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HGST Flashcards

0
Q

!The engagement process is a systematic fires cycle and a continual process on any mission. The 5 five tenets are:

A

Detect, Identify, Decide, Engage and Assess (TC 3-04.45 pg. 11-1)

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1
Q

!All aircrew members must complete the following prerequisite training events prior to conducting live-fire aerial gunnery:

A

a. Aircrews must be current on GT-I.3, based upon the individual’s semi-annual ATP requirement in chapter 2.
b. Individuals who are newly assigned, or whose GT currency has lapsed are required to earn a GO on GT- I.3 prior to conducting live-fire gunnery. (TC 3-04.45 pg 6-3)

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2
Q

!Many factors (or preconditions) contribute to fratricide. These factors are crucial in the commander’s fratricide risk assessment before combat. They are based on:

A

METT-TC. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 10-2)

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3
Q

The _______ process is a series of progressive and interdependent steps (or actions)—target search, detection, location, and identification that lead to the decision process to engage or not engage. Effective ____ for a crew requires a constant combined effort from each aircrew member. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 11-1)

A

Combat Identification Process

CID

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4
Q

! ___________ is the process of attaining an accurate characteristic and discriminatory aspect of detected objects on the battlefield. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 12-1)

A

Target identification

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5
Q

!The gunner’s triangle is a logical sequence which standardizes the engagement method, in the order of _________________________. This method ensures that the firing crew member uses a complete cross-check, while verbalizing the engagement parameters for the opposite crew member to maneuver the aircraft appropriately. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-7)

A

target, heading, range, store, weapons employment

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6
Q

The ____________ is a series of progressive and interdependent steps based upon the mission, ROE, the tactical directive, the target threat level, weapon systems or ammunition selection, and confirming the target as a threat. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 13-1)

A

Decision process

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7
Q

!Neutralization knocks the target out of the battle temporarily. __________ or more casualties usually neutralize most units. The unit becomes effective again when casualties are replaced and equipment repaired. (TC 3-04.45 pg H-23)

A

Ten percent

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8
Q

! Destructive fires put the target out of action permanently. A unit with _________ or more casualties is usually rendered permanently ineffective, depending on the type and discipline of the force.

(TC 3-04.45 pg H-23)

A

30 percent

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9
Q

! The three target-effect standards for armed helicopter engagements are?

A

suppression, neutralization, and destruction. (TC 3-04.45 pg H-23)

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10
Q

What are the four kill standards classified as?

A

Mobility, firepower, combined mobility and firepower, and catastrophic. (TC 3-04.45 pg 15-1)

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11
Q

The four types of ballistics influencing projectiles fired from helicopters are:

A

interior, exterior, aerial, and terminal. (TC 3-04.45 pg A-6)

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12
Q

Interior ballistics includes:

A

Barrel Wear, Launcher Tube Alignment, Thrust Misalignment, Propellant Charge, and Projectile Weight (BLTPP). (TC 3-04.45 pg A-6 and A-7)

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13
Q

Air resistance, Gravity, Yaw, Projectile Drift, and Wind Drift are what type of ballistics?

A

Exterior

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14
Q

What two factors determine the amount of wind drift of a projectile?

A

Time of flight, Wind speed acting on the cross-sectional area of the projectile (TC 3-04.45 pg A-9)

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15
Q

Yaw is the angle between the centerline of the projectile and its trajectory which results in the projectile’s trajectory changing which increases Drag. Where would a projectile have its maximum Yaw?

A

Near the muzzle and gradually subsides as the projectile stabilizes. (TC 3-04.45 pg A-8)

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16
Q

The exterior ballistic which causes a clockwise spinning projectile to move to the right is called?

A

Projectile Drift (TC 3-04.45 pg A-8)

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17
Q

Do Apache Pilots have to compensate for Projectile drift?

A

No. Pilots should note that Apache ballistics algorithms compensate for this phenomenon, so aircrews do not have to make adjustments. (TC 3-04.45 pg A-8).

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18
Q

Trajectory shift and projectile drift combine to constitute the:

A

port-starboard effect. (TC 3-04.45 pg A-13)

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19
Q

In general, at ranges ___________, the effect of trajectory shift is greater. At ranges ___________, the effect of projectile drift is greater and tends to cancel the effect of trajectory shift. (TC 3-04.45 pg A- 14)

A

Less than 1,000 meters

Greater than 1,000 meters

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20
Q

AH-64D pilots should recognize that compensation for trajectory shift is accomplished automatically by the weapons processor if:

A

a. TADS is the selected LOS (Seven-state Kalman filter)
b. FCR is the selected LOS (Scan-to-scan correlation) (TC 3-04.45 pg A-25)
* **NO lead-angle compensation is computed or added when IHADSS is the selected sight

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21
Q

Firing to the right produces a downward jump; firing to the left produces an upward jump. This is compensated for by the weapons processor with TADS and FCR as the LOS. (TC 3-04.45 pg A-21)

A

Projectile jump

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22
Q

_________ is caused by the motion of the helicopter as the projectile leaves the weapon.

A

Angular rate error

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23
Q

Angular rate error occurs when an aircrew fires rockets from a hover using the pitch-up delivery technique. Hover fire engagements can be achieved at a range of approximately ___________ without changing the aircraft pitch attitude. (TC 3-04.45pg A-22 / TC 3-04.42 pg 4-153)

A

4,500 meters

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24
Q

__________ describes a projectile’s characteristics and effects on a target. Projectile functioning such as blast, heat, and fragmentation are influenced by fuze and warhead functioning, impact angle, and surface condition. (TC 3-04.45 pg A-14)

A

Terminal ballistics

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25
Q

Angle of Impact is a characteristic of what type of ballistic?

A

Terminal ballistic

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26
Q

Because the rocket is accelerating as it leaves the launcher, the force acting upon the fins causes the nose of the rocket to turn into the wind. This is known as the:

A

Relative wind effect

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27
Q

What is the cause of the greatest error for free flight rockets (besides poor pilot technique) and what is done to minimize that error?

