AWS in ___ mode, it becomes a ___ inhibit and the operator can override the inhibited message via the weapons trigger second detent.
FXD
Performance
The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of ___ degrees left or right, ___ degrees elevation (___ degrees within ___ degrees of the centerline), and ___ degrees depression.
\+86 \+11 \+9 10 -60
(T/F) Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FXD mode.
True
The 30mm is limited to ___ degrees in azimuth when rockets are actioned simultaneously.
60
The 30mm is limited to ___ degrees in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fires if it is on the inboard pylon.
52
The LOS reticle flashes when the crew member’s LOS is ___ or his selected LOS is at ___. It also flashes when…
Invalid
Limits
Gun is WASed and has failed and is not following the crew member’s head
There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?
The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground.
In the event of the GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be ___ in elevation. Gun azimuth may not provide proper wire strike protection due to wire cutter angle.
Stowed
What is the WARNING associated with the 30mm?
Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of life, injury, or death.
The software ballistic limit for the 30mm is ___m
4200
The maximum capacity of the ammunition handling system is ___ rounds.
1200
The 100-gallon aux fuel cell includes ___ round ammunition storage magazine, making a maximum capacity of about ___ rounds.
242
300
In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ___ degrees in elevation to prevent ___-___ during landing.
+11 degrees
dig in
In the event of an IHADSS failure with the gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is ___. When the gun is de-actioned, it will return to…
Prohibited
the stow position
The rate of fire for the 30mm is…
625 +/- 25
When conducting the AWS harmonizationn, the CPG positions the dashed reticle over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then pressing the ___ switch.
Store/update
The Side-loader/Magazine Controller (S/MC) performs three distinct ammunition handling system functions?
Counting, Control of the carrier drive assembly, Control of the loader assembly for up and downloading.
How many rounds will be displayed on the 30mm while in the training mode?
888
What is danger close for 2.75” rockets?
300: 140m
800: 210m
1500: 305m
With the Hellfire Rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?
A: 24
B: 8
E: 6
M439/M261 with M66 motors are not authorized at ranges less than ___m and ___KTS
1000
90
___ ___ is a safety inhibit that is displayed when vertical acceleration is less than .5G and may cause main rotor blade to obstruct the trajectory of the rocket.
ACCEL Limit
The ___ crew member to WAS has control of the weapon system. The only time this is not true is if the CPG has rockets WASed via the ___ WAS switch and the pilot actions rockets, resulting in…
Last
LHG
COOP Rockets
The M261 MPSM has ___ M73 submunitions and provides range settings from ___m to about ___m.
9
500
7000
Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than ___ inches of armor.
4
The M261 is a MPSM warhead for ___-___ and ___ ___ applications.
Anti material
anti personnel
The MPSM warhead body is ___ drab with ___ markings.
Olive
Yellow
The M261 contains ___ individual M73 sub-munitions with a shaped charge warhead for a perforating light armor and a fragmenting steel case for anti-personnel effects.
Nine
The MPSM submunitions will land ___ degrees off center ___ percent of the time, resulting in a ___% probability of producing personnel injuries within a ___m radius.
5
66
90
20
An MPSM submunition landing ___ degree off center has a ___% probability of producing casualties within a __m radius.
30
90
5
The Mk66 rocket achieves maximum velocity at approximately ___m from the launch of the aircraft.
300
Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than ___ with two ___ launchers every ___ seconds or fire only ___ outboard launcher installed without restriction.
pairs
outboard
three
one
In each M267 MPSM training warhead there are ___ inert submunitions and ___ smoke producing submunitions.
6
3
Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ___m from other airborne helicopters.
51
The ARS can be employed independently by either crew member or in the cooperative mode when the active sight is ___, ___, or ___.
HMD
TADS
FCR
When the rockets are in the cooperative mode the WP will still use the ___ Sel LOS and range data in the fire control solution and will disregard ___ LOS and range data.
CPG
PLT
Is the PLT permitted to make changes to the RKT page when in the cooperative mode?
Yes
What does the inclusion of a HERO filter provide for a rocket?
Hazard of Electronic Radiation to Ordinance, prevents the rocket from inadvertent ignition due to electromagnetic radiation (radio waves)
MK66 Mod __ rockets are prohibited from use on Army Apaches and Kiowa Warriors due to the possibility of ejection of the rocket motor stabilizing rod.
2
The Flachette rocket detonates about ___m before the predetermined range.
150
Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD can be achieved at a range of approximately ___m
4500
The Mk66 motor/fuse/warhead combination currently is supported by our software?
6PD, RC, IL, SK, MP, and FL.
Firing the MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than ___ft AGL and for all other flight conditions of ___ft AGL is not authorized.
7
5
The minimum range to target when firing Flachette rocket is ___ meters. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is __ to __km. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than __km.
800
1
3
3
