HFD Operational Guidelines and Polices (234 Questions) Flashcards
According to Operational Policy 101.00 – Rules and Regulations; you are the Officer at a station where a member reports for duty 45 minutes past their scheduled hour. What are the correct actions you should take?
A) Allow the member to go on duty, then send an email to the appropriate Deputy Chief and Senior Officer that identifies, the name and employee number of the employee, and the reason provided by the employee for his/her failure to report
B) Do not allow the member to go on duty, then send an email to the appropriate Deputy Chief and Senior Officer that identifies, the name and employee number of the employee, the time the employee reported for duty, the reason provided by the employee for his/her failure to report
C) Allow the member to go on duty, then send an email to the appropriate Assistant Deputy Chief and Senior Officer that identifies, the name and employee number of the employee, and the reason provided by the employee for his/her failure to report
D) Allow the member to go on duty, then send an email to the appropriate Deputy Chief and Senior Officer that identifies, the name and employee number of the employee, the time the employee reported for duty, the reason provided by the employee for his/her failure to report
D) Allow the member to go on duty, then send an email to the appropriate Deputy Chief and Senior Officer that identifies, the name and employee number of the employee, the time the employee reported for duty, the reason provided by the employee for his/her failure to report
According to Operational Policy 101.00 – Rules and Regulations; a member reports for duty more than ___ minutes past their scheduled hour will be considered to have “failed to report”.
A) 15
B) 30
C) 45
D) 60
B) 30
According to Operational Policy 109.00 – WSIB Reporting Obligations and Procedures; who is responsible to complete the injured/ill worker’s accident report?
A) The injured/ill worker’s District Chief
B) The injured/ill worker’s Platoon Chief
C) The injured/ill worker’s Return to Work Services manager
D) The injured/ill worker’s Immediate Supervisor
D) The injured/ill worker’s Immediate Supervisor
According to Operational Policy 111.00 - Shopping; a crew member asks if it would be permissible to go to a retail store to purchase a few items for their home, is this acceptable under the Policy?
A) Yes – as the Company Officer you have the discretion to accommodate this crew member
B) No – shopping is prohibited for any reason
C) Yes – this doesn’t violate the Shopping Operational Policy
D) No - personal shopping by on-duty personnel is prohibited for any reason other than food for that shift
D) No - personal shopping by on-duty personnel is prohibited for any reason other than food for that shift
According to Operational Policy 114.00 – On-Duty Members – Critically Injured or Admitted to Hospital; The injured member’s immediate Supervisor at the time of the accident/injury is responsible for completing and submitting the “Report of Accidental Injury and Occupational Disease” within ___ hours of the incident to the City of Hamilton Human Resources
A) 8
B) 12
C) 24
D) 36
C) 24
According to Operational Guideline 116.04 - Power Failures; the Company Officer shall assign personnel to the apparatus bay doors to disengage the automatic door opener and raise the door using manual means. This shall be done immediately to verify doors
can be easily opened. Complications shall be immediately reported to the District Senior Officer/Area Commander and Communications. a) During mild weather/summer months Officers will _______?
A) Apparatus should be moved on the ramp area and parked in preparation for apparatus movement
B) Apparatus bay doors should be closed
C) Chain(s) shall be secured in the lock-up bracket (where applicable)
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 122.00 – Tours of Fire Stations; which of the following is incorrect with regards to safety during tours:
A) Members of the public, adult or child will not try on firefighting helmets or
Personal Protective Equipment
B) Children do not climb on or in the apparatus.
C) Visitor’s will be allowed on the upper floors of fire stations, but must be
supervised when in close proximity to pole holes
D) Apparatus bay floors should be clean and dry before commencing tours
C) Visitor’s will be allowed on the upper floors of fire stations, but must be
supervised when in close proximity to pole holes
According to Operational Policy 123.00 – Offensive Materials and Actions; a firefighter has posted something offensive in the workplace, who is responsible for ensuring offensive materials are not displayed in the workplace?