A

Thrust Misalignment, Rocket spin (TC 3-04.45 pg A-7)

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28
Q

Maximum effective range is defined as:

A

the longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting a target. (TC 3-04.45 pg A-7)

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29
Q

Hellfire II missiles share a common rocket motor and SAD. The M120E5 is a single thrust, rod and tube motor design containing approximately 9.1 kilogram of class 1.1 propellant . Maximum velocity is approximately:

A

475 meters per second (MACH 1.4). (TC 3-04.45 pg. D-8)

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30
Q

Running fire is defined in the TC 3-04.45 as tasks that are conducted at maneuver speeds between:

A

50 knots and the aircraft velocity to never exceed (VNE). (TC 3-04.45 pg. 6-13)

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31
Q

Running fire performed at airspeeds _________ will offer a mix aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-136)

A

Above ETL

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32
Q

Turret bending is the single largest contributor to the perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30mm cannon. Turret bending compensation is applied by the weapons processor:

A

1st round-no compensation, 2nd round-1/2 of the turret bending table value, full table value is applied thereafter until gunfire is terminated. (TC 3- 04.45 pg. A-24)

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33
Q

In the AH-64D, rotor down-wash influence is reduced to zero at approximately ___________ forward airspeed, the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher forward bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to zero. (TC 3-04.45 pg. A-24)

A

33 knots indicated

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34
Q

The AH-64 ballistics algorithms automatically compute rotor down-wash compensation for rockets based on aircraft gross weight, air density ratio, and longitudinal true airspeed. However, this compensation assumes rocket launch is initiated at:

A

HOGE altitudes

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35
Q

The Target State Estimator is utilized to derive target states using the following inputs:

A

c. Processed range data from the laser range validator.
d. TADS pitch and yaw rates from the TADS gyros.
e. Aircraft body rate and velocity data from the EGI. (TC 3-04.45 pg. A-26)

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36
Q

Crewmembers will not use ________ affiliated graphic control measures/icons/symbols to mark enemy locations and vice-versa to avoid fratricide and other unnecessary confusion. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-203)

A

Friendly

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37
Q

To provide time and space to set up a running or diving fire attack, the AMC selects an initial point (IP). Normally, the IP is located approximately __________ from the target and acts as a starting point for the attack run. (TC 3- 04.42 pg 4-134)

A

8-10 km

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38
Q

When selecting the initial point for a running or diving fire attack it should be either a:

A

readily identifiable terrain feature or a TSD/C-Scope icon. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-134)

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39
Q

Transmission of the 5-Line CCA Brief (Ground-to-Air) constitutes clearance to fire except in a:

A

Danger close situation

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40
Q

The 4 “T”s associated with aircraft control (firing techniques) during rocket engagements are?

A

Target, Torque, Trim, Target re-verified. (TC 3-04.42 pg. 4-134)

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41
Q

What are the two types of fire?

A

Direct fire-fires directed at a target within the shooter’s line of sight (LOS).
Indirect fire-fires directed at a target which the shooter cannot observe. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-2)

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42
Q

What are the four modes of fire?

A

h. Hover fire
i. Moving fire (Equal to or greater than ETL but less than 40 KTAS)
j. Running fire Greater than 40 KTAS but less than Vne)
k. Diving (pitch attitude 10 degrees below the horizon or greater and 40 KTAS to Vne) (TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-2)

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43
Q

The five techniques of fire are:

A

hover fire, running fire, diving fire, low altitude bump, Diving/running fire initial point. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-136)

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44
Q

___________ maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low-altitude run-in with a 300- to 1,000-foot (bump) about 1,500 to 2,000 meters prior to the target. (TC 3-04.42 4-136)

A

Low-altitude bump

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45
Q

After weapon’s release the crew executes a turn away from the target. This maneuver is called the _______ formerly referred to as the “break”. (TC 3-04.42 4-136)

A

Pull off

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46
Q

The AMC will select the appropriate team employment technique and will brief the team utilizing TPM-R:

A

Technique (Hover, Running, Diving, Low-Altitude Bump),
Pattern (Racetrack, Cloverleaf, L-attack, Figure 8, Butterfly pattern, 45-degree attack, Circular/Wheel pattern),
Munitions,
Range.
(TC 3-04.42 pg 4-177)

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47
Q

The AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based on the tactical situation utilizing the following terminology:

A

Shooter/cover, Shooter/shooter, Looker/shooter.

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48
Q

JTACs may establish a hasty IP for CAS aircraft utilizing the:

A

Keyhole template

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49
Q

What is technique used to adjust fires on target that requires the aircrew member firing the weapon to sense projectile impacts of the weapon system and use proper technique to adjust the rounds on target. Crews can use this method with the cannon, machine-gun, and rocket engagements.

A

Burst on target

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50
Q

The three techniques of applying burst on target corrections:

A

include recognition, milliadian relation, and LRF methods. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-20)

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51
Q

You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters. You then adjust your line of sight to the right of the target and fire again, hitting the target. This is the _____________ method of BOT

A

recognition method or “ Kentucky Windage”

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52
Q

You fire a pair of rockets at a target, which miss long. You then laze the approximate center of the rocket’s impact point and adjust your range down (manual range) to fire your next pair. This is the __________ method of BOT

A

Laser rangefinder

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53
Q

When the LRF/D is not working, referencing target size vs. symbology to determine range to target is known as the:

A

Milliradian Relationship Method. (TC 3-04.45 pg G-16)

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54
Q

At shorter ranges with the M261 warhead , the ram air decelerator (RAD) takes longer to overcome momentum, _________ dispersion. As range increases, the rocket loses momentum, increasing the effectiveness of the RAD. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-30)

A

Increasing

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55
Q

What are the three levels of safeing? (TC 3-04.42, pg. 4-135)

A

l. Weapons trigger switch released
m. Weapons action switch deselected
n. SAFE/ARM button – SAFE

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56
Q

30mm RED

A

500m: 75m /246’
1000m: 95m/312’
1500m: 115m/378’

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57
Q

AWS dynamic harmonization. If the AWS requires harmonization accomplish the following:

A

o. Maintain a heading to target of ±5 degrees, at a range of 500-1500 meters.
p. Using the procedure outlined in TM 1-1520-251-CL, place 5 of 10 rounds in the target. (BMP frontal.)
q. Accurately transcribe the dynamic harmonization data to the aircraft logbook. (Electronic and/or paper as appropriate.) (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-163)

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58
Q

The M789 HEDP projectile is an __________ and _________ round capable of defeating light armored vehicles. (TC 3-04.45 pg. B-18)

A

Anti-material

Anti-personnel

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59
Q

The M789 round shaped charge warhead forms a high velocity jet for light armor penetration. Armor penetration ranges from _________ at 500 meters, to __________ at 3,000 meters with the spin compensated (fluted) copper liner. (TC 3-04.45 pg. B-18)

A

1.5 inches

3 inches

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60
Q

The M789 nominal burst radius is ___________; however, the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the surface conditions, impact angle, velocity, and the target type. (TC 3-04.45 pg. B-19)

A

4 meters

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61
Q

The M789 round has a velocity of approximately ____________ at the muzzle and slows steadily thereafter. Engagements at greater than _______ meters can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts.(TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-44)

A

805 meters per second

2,000

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62
Q

The 3 types of rounds the 30mm can accommodate and description are the:

A

M788 (Training) blue with aluminum tip,
M789 (Tactical HEDP) black with yellow band, and
M848 (Dummy) Brass color. (TC 3-04.45 pg. B-16) (-10 pg 4-102)

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63
Q

What is the time of flight for a 2.0Km 30mm shot?

A

30mm TOF

500m .7 sec
1000m 2.0 sec
1500m 3.7 sec
2000m 5.8 sec
2500m 8.6 sec
3000m 12.2 sec

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64
Q

When FXD is selected by the pilot the ______ will only be displayed in the _________ symbology. When FXD is selected by the CPG ____________ will have the CCIP displayed in their respective formats. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-164)

A

CCIP
PLT format
Both crewmembers

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65
Q

When actioning the gun or rockets from the cyclic in either crew station the range will change to the last valid ____________ when HMD is the selected sight. AWS Student Handout pg D-62

A

Manual range

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66
Q

During a fixed gun engagement, You action the gun by momentarily placing the WAS on the cyclic forward to the gun (G) position. When WASed, the gun will relocate and remain at fixed position:

A

0 degrees azimuth and +0.87degrees elevation

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67
Q

The gun duty cycle is as follows:

A

6, 50 round bursts w/ 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50 – no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated. (-10-2, pg. 4-107)

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68
Q

The WARNING regarding 30mm stoppage states:

A

If 300 or more rounds have been fired in the preceding 10 minutes, and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for 30 minutes. Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control. (-10-2, pg. 4-108)

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69
Q

When firing the AWS in NORM, LOS INVALID is a _______ inhibit. When firing the AWS in FIXED mode, LOS INVALID becomes a ___________ inhibit, and the operator can override the inhibited via the weapon trigger second detent. AWS Student Handout pg D-50

A

Safety

Performance

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70
Q

The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of:

A

86 degrees left or right of the helicopter centerline, +11 degrees elevation, (+9 degrees elevation within 10 degrees of aircraft centerline), and -60 degrees depression. (- 10-2, pg. 4-102)

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71
Q

T / F (circle) Under NVS, the AWS will continue to follow IHADSS LOS when operating in NVS FIXED mode. (- 10-2, pg. 4-31)

A

T

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72
Q

The 30mm is limited to ______ degrees in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously.(AWS Student Handout PG D- 24)

A

+-60

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73
Q

The 30mm is limited to ____ degrees in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon. (AWS Student Handout PG D-24)

A

52

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74
Q

The LOS Reticle flashes when:

A

the crewmember ‘s LOS is invalid or
his selected NVS is at its limit.
It also flashes when the gun is the selected weapon and the gun system has failed and is not following the crewmember ‘s head. (-10-2, pg. 4-21)

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75
Q

There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground?

A

The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground. (-10-2, pg. 4-102)

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76
Q

In the event of a GUN EL MISTRACK fault, the gun will be _____________ . Gun azimuth may not provide proper wire strike protection due to wire cutter angle.

A

Stowed in elevation

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77
Q

What is the “WARNING” associated with the 30mm in reference to the Gun Duty Cycle?

A

Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death (-10-2, pg. 4 - 104)

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78
Q

The software ballistic range limit for the 30mm is:

A

4200 meters

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79
Q

The maximum capacity of the ammunition handling system is:

A

1200 rounds

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80
Q

The 100-gallon auxiliary fuel cell includes a 242 round ammunition storage magazine, making a maximum capacity of about:

A

300 rounds

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81
Q

In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to _____ degrees in elevation to prevent _______ during landing (- 10-2 pg. 4-102)

A

+11

Dig in

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82
Q

In the event of IHADSS failure with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is ________. When the gun is de-actioned, it will ______________. (– 10-2, pg. 4-19)

A

Inhibited

Return to the stowed position

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83
Q

The rate of fire for the 30 mm is:

A

625 +- 25

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84
Q

The AWS will ___________________ when operating in NVS FIXED Mode. (-10-2 pg. 4-102)

A

Continue to follow IHADSS LOS

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85
Q

When conducting AWS Harmonization, the CPG positions the dashed reticle (GUN DH reticle) over the Mean Point of Impact (MPI) of the rounds then presses the:

A

Store/Update Switch (ORT LHG).

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86
Q

The Sideloader/ Magazine Controller (S/MC) performs three distinct ammunition handling system functions?

A

Counting of 30mm rounds,
control of the carrier drive assembly,
control of the loader assembly for uploading and downloading. (-10 pg 4-102)

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87
Q

How many rounds will be displayed on the 30mm while in the training mode?

A

888

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88
Q

Rockets RED

A

300m: 140 / 460’
800m: 210m / 689’
1500m: 305m / 1001’

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89
Q

With Hellfire Rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quantities of each are available?