A) District Senior Officer
B) Officers
C) Platoon Chief
D) Assistant Deputy Chief
B) Officers
According to Operational Policy 123.00 – Offensive Materials and Actions; Officers shall be responsible for the following:
A) Personnel violating this policy are referred to the District Senior Officer
B) Offensive materials are removed, and offensive actions cease
C) Ensuring all crew members are familiar with this policy
D) All of the Above
D) All of the Above
According to Operational Guideline 212.00 – Injured Worker Checklist – Career; which of the following is not an action for the immediate Supervisor to take?
A) The immediate Supervisor shall contact a Worker Representative from the J.O.H.S.C.
B) The immediate Supervisor shall contact the Duty Officer at the time of the occurrence and leave a detailed voice message
C) If seeking medical attention, the immediate Supervisor shall provide the injured worker with the Functional Abilities Form before they leave the workplace
D) The immediate Supervisor shall complete the on-line (HES Intranet site) “Report of Accidental Injury and Occupational Disease Form” within 24 hours of the occurrence
C) If seeking medical attention, the immediate Supervisor shall provide the injured worker with the Functional Abilities Form before they leave the workplace
According to Operational Guideline 214.00 – Heat and Cold Stress; which of the following criteria is not a cause to cancel Inspections and or outdoor training:
A) Temperature is equal to or over 30° Celsius
B) Humidity is equal to or over 30° Celsius
C) Temperature is equal to or under 6° Celsius
D) Wind Chill is equal to or under -6° Celsius
C) Temperature is equal to or under 6° Celsius
According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire Department Peer Support; who may request the Peer Support Team to attend for appropriate intervention?
A) The Company Officer only
B) The Senior Officer only
C) Any individual involved
D) The Deputy Chief only
C) Any individual involved
According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire Department Peer Support; a ___________ is a structured group discussion typically conducted with homogenous groups, ideally within 2-5 days post incident.
A) Defusing
B) Debriefing
C) Crisis Intervention
D) Post Incident Analysis
B) Debriefing
According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire Department Peer Support; a ___________ is typically a small group (<20; usually the crews involved) in a structured discussion regarding a critical incident, and is conducted shortly after the incident, ideally during the same shift, primarily as an educational process
A) Post Incident Analysis
B) Debriefing
C) Crisis Intervention
D) Defusing
D) Defusing
According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire Department Peer Support; which of the following would be a critical incident and/or traumatic event causing an Occupational Stress Injury?
A) Serious injury or death of a civilian resulting from HFD operations
B) Death of a patient following extraordinary and prolonged expenditure of physical and emotional energy during rescue efforts
C) Events that seriously threaten a firefighter’s life
D) All of the Above
D) All of the Above
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; which of the following reporting guidelines is incorrect?:
A) Upon return to the station, all Career and Volunteer Operations Officers, who responded on an apparatus or who were in charge of a crew on the fire ground shall complete the appropriate sections of the incident report within two (2) hours of their apparatus returning to the station.
B) All officers are to complete their applicable incident report sections as
directed in the HFD Fire Incident Reporting Manual
C) Unless otherwise directed, all pending reports are to be completed by the Career Officers before they go off-duty. Should a call come in close to shift
change, it is expected that the officer will complete the report and submit the associated overtime
D) All applicable areas/fields of reports (based on the type of incident) shall be
completed unless the reporting officer is of the opinion that no significant
damage or injury resulted from the incident or actions of the fire department.
D) All applicable areas/fields of reports (based on the type of incident) shall be
completed unless the reporting officer is of the opinion that no significant
damage or injury resulted from the incident or actions of the fire department.
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 - Incident Reporting; the Officer’s Supplemental and the (Master) Incident Report should be supplemented by additional details provided from the Officer’s______ from the scene?
A) Observations
B) Notes
C) Assigned Tasks
D) Actions
B) Notes
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; the Officer’s Supplemental shall be completed in ________ detail to indicate the actions of the Officer and crew. This space is to be used in the same manner as the narrative area on
the (Master) Incident Report.