A

A- 24, B-8, E-6 (-10, pg 4-107)

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90
Q

M439/M261 (MPSM)/M66 engagements at ranges less than _________ and/or speeds greater than _________ are not authorized. (-10-2, pg. 4-108)

A

1000 meters

90 knots

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91
Q

__________ is a safety inhibit that is displayed when vertical acceleration is less than 0.5 G and may cause the main rotor blade to obstruct the trajectory of the rocket. ARS Student Handout pg D-44

A

ACCEL LIMIT

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92
Q

The ______________ to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the _________ and the pilot actions rockets, _____________ is in effect. (-10-2, pg. 4-6)

A

Last Crewmember
LHG WAS
Cooperative moding

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93
Q

Each M73 submunition has a shaped charge that can penetrate more than _______ of armor. (TC 3.04.45, pg. C-16)

A

4 inches

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94
Q

The M261 is a MPSM warhead for _________ and _________ applications. (TC 3-04.45 pg C -16)

A

Anti-material

Anti-personnel

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95
Q

The MPSM warhead body is:

A

Olive drab with yellow markings

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96
Q

The M261 contains ______ individual M73 sub-munitions with a shaped charge warhead for perforating light armor (top attack) and a fragmenting steel case for anti-personnel effects. (TC 3-04.45 pg C -16)

A

nine

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97
Q

The MPSM submunition (M73) will land __ degrees off center __ percent of the time, resulting in a 90% probability of producing personnel injuries within a __ meter radius. (TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-30)

A

5
66
20

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98
Q

A sub-munition landing __ degrees off center has a __ percent probability of producing casualties within a __ meter radius.(TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-30)

A

30
90
5

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99
Q

The MK66 rocket achieves maximum velocity at approximately __________ (motor burnout) from the launch aircraft. (TC 3-04.45 pg. A-7).

A

300 meters

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100
Q

Limitation on firing rockets from inboard stations:

A

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than pairs with two outboard launchers every three seconds or fire with only one outboard launcher installed with out restrictions. (-10-2, pg. 4-108)

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101
Q

In each M267 MPSM training warhead there are ___ inert submunitions and _____ smoke producing submunitions. (TC 3.04.45, pg. C-18)

A

6

3

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102
Q

Do not fire rockets with the M433 RC fuse in situations where they might fly closer than ____ from other airborne helicopters. (-10-2, pg.4-108)

A

51 meters

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103
Q

When rockets are in the cooperative mode the WP will use the __________________ and disregard ___________________

A

CPG-selected LOS and range date in the fire control solution and will disregard the PLT LOS and range data.

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104
Q

Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the RKT page when in the cooperative mode.

A

Yes, during the rocket coop mode, both the CPG and PLT share a common WPN’s RKT page. Both may view, access , edit or fire RKT ‘s ) (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-159)

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105
Q

MK66 ______ motors are prohibited from use on Army Apaches and Kiowa Warriors due to the possibility of ejection of the rocket motor stabilizing rod. (3.04.45 C-18)

A

Mod 2

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106
Q

The flechette rocket detonates about ______ before the predetermined range. (3-04.45 pg 14-29).

A

400 m

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107
Q

Hover fire rocket engagements with 6PD (10 pounders) can be achieved at a range of approximately ________ without changing aircraft pitch angle. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-153)

A

4500 meters

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108
Q

The Mk66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by our software includes:

A

6PD, 6RC, 6IL, 6SK, 6MP and 6FL. (-10-2, pg. 4-108)

109
Q

Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than _______, and for all other flight conditions of _______, is not authorized. (-10-2 pg 4-108)

A

7 ft AGL

5 ft AGL

110
Q

The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rocket is _______. The effective range withMK66 rocket motors is _______. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than _____. (-10-2 pg 4-108)

A

800 meters
1 - 3 km
3 km

111
Q

When forward airspeed exceeds _______, do not use M229/M423 (17 pounder PD) warhead/fuze combination for engagement of targets under ________ distance, and ensure the line of fire is clear of obstruction(trees/buildings) for at least _________ (-10-2 pg 4-108)

A

10 KTAS
140 meters
140 meters

112
Q

When at a hover or forward air speed is less than _______, engagement distance and the requirement for line of fire to be clear of obstruction may be reduced to ______. Firing this combination with the ballistics for the M151 (10 pounder) warhead will result in reduced rocket range. (-10-2 pg 4-108)

A

10 KTAS

110 meters

113
Q

Re-inventory and attempting to fire 6MP,6FL, and 6SK rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least ______ to allow the ______ (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuze to reset. (-10-2 pg 4-108)

A

10 days

M439

114
Q

The M257 Illumination (overt) warhead provides one million candlepower for ____ seconds or more. (TC 3-04.45 pg. C-13)

A

100

115
Q

The M278 IR Illumination (covert) warhead will provide IR light for ______ minutes. (TC 3-04.45 pg. C-15)

A

3

116
Q

Hellfire RED

A

110 m

117
Q

Firing the missile near the edge of constraints reduces the missiles probability of hit (Ph). Aircrews should attempt to align the missile as close as possible, both ________________, to the gun target line prior to firing. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-143)

A

Horizontally and vertically

118
Q

An offset of _________ degrees, to the firing side, should be used when possible to preclude the missile from flying through the TADS FOV. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-143)

A

3 to 5

119
Q

What are the nine laser limiting factors:

A

Backscatter, Boresight Error, Spot Jitter, Beam Divergence, Attenuation, Overspill, Underspill, Podium effect, and Entrapment. (TC 3-04.45 pg F-3 thru F-5)

120
Q

When the seeker LOS differs from the TADS LOS by more than ___ and the seeker is locked onto the autonomous laser spot, the LOBL constraints box will indicate an out-of-constraints condition. (TC 3-04.45 pg F-6)

A

2 deg

121
Q

Backscatter can NOT be overridden by the trigger second detent

A

NOT, safety inhibit

122
Q

To eliminate a backscatter lock on, stop lasing the target. Switch to LOAL-Direct, and use a minimum of _________ of delay from missile separation (about three seconds after trigger pull). (TC 3-04.45 pg F-6)

A

2 seconds

123
Q

Missile constraints box driver:

A

a. LOBL – Missile Seeker
b. LOAL DIR – selected LOS
c. LOAL LO or HI – target coordinates stored in the WP in the acquisition selection (B5). (LBHMMS Student Handout pg D-18)

124
Q

The LOAL LO/HI mode constraints box is driven by what is displayed in the FCR/TSD page ACQ source window. True / False ((TC 3-04.42 pg 4-139)

A

F

It is from the acquired WP, TGT, threat, hazard, or CM in the B5 position)

125
Q

The missile seeker has a _____ degree seeker limit from the missile centerline. (LBHMMS Student Handout pg D-33)

A

+- 30

126
Q

LOAL HI/LO maximum engagement range

A

8 km

127
Q

LOAL DIR maximum engagement range

A

7 km

128
Q

LOBL maximum engagement range

A

7 km

129
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOBL minimum engagement range: 0 degree offset: ______
20 degree offset: ________ ( TC 3-04.45 pg. 14-58)

A

500 meters

700 meters

130
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOAL DIR minimum engagement range low altitude:

A

a. 0 degree offset: 1,500 meters

b. 7.5 degree offset: 1,700 meters

131
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOAL LO minimum engagement range low altitude:

A

a. 0 degree offset: 2,000 meters

b. 20 degree offset: 2,500 meters

132
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOAL HI minimum engagement range low altitude:

A

a. 0 degree offset: 3,500 meters

b. 20 degree offset: 3,500 meters

133
Q

When SAL missiles are fired from more than ________ above the target’s altitude, or if ____________________, fire the missile LOBL. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-59)

A

800 feet

Very short minimum ranges are required

134
Q

Avoid firing LOAL when the launch altitude is greater than ________ above the target due to the limited ability of the missile seeker to look down sufficiently to acquire the laser spot. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-59)

A

800 feet

135
Q

The LOBL missile constraint box (SAL Missile) is:

A

+- 20 deg

136
Q

The LOAL missile constraint box (SAL Missile) is:

A

+- 7.5 deg

137
Q

LOAL LO will clear a _______ mask with a ________ standoff. (LBHMMS Student Handout pg D-51)

A

260 ft

600 meter

138
Q

LOAL HI will clear a _______ mask with a _________ standoff.

A

1,000 ft

1,500 meter

139
Q

Due to seeker look down limits, the minimum engagement range for LOAL engagements should be increased as follows:

A

Increase minimum range by 500 meters for launch altitudes between 50 to 400 feet above target altitude.
Increase minimum range by 1,000 meters for launch altitudes between 401 and 800 feet above the target altitude.

140
Q

Peak velocity of the missile when launched at sea level is:

A

475 meters/second (923 knots/Mach 1.4).

TC 3-04.45 pg D-2

141
Q

Arming can only occur when the missile’s acceleration exceeds:

A

10 G’s

142
Q

The fuze is armed between __________ from the launching platform for all hellfires except the AGM-114R, which is armed at __________.
(TC 3-04.45 pg D-2)

A

150-300 meters

375-500 meters

143
Q

If a __________ is on a launcher rail, the aircraft prevents live missiles from being launched from that launcher. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-3)

A

Training missile

144
Q

The AGM-114K,L,&P configurations utilize a tandem shaped-charge warhead to enhance performance against reactive armor. The ____________ initially defeats explosive reactive armor, IOT allow main warhead to penetrate main armor layer. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-3)

A

Precursor warhead

145
Q

All hellfire missiles consist of a _____________________ section. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-3)

A

guidance, warhead, propulsion, and control section.

146
Q

The SAL seeker has 5 operating modes:

A

Cage, Slave, Stare, Scan, and Track.

TC 3-04.45 pg D-5/6

147
Q

There are 2 pilot-controlled guidelines to adhere to IOT minimize hellfire missile roll tipoff:

A

a. Loaded pylons minimize roll tip-off effect: Load from the upper inboard rail and out for each launcher pylon.
b. Higher launch airspeeds lower the probability of roll tip-off. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-37)

148
Q

The firing trajectory that affords the lowest flight path for all missiles is:

A

LOAL-D

149
Q

During Remote engagements, ensure designator offset angle does not exceed ____ degrees. Missile guidance performance is improved at designator angles less than ____ degrees. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-56)

A

60

45

150
Q

For LOBL firing mode, the articulation will position the pylon ____ degrees above the target pitch line-of-sight. (TC 3- 04.45 pg D-40)

A

+4

151
Q

For LOAL firing mode in Lot 13.1 / 13.2, the articulation will position the pylon ______________________, instead of +4 degrees above the horizon. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-40)

A

+4 degrees above the target pitch line- of-sight

152
Q

The AGM-114K, L, M, N, P, and R are all considered ______ missiles. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-1)

A

SAL II

153
Q

Targets shall be a minimum of ______ from the firing point when firing AGM-114M/N/K2A missiles. (AWR 2007D-A05)

A

800 m

154
Q

When employing a K2A against personnel in the open, aiming at the ______________ may achieve the maximum shrapnel dispersion. (AWR 2007D-A05)

A

ground just short of the target

155
Q

Do not fly faster than ________ when firing the AGM-114F-A missile. (AWR 2013D-A19

A

90 KTAS

156
Q

Restrict the forward airspeed of all AH-64 aircraft to no greater than ______ during running fire of the Hellfire AGM- 114K2A and AGM-114M/N missiles. (Safety of Use Message 07-004)

A

90 Knots

157
Q

When a SAL missile is displayed in WHITE and flashes, that missile is selected as __________________ in the firing sequence. (-10-2, pg. 4-112)

A

The next missile to be launched

158
Q

In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WP reserve for the priority channel?

A

3

159
Q

What is the definition of Ripple fire?

A

Multiple missiles launched with two, or more, unique laser channel codes (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-141)

160
Q

The Hellfire-II designator exclusion zone is a three-dimensional, ________ cone which originates at the firing aircraft, extending outward to the maximum range of the missile. (TC 3-04.45 pg 14-71)

A

30 deg

161
Q

The three conditions that will cause a REMOTE message to be displayed in the HAD are the following:

A

1) the firing ACFT ‘s LRFD code does not match the requested (PRI) code,
2) the selected sight is HMD,
3) the laser is off. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-145)

162
Q

When the Hellfire missile system is actioned in the manual mode, the MSL ADV switch on the collective mission grip is _____. When the SAL missile mode is NORM or RIPL the switch is _________. (-10-2, pg. 4-8)

A

Active

Not active

163
Q 
Maximum missile altitude:
LOBL (3k, 5k, 7k)
LOAL-D
LOAL-L
LOAL-H
A 
LOBL 
3k- 400
5k- 500
7k- 600
LOAL D- 400
LOAL L- 800
LOAL H- 1400
164
Q

Hellfire Time of flight and terminal guidance (steady on target time) requirements:

A 
2k- 7   (6)
3k- 10 (6)
4k- 14 (6)
5k- 19 (6)
6k- 24 (6)
7k- 29 (7)
8k- 36 (8)
165
Q

If it is anticipated that both the pilot and CPG will operate the FCR during the mission, then an FCR Operational check should be completed in ____________.(-10-2 pg. 4-100)

A

Both crewstations

166
Q

The FCR will provide reliable data while maneuvering up to ___ in roll and _______ in pitch. Flight outside these parameters may result in degraded FCR performance. (10-2 Pg 4-47)

A

20 deg

+20 to -15

167
Q

To decrease the effect of target velocities building up over time, the crew should attempt to fire the LOAL TADS to RF missile hand over no longer than ___________ after the TARGET DATA message disappears.

A

5 - 7 seconds

168
Q

Target symbols are dimmed after a period of time to indicate that the target data is stale.

a. Moving target symbols become stale after _________
b. Stationary target symbols become stale after ________
c. Low priority targets are displayed in __________ on the TSD page as ___________. (10-2 Pg 4-55)

A

5 seconds
30 seconds
Partial intensity yellow
Half size icons

169
Q

The Next to Shoot Target Symbol The symbol is dashed if:

A

a. Aircraft is not armed
b. FCR is not selected as a sight
c. Weapon system is not actioned (WAS)
(10-2 Pg 4-55)

170
Q

When the RF missile is actioned and a second target is passed to the RF missile, the WP will pass the north, east and down information of the target to the DP by monitoring the __________________ message.1(0-2 Pg 4-55)

A

Secondary target handover

171
Q

Priority Fire (PF) zones are displayed in white as a quadrilateral to indicate a geographic area in which target priority is established as highest for prioritization and display. It is displayed in ____________. (10-2 Pg 4-56)

A

GTM but not RMAP

172
Q

Selecting the FCR mode switch to RMAP, after RMAP is initially selected, displays target symbols _____________

A

Without radar video

173
Q

When FCR target data is displayed, switching from RMAP to GTM will display information in the selected format. Selecting ATM or TPM will ____________________.

A

Eliminate all ground targeting data

174
Q

Targets blank as they exit the scan sector except for the NTS. NTS will ________________ when NTS is at the edge of sector scan (crew member may select new NTS). (10-2 Pg 4-50)

A

Become dashed and partial intensity

175
Q

The CUED search button is used to quickly orient the FCR to a RFI detected radar emitter to conduct a scan. Selecting the cued search button is a quick way to ____________________

A

Mode, point, size, and initiate the FCR for a scan

176
Q

When an emitter selected for cued search is a ground emitter, the _____________________________

A

FCR is commanded to RMAP and the FCR centerline is commanded to the azimuth of that emitter. (10-2 Pg 4-68)

177
Q

If the emitter is located beyond the azimuth limits of the RMAP, the FCR will not perform a cued search. If this condition occurs, a ______ message will be displayed in the Sight Status Field of the HAD for a minimum of _________. (10-2 Pg 4-68)

A

Limits

10 seconds

178
Q

If the CUED button is pressed during a normal FCR scan, the scan will be:

A

discontinued and a new cued search will be initiated. (10-2 Pg 4-68)

179
Q

When FCR BIT ORIDE is selected from the FCR utility page, Initiated BIT (IBIT) will only conduct critical item BIT and will terminate early (after a minimum run time of approximately _________, and the FCR will go directly to the selected mode of operation. (10-2 Pg 4-71)

A

25-45 sec

180
Q

Target velocities are set to ______ during TADS to RF handover, if target velocities are under a specific threshold. (V13 Differences Training WPN Slide 7)

A

Zero

181
Q

_____________ is transfer of aircraft inertial data to the missile inertial platform, which occurs automatically, whether inflight or not, at missile power up with no pilot action required.( -10-2 pg 4-118)

A

Transfer alignment

182
Q

_____ is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that transfer alignment has occurred, and that the missile is ready to receive a target. (-10-2 pg 4-118)

A

R

183
Q

______________ is when a missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-24)

A

Doppler beam sharpening

184
Q

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on stationary targets between the ranges of ____________. If the target is not detected, the missile will revert to LOAL (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-151) **Terminal track acquisition

A

1km - 2.5km

185
Q

The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode RF missiles will be powered up at ______________. This does NOT occur when missiles are actioned. (LBHMMS Student Handout pg. D-65)

A

10 minute intervals

186
Q

A RF missile can receive a target handover from one of the following sources:

A

TADS, FCR, IDM. (-10-2 pg 4-118)

187
Q

The ____________ is initiated when the firing command (weapon trigger pull) occurs. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-19 )

A

postlaunch mode

188
Q

The __________ and ___________are terms used to explain the different ways that the missile seeker improves its chances of locating and hitting LOBL and LOAL targets. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-23)

A

target acquisition and tracking modes

189
Q

The missile has three target acquisition modes:

A

Preterminal track acquisition,
Terminal track acquisition, and
Moving target acquisition. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-23)

190
Q

The missile has two tracking modes:

A

Preterminal track and Terminal track. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-23)

191
Q

If the missile determines the target requires a LOBL acquisition, it will try to acquire it by radiating ____________________

A

three consecutive times for about three seconds each. (Student Handout pg. D-75) (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-151)

192
Q

When a stationary target is handed over to the RF missile between __________, the missile will radiate and attempt to LOBL. At this range the missile must achieve LOBL. IF the target is not detected or track is subsequently lost, the message _____________ will be displayed and firing will be inhibited. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-151)

A

0.5 KM and 1.0 KM

“NO ACQUIRE”

193
Q

RF DBS trajectory based on _______________. **DBS will only occur on stationary target at ranges between _____________. This will occur during Preterminal Track Acquisition (TC 3-04.45 pg D-25)

A

target location relative to the missile centerline

2.5KM and 8.0KM

194
Q

When an RF missile uses DBS, and the target is on the left side of the missile centerline, the missile will DBS to the _____ side of the target. (TC 3-04.45 pg D-25)

A

right

195
Q

When the RF missile-training mode is enabled, what symbol will be displayed on all tactical RF missile icons?