A) Little
B) Minimal
C) Great
D) Limited
C) Great
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; Company Officers observing Fire Code violations or concerns (not immediately dangerous to life and health) at a property attended by HFD shall report such to the
______________________ using the Incident Action Request.
A) Platoon Chief
B) District Chief
C) The Senior Officer for that District
D) Fire Prevention Bureau
D) Fire Prevention Bureau
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; Company Officers observing serious Fire Code violations (immediately dangerous to life and health) in a property attended by the HFD, that Officer shall notify the:
A) Platoon Chief
B) District Chief
C) The Senior Officer for that District
D) Fire Prevention Bureau
C) The Senior Officer for that District
According to Operational Guideline 305.00 Submission of Lists/Damage Reports on FDM (#437); if an emergency situation requiring IMMEDIATE repair arises after 1700 hours and before 0800 hours or on holidays or weekends, contact the
_______________________.
A) Deputy Chief
B) District Senior Officer
C) Duty Officer
D) Platoon Chief
B) District Senior Officer
According to Operational Guideline 401.00 – Operating Apparatus –
Response/Movements; you are the Officer where a member has lost the right to drive (revoked, lost, suspended, expired) – what steps shall you take?
A) Call the Platoon Chief to advise; these members shall not drive any City vehicle or not of the class or endorsement for HFD apparatus. The member must present their renewed licence to their Platoon Chief. A copy of the employee’s written report of notification of loss of driving privileges as well as the renewed licence status must be forwarded to the Deputy Chief
B) Contact their Senior Officer in writing to advise; these members shall not drive any City vehicle or not of the class or endorsement for HFD apparatus. The member must present their renewed licence to their District Senior Officer. A copy of the employee’s written report of notification of loss of driving privileges as well as the renewed licence status must be forwarded to the Platoon
Chief/Division Chief
C) Call their Senior Officer to advise; these members shall not drive any City vehicle or not of the class or endorsement for HFD apparatus. The member must present their renewed licence to their District Senior Officer. A copy of the employee’s written report of notification of loss of driving privileges as well as the renewed licence status must be forwarded to the Platoon Chief/Division Chief
D) Contact the Platoon Chief in writing to advise; these members shall not drive any City vehicle or not of the class or endorsement for HFD apparatus. The member must present their renewed licence to their Platoon Chief. A copy of the employee’s written report of notification of loss of driving privileges as well as the renewed licence status must be forwarded to the Deputy Chief
B) Contact their Senior Officer in writing to advise; these members shall not drive any City vehicle or not of the class or endorsement for HFD apparatus. The member must present their renewed licence to their District Senior Officer. A copy of the employee’s written report of notification of loss of driving privileges as well as the renewed licence status must be forwarded to the Platoon
Chief/Division Chief
According to Operational Guideline 401.00 – Operating Apparatus –
Response/Movements; which of the following statements is incorrect when
encountering a railroad crossing?
A) The Officer in charge, of any HFD vehicle on an emergency response which becomes delayed by a train at a level crossing, will notify Communications Centre immediately giving complete information such as location of crossing, railway involved, estimated length of delay, alternate routes, etc.
B) Apparatus may be driven around railroad crossing gates when responding to an emergency
C) Apparatus shall stop at all unguarded railroad crossings to ensure that a safe crossing can be made even when responding to emergencies
D) Drivers shall obey all railroad crossing signals even when responding to emergencies
B) Apparatus may be driven around railroad crossing gates when responding to an emergency
According to Operational Guideline 401.00 – Operating Apparatus –
Response/Movements; which of the following statements is correct when backing up apparatus?
A) When the apparatus is leaving the station, it must be a minimum of three metres clear of the station door before closing it
B) The Officer in charge of the apparatus will station members of the apparatus crew only at the rear of the apparatus to provide guidance to the driver
C) It is the Officer in charge’s responsibility to ensure that all communication with the ground guide is clearly understood
D) The Officer in charge of the apparatus will station members of the apparatus crew at the front and rear of the apparatus to provide guidance to the driver
D) The Officer in charge of the apparatus will station members of the apparatus crew at the front and rear of the apparatus to provide guidance to the driver
According to Operational Policy 401.00 – Operating Apparatus –Responses/Movements; Members losing their right to drive (revoked, lost, suspended, or allowed to expire) shall immediately report the relevant conditions in writing to:
A) The Training Officer responsible for apparatus
B) Their Captain
C) Their Senior Officer
D) The Deputy Chief of Operations
C) Their Senior Officer
According to Operating Policy 0401.00 – Operating Apparatus –
Responses/Movements; which of the following statements are correct?
A) Drivers of HFD apparatus will be subject to the discretionary orders and
instructions of the Officer in charge of the apparatus at all times. Discretionary orders shall be defined as apparatus placement, direction of travel, or any order that may affect safety or on-scene operations.
B) The Officer in charge of any apparatus shall be responsible to ensure that the conditions of access are appropriate and sufficient to support the travel of designated apparatus
C) When apparatus are travelling outside their primary response district, the Officer in charge shall notify the Communications Centre
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operating Policy 0401.00 – Operating Apparatus –Responses/Movements; which of the following is correct when backing up apparatus?
A) It is the Officer in charge’s’ responsibility to ensure that all communication with the ground guide is clearly understood
B) When an apparatus is backing into any station that has electrically operated doors, the Officer in charge will be positioned close to the overhead doors in order to stop the apparatus if the door should start to descend. When the apparatus is leaving the station, it must be a minimum of two metres clear of the
station door before closing it
C) The Officer in charge of the apparatus will station members of the apparatus crew at the front and side of the apparatus to provide guidance to the driver
D) When personnel are designated to “traffic control operations”, they will take a position on the travelled portion of the street
B) When an apparatus is backing into any station that has electrically operated doors, the Officer in charge will be positioned close to the overhead doors in order to stop the apparatus if the door should start to descend. When the apparatus is leaving the station, it must be a minimum of two metres clear of the
station door before closing it
According to Operational Guideline 402.00 – Apparatus and Equipment – Inspection, Cleaning and Maintenance, which of the following statement(s) is correct?
A) On the first Sunday of every month all apparatus compartments will be cleaned and where necessary, equipment will be wiped down
B) Drivers are responsible for the inspection of HFD vehicles and reporting to the Company Officer any concerns or issues identified
C) Company Officers are responsible for ensuring that inspections are performed and properly reported as required
D) Both B and C are correct
D) Both B and C are correct
According to Operational Guideline 402.00 – Apparatus and Equipment – Inspection, Cleaning and Maintenance, who is responsible for ensuring that inspections are performed and properly reported as required.
A) The Driver
B) The Company Officer
C) The Crew
D) Both B and C are correct
B) The Company Officer
According to Operational Guideline 402.00 – Apparatus and Equipment – Inspection, Cleaning and Maintenance, who is responsible to ensure that all equipment on their apparatus has been accounted for before returning from an alarm?
A) The Driver
B) The Officer and Driver
C) The Officer
D) The Driver and Crew
B) The Officer and Driver
According to Operational Guideline 402.00 – Apparatus and Equipment – Inspection, Cleaning and Maintenance, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
A) A Lost/Damage Report shall be completed by the Company Officer for vehicle deficiencies that cannot be corrected by personnel
B) All deficiencies or issues that should be shared with other Platoons should be logged on the apparatus white board in the Captain’s office and noted in the Station’s Apparatus Journal
C) Non-Emergency/Light Vehicles used by HFD support divisions shall be inspected twice per week
D) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are correct
According to Operational Guideline 408.00 – Breakdown of Apparatus; which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) At the discretion of the Platoon Chief, during irregular hours when the Mechanical Division is not open, the On Call Mechanic should be contacted to ascertain whether an on-site visit by the Mechanic is feasible
B) Apparatus equipped with water tanks and immobile during weather below freezing temperature and unable to engage the pump shall leave all inlets and outlet valve controls in the open position in order to prevent freezing
C) Apparatus equipped with water tanks and immobile on the road during weather below freezing temperature shall leave apparatus at idle speed, engage fire pump and circulate water in order to prevent damage due to freezing.
D) The Mechanical Division must be contacted before using the services of any towing company for towing or for the use of using starter cables for discharged batteries. After hours, the On-Call Mechanic shall be contacted or the Chief Mechanical Officer.
B) Apparatus equipped with water tanks and immobile during weather below freezing temperature and unable to engage the pump shall leave all inlets and outlet valve controls in the open position in order to prevent freezing
According to Operational Guideline 408.00 – Breakdown of Apparatus, which of the following statement(s) are/is correct?