A

NA

196
Q

How long is the allowable training mode missile elapsed ON time?

A

30 minutes

197
Q

If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon?

A

OT (over temp)

198
Q

Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used?

A

To allow for LOAL shots only, Inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-150)

199
Q

For an RF missile shot you must track and lase target for at least _________ or until HAD message _____________. (-10-2 pg. 4-125)

A

3 seconds

TARGET DATA? blanks

200
Q

The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter measure routine within the laser missile. This selection _______ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code. (SHWS, pg. D-65)

A

narrows

201
Q

The 2nd target inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the _____ RF missile during a ________ target engagement. (-10-2, pg. 4-123)

A

primary

stationary

202
Q

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on a stationary target between the ranges of:

A

1 - 2.5km

203
Q

At a 20 degree offset launch angle an RF missile azimuth flight profile will use a maximum cross range of _____ meters at 8 km. (SHWS, pg. B-91)

A

990

204
Q

If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to _____, the allowable constraints angle is ________. (-10-2, pg. 4-28)

A

1 km

20 degrees

205
Q

If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is less than ______, the allowable constraints angle is ________. (-10- 2, pg. 4-28)

A

1 km

5 degrees

206
Q

Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located?

A

1 meter and a 45 degree cone off the missile nose (TC- 3-04.45, pg. D-12)

207
Q

What is the weight of an AGM-114L Longbow HELLFIRE missile?

A

107.8

208
Q

In what three modes does the RF missile operate?

A

Standby, Prelaunch, Post Launch

(TC-3-04.45), pg. D-12)

209
Q

If the sight selected is FCR, what type of missile page will be displayed when the missile system is actioned or the missile button is selected?

A

RF missile page even if no RF missiles are present (-10-2 pg. 4-102)

210
Q

The FCR has been selected as the active sight. The RFHO data (position error data taken from both aircraft and/or FCR range deviation error data) has exceeded optimum parameters to a magnitude that safety inhibits are implemented. What HAD Sight Status Field message will be displayed?

A

NAV DATA INVALID

211
Q

The GTM/RMAP scan sectors are:

WFOV __ degrees, MFOV ___ degrees, NFOV __ degrees and ZFOV __ degrees. (-10-2, pg. 4-58)

A

90
45
30
15

212
Q

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes airborne and stationary ground targets?

A

A

213
Q

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets?

A

B

214
Q

Which Priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving ground targets?

A

C

215
Q

A single scan burst in GTM narrow FOV will give __ scans.

A

3

216
Q

When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between ________, it will radiate and attempt _____.

A

.5K and 8K

LOBL

217
Q

____________ improves STI detection and classification and Moving Target Indicator (MTI) classification. (-10-2, pg. 50)

A

Scan-To-Scan-Correlation

218
Q

When FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the ____ target is ______ and the NTS symbol will become _____. (-10-2, pg. 4-55)

A

NTS
frozen
solid

219
Q

Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ___________ will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and _________. (-10-2, pg. 4-55)

A

ANTS symbol

Flash for 3 seconds

220
Q

The ____________ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter. (-10-2, pg. 4- 68)

A

CUED Search

221
Q

A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within _______________. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-84)

A

+ / - 90 degrees of the Aircraft Centerline

222
Q

Up to ____ RFI emitters can be displayed. (-10-2, pg. 4-54)

A

10

223
Q

The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a _____________ around the threat Symbol and target type. (- 10-2, pg. 4-67)

A

Home Plate Symbol

224
Q

After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for _________, the symbols will change to _________. After ________ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will ______. (-10-2, pg. 4-67)

A

30 seconds
partial intensity
90 seconds
blank

225
Q

Label the High Action display (-10-2 pg 4-29)

A
  1. Sight Select Status 6. Weapon Status 2. Range and Range Source 7. Weapon Inhibit 3. Sight Status 8. Owner Cue 4. Weapon Control 9. ASE Manual Program Selection 5. ACQ Select Status 10. Selected Missile Left Side 11. Selected Missile Right Side
226
Q

A solid asterisk is displayed in front of the range indicates; (-10, pg 4-33)

A

Receiving Valid Range Data

227
Q

A flashing asterisk in the *XXXX message indicates

A

Receiving multiple target returns

228
Q

What is the allowable range for PRF laser codes?

A

1111-1788

1488 max recommended

229
Q

___________ of laser energy in one second are fired when pulling the RH ORT grip trigger to the first detent. (-10-2 pg 4-15)

A

Three bursts

230
Q

The second detent of the trigger activates the laser transmitter for ranging and target designation. The range displayed in the HAD will remain _____ for up to 10 seconds following release of the second detent

A

dynamic

231
Q

What type of missile is an N, K, K2A, A-F

A

N- thermobaric
K- SAL II
K2A- SAL II with blast frag sleeve
A-F - SAL I

232
Q

Maximum MTADS turret gimbal movement:

A

120° (right) and 180° (left) in azimuth, 30° (up) and 60° (down) in elevation. (-10-2 pg. 4-43)

233
Q

FLIR image quality in both MTADS and MPNVS can degrade over time. The FLIR SANUC (_________) process is performed to optimize FLIR image quality. (-10-2, pg. 4-74)

A

Scene Assisted Non- Uniformity Correction

234
Q

______________ should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of TADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if ________________ cannot be maintained. (-10-2, pg. 4-74)

A

Crew Coordination

ground and obstacle clearance

235
Q

Weapons initialization is used to verify __________ using fault indications and symbolic messages. It also places the weapons in a condition that will require ______________-. (-10-2 pg 4-104)

A

go/no-go status of the weapons

minimal switch selection prior to engagement

236
Q

When operating in the TESS/weapons TNG mode, what is displayed in the weapons inhibit section of the HAD when the weapon system is “armed?