A) If on the radio due to inaccessibility to a telephone, the Company Officer shall request the Communications Centre contact the respective District Chief to inform him/her as to the status and location of the apparatus
B) Company Officers in charge of apparatus unable to respond due to mechanical failure (while in the fire station or while responding to an emergency) shall notify the Communications Centre immediately in order to have an alternate apparatus dispatched
C) Company Officers shall be responsible for notifying their Senior Officer/Area Commander of a breakdown
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 409.00 – Aerial Apparatus – Inspection, Testing and Maintenance which of the following is correct when an Aerial device or Elevated Master Stream comes in contact with energized electrical wires?
A) The operator and all personnel on the apparatus at the time the device struck the wires shall remain on the apparatus until the wires have been confirmed deenergized
B) The apparatus shall be driven or moved even without the confirmation from on scene mechanical division personnel
C) The Company Officer will notify the Incident Commander and the apparatus will be put out-of-service (10-7) immediately
D) Both A and C are correct
D) Both A and C are correct
According to Operational Guideline 413.00 – Spare Apparatus; you are the Company Officer at a Station receiving a spare vehicle. A crew member reports equipment missing, what steps shall you take to correct the missing equipment?
A) The Company Officer at the station that has received the apparatus shall contact the Company Officer that had previous charge of the apparatus and request that that individual initiate a search for the missing item(s)
B) Complete Lost/Damage Report shall be prepared by the Company Officer who originally became aware of the missing equipment
C) If the equipment cannot be located by the end of the shift, advise the on-coming officers
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Policy 414.00 - Collisions - Occurrence and Reporting; when Hamilton Police Service responds to the scene, the Company Officer shall obtain the investigating police officer’s name, badge number and _______________ for the report.
A)Police Vehicle Number
B)Time of Police Incident Response
C)Police Incident Number
D)None of the above
C)Police Incident Number
According to Operational Guideline 415.00 Damage or Theft Involving HFD Property; you are an Officer in a station where there is suspected theft or vandalism of HFD property; what action(s) are the responsibility of the Company Officer when there is suspected theft or vandalism of HFD property.
A) The Officer is responsible for conducting or assigning an investigation into the theft from or malicious damage to fire stations
B) The Officer shall complete all necessary documentation and notify their Senior Officer of the occurrence
C) The Officer shall be responsible for notification of Hamilton Police Service when equipment is lost or damaged under suspected criminal circumstances. A report shall be filed regardless of dollar loss.
D) In the event of unaccounted equipment, the Officer may direct to initiate searches of fire stations and apparatus using fire station personnel
B) The Officer shall complete all necessary documentation and notify their Senior Officer of the occurrence
According to Operational Guideline 418.00 – Personal Protective Equipment; a crew member reports that they are missing their flash hood, what are the correct steps to provide a flash hood for your firefighter?
A) The Officer in charge will be responsible for the distribution of the spare firefighting hoods; the Company Officer and firefighter shall complete and sign the Spare Firefighting Hood Log; at the end of the shift the firefighter will complete the area of the log sheet indicating when the hood was returned
B) The Station Captain will be responsible for the distribution of the spare firefighting hoods; the Company Officer and firefighter shall complete and sign the Spare Firefighting Hood Log; at the end of the shift the firefighter will turn in the spare hood to Company Officer and complete the area of the log sheet indicating when the hood was returned
C) The Officer in charge will be responsible for the distribution of the spare firefighting hoods; the Company Officer and firefighter shall complete and sign the Spare Firefighting Hood Log; at the end of the shift the firefighter will turn in the spare hood to Company Officer and complete the area of the log sheet indicating when the hood was returned
D) The firefighter will be responsible for the distribution of the spare firefighting hoods; the firefighter shall complete and sign the Spare Firefighting Hood Log; at the end of the shift the firefighter will turn in the spare hood and complete the
area of the log sheet indicating when the hood was returned.
C) The Officer in charge will be responsible for the distribution of the spare firefighting hoods; the Company Officer and firefighter shall complete and sign the Spare Firefighting Hood Log; at the end of the shift the firefighter will TURN IN the spare hood to Company Officer and complete the area of the log sheet indicating when the hood was returned
According to Operational Guideline 421.00 – Hearing Protection; hearing protection shall be provided for and used by all members when exposed to noise in excess of ___ dBA caused by power tools or equipment, other than in situations where the use of such protective equipment would create an additional hazard to the user:
A) 110
B) 90
C) 85
D) 75
B) 90
According to Operational Policy 423.00 - Equipment-General; a crew member is conducting routine maintenance to a piece of equipment and find damage that poses a safety risk to personnel. What steps should you take?
A) Leave it from service; allow unauthorized firefighter to attempt repairs; if unsuccessful, send to the Mechanical Division for repairs
B) Remove it from service immediately; send to the Mechanical Division for repairs with a completed Loss/Damage Report accompanying
C) Remove it from service immediately; allow unauthorized firefighter to attempt repairs; if unsuccessful, send to the Mechanical Division for repairs
D) Remove it from service immediately; notify the Senior District Chief, send to the Mechanical Division for repairs with a completed Loss/Damage Report accompanying
B) Remove it from service immediately; send to the Mechanical Division for repairs with a completed Loss/Damage Report accompanying
According to Operational Policy 423.00 - Equipment-General; once HFD equipment is discovered missing, the Officer shall conduct an exhaustive search for lost equipment including but not limited to:
A) Check spare apparatus; other apparatus that responded to the same call, etc.; only after conducting such a search the Officer shall submit the completed Loss/Damage Report with an explanation of action taken to search for lost equipment filled out in the document; the Officer shall file a copy in the District Chief to ensure that they are aware of the missing item.
B) Recent incidents/locations where equipment may have been left behind,
including along the route taken to the alarm; other apparatus that responded to the same call, etc.; proceed to Stores or Mechanical for replacement; the Officer shall file a copy in the fire station to ensure that the other shifts are aware of the missing/replaced item.
C) Recent incidents/locations where equipment may have been left behind,
including along the route taken to the alarm; spare apparatus; other apparatus that responded to the same call, etc.; proceed to Training and take a spare from the equipment cache, the Officer shall file a copy in the fire station and Division Chief of Training to ensure that the other shifts and Training is aware equipment
was removed from Training
D) Recent incidents/locations where equipment may have been left behind,
including along the route taken to the alarm; spare apparatus; other apparatus that responded to the same call, etc.; only after conducting such a search the Officer shall submit the completed Loss/Damage Report with an explanation of action taken to search for lost equipment filled out in the document; the Officer shall file a copy in the fire station to ensure that the other shifts are aware of the
missing item.
D) Recent incidents/locations where equipment may have been left behind,
including along the route taken to the alarm; spare apparatus; other apparatus
that responded to the same call, etc.; only after conducting such a search the
Officer shall submit the completed Loss/Damage Report with an explanation of
action taken to search for lost equipment filled out in the document; the Officer
shall file a copy in the fire station to ensure that the other shifts are aware of the
missing item.
According to Operational Guideline 424.00 – Ladders; a firefighter notices physical changes of the ladder, indicating heat exposure and a crack. What are your appropriate actions?
A) Leave the ladder in service, complete a Loss/Damage Report and wait for Mechanical to deliver a new ladder
B) Remove the ground ladder from service and send to the Mechanical Division
C) Leave the ladder in service for non-emergency operations, complete a
Loss/Damage Report and wait for Mechanical to deliver a new ladder
D) Remove the ground ladder from service and send to the Stores Division
B) Remove the ground ladder from service and send to the Mechanical Division
According to Operational Guideline 425.00 - Power Saws; when shall power saws be started and run briefly by career suppression personnel?
A) Saturdays
B) Sundays
C) Monthly
D) Fridays
A) Saturdays
According to Operational Guideline 425.00 - Power Saws; in emergency situations, all personnel within ____ m of an operating power saw shall be wearing eye protection including fire helmet faceshield in the down position and protective goggles.
A) 5 m
B) 10 m
C) 12 m
D) 15 m
B) 10 m
According to Operational Guideline 428.00 – Vehicle Radio Headsets; the radio headsets have a range up to _____ meters.