A

Training

237
Q

The minimum altitude for auto ranging is approximately _______ with a ___ degree look down angle. (SHWS, pg. D-16)

A

33 ft. AGL

1

238
Q

You will see the following message in yellow in the Weapon Status Field “ __________” This indicates the fire signal was sent but umbilical separation did not occur. This message is displayed for 6 seconds, during which time all HF missiles on that side of the helicopter become _______________ . (-10-2 pg 4-36)

A

HANG FIRE

not available” and are inhibited from firing

239
Q

On the COORD page, pressing any VAB L1 – L6 makes a waypoint, control measure or target threat an __________. (-10-2, pg. 3-128)

A

acquisition source

240
Q

Navigation range is entered automatically when a coordinate point (TXX, WXX, or CXX) is selected as:

A

The acquisition source

241
Q

The CPG is required to ___________ the selected sight to the acquisition LOS via the RHG. If the CPG selects (changes) an acquisition source, the slave function is automatically _________. (-10-2, pg. 4-14)

A

manually “slave”

de-selected

242
Q

Boresight aligns MTADS DTV to the __________________.

A

laser LOS and FLIR to the DTV LOS

243
Q

If TADS power is applied, while using the FCR, selecting manual will allow the CPG to slew antenna elevation using the _________________. (-10-2 ch1 Pg 4-52).

A

RHG manual tracker control

244
Q

While utilizing FLIR, __________ fields of view are normally used for target acquisition while ________ fields of view are used for target recognition and engagement. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-79 )

A

medium or narrow

narrow or zoom

245
Q

When using the MTT Pressing and holding the switch in the IAT position for longer than __________will initiate manual sizing control of the tracking gates. (-10-2 Pg 4-43)

A

0.6 seconds

246
Q

While maneuvering and tracking a target with LMC, an accurate dynamic _____ must be maintained to target. _____ should be used anytime the aircraft, target or both are moving. (TC 3-04.42 pg 4-80 )

A

range

LMC

247
Q

When using the MTT, The sensor may be changed between ________ while tracking the target, however, the target will still be tracked in the _________. (10-2 Pg 4- 43)

A

DTV and FLIR

original sensor

248
Q

When storing a target with the TADS using the UPDT/ST switch on the ORT left handgrip, a TXX message will be displayed where?

A

In the Pilot/CPG weapon inhibit field for four seconds

-10-2 pg 4-39)

249
Q

The target and threat file has up to ___ locations protected from overwriting referred to as the safe set.

A

25

250
Q

The sights/sensors system consists of:

A

a. Integrated Helmet and Display Sight System (IHADSS)
b. Pilot Night Vision Sensor (PNVS)
c. Target Acquisition Designation Sight (TADS)
d. Fire Control Radar (FCR) (-10-2 Pg 4-1)
(Change 1 also includes Air to air to ground (AAG) and Upper Receiver (UR))

251
Q

The TADS footprint symbol on the TSD changes from partial intensity green to full intensity _____ when TADS is lasing. (-10-2, pg 3-102)

A

white

252
Q

What do the TADS FOV brackets surrounding the LOS reticle indicate? What if those gates are not present?

A

The gates indicate what portion of the TADS imagery will be displayed if the next narrower field of view is selected. If the gates are not present then there is no narrower field of view (Zoom). (-10-2 pg 4-26)

253
Q

Describe what will happen to the TADS if the Laser Spot Tracker is in Manual and the LST receives properly coded laser energy?

A

The thumbforce controller will no longer move the TADS until the LST is turned off. (-10-2 pg 4-45)

254
Q

The initial internal boresight takes approximately 2 minutes due to the cue search process. Subsequent boresights (same power cycle) take approximately __________ as they use AZ and EL cue data from the initial boresight. (MTADS Operator Course slide 56)

A

30 seconds

255
Q

If you have been operating the MTADS/MPNVS on the ground for _______ or longer, perform a ______ before takeoff.( -10-2 pg 8-13)

A

15 minutes

SANUC

256
Q

What does the LRFD in the “Last” position do?

A

WP uses last laser return.

257
Q

An aircraft equipped with an Upper Receiver (UR) is capable of receiving:

A

C, L, S, and KU band.

258
Q

An aircraft equipped with an Air to Air, Air to Ground (AAG) antenna is capable of receiving:

A

KU band

259
Q

OH-58D and One Station Remote Viewing Terminal (OSRVT) are fixed to transmit in the ground mode.

A

To communicate with another AAG system, the two systems must be set up in “opposite” modes .

260
Q

CAPTURED – .

A

Specified surface target/object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor

261
Q

MOVER(S) –

A

Unidentified surface vehicle(s) in motion.

262
Q

SQUIRTER – .

A

A ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area

263
Q

REMINGTON –.

A

No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammo

264
Q

ROPE – .

A

Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the friendly ground position

265
Q

SNAKE – .

A

Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target

266
Q

SPARKLE – .

A

Mark / marking target by IR pointer or Platform is capable to IR point

267
Q

HANDSHAKE – .

A

Video data link established. Opposite of HOLLOW

268
Q

LOW DOWN – .

A

A request for the tactical ground picture in an area of interest

269
Q

BLIND – .

A

No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft / ground position. Opposite of VISUAL

270
Q

What is the format for a CCA Check in brief?

A

a. Aircraft: “ , this is _” (Ground unit in contact) (Aircraft Call Sign)
b. Aircraft Team Composition and Location
c. Munitions Available (Rockets / Guns / Missiles)
d. Night Vision Capability and Type (If Appropriate)
e. Station Time (In minutes)

Gunnery (5 decks)

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