A) 250
B) 350
C) 450
D) 500
C) 450
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; the ___________ Level involves deployment of sufficient resources and personnel to meet the objectives identified in the Incident Action Plan.
A) Strategic
B) Tactical
C) Task
D) Offensive
B) Tactical
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; the
___________ Level refers to activities normally accomplished by individual crews.
A) Strategic
B) Tactical
C) Task
D) Offensive
C) Task
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; the ___________ Level involves the overall Command of the Incident
A) Strategic
B) Tactical
C) Task
D) Offensive
A) Strategic
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; during active Defensive Operations, ___________ ____________ becomes critical since firefighters should not enter the fire area.
A) Fire Control
B) Perimeter Control
C) Property Conservation
D) Incident Command
B) Perimeter Control
T/F: According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; no risk to the safety of personnel shall be acceptable when there is no possibility to save lives or property.
A) True
B) False
A) True
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; there are three simple guidelines that define acceptable levels of risk, which statement(s) is correct?
A) No risk to the safety of personnel shall be acceptable when there is no possibility to save lives or property.
B) Activities that present a significant risk to the safety of personnel shall be limited to situations in which there is a potential to save endangered lives.
C) Activities routinely employed to protect property shall be recognized as inherent risks to the safety of members, and actions shall be taken to reduce or avoid those risks.
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; designating Command by using a unique and consistent identifier is proper practice.
A) Yes - this would normally be the street name where the incident is occurring (Main Street Command), if the incident has occurred at a large complex / building; the building’s name may be utilized (City Hall Command)
B) No - it is only necessary for the Incident Commander to identify as ‘Command’
C) No – it is unnecessary to assume Command
D) None of the above
A) Yes - this would normally be the street name where the incident is occurring
(Main Street Command), if the incident has occurred at a large complex /
building; the building’s name may be utilized (City Hall Command)
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; Sector Officers will be responsible for and in control of all assigned functions within their sector. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a Sector Officer?
A) Ensure that operations are conducted safely
B) Complete objectives assigned by Command
C) Initiate, maintain and control the communication process
D) Provide Command with essential and frequent progress reports
C) Initiate, maintain and control the communication process
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; Sector Officers will be responsible for and in control of all assigned functions within their sector. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a Sector Officer?
A) Coordinate actions with related activities, and adjacent sectors
B) Account for all assigned personnel
C) Re-direct activities as necessary
D) Assume and confirm Command and take an effective position
D) Assume and confirm Command and take an effective position
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; Sector Officers will be responsible for and in control of all assigned functions within their sector. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a Sector Officer?
A) Monitor work progress
B) Return companies to service and terminate command
C) Monitor welfare of assigned personnel
D) Request additional resources as required
B) Return companies to service and terminate command
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; using the 10-12 radio code on arrival of the unit assuming Command is proper practice.
A) Yes
B) No
B) No
According to Operational Guideline 502.00 Incident Roles and Responsibilities; which of the following is a responsibility of a Sector Officer?
A) Remain accountable at all times for the officers and personnel assigned to that sector
B) Continuously monitor the safety of emergency operations and act as an
extension of the Incident Commander’s eyes
C) Responsible for the provision of resources to facilitate incident mitigation by Command
D) Act as an assistant to the Incident Commander, that person gathers and records information in addition to any other duties that the Incident Commander assigns
A) Remain accountable at all times for the officers and personnel assigned to that sector
According to the Operational Guideline 503.00 – Safety Officer System; the initial company officer as the IC/ISO provides the beginning of the Incident Safety Officer System (ISOS) and ensures that _________ _________ is a priority upon arrival of the first unit and is maintained though standard transfer of Command and ISO responsibilities until the incident is stabilized or Command is terminated.
A) Fire Control
B) Firefighter Safety
C) Property Conservation
D) Hazard Identification
B) Firefighter Safety
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; which of the following is a responsibility of the Company Officer?
A) Ensure that nametag is placed on passport
B) Ensure that passport is delivered to their accountability location prior to entering the hot zone and retrieved upon exiting the hot zone
C) Must be in his/her assigned area to maintain close supervision of assigned crews
D) Consider air supply when making tactical assignments including rotation of crews
B) Ensure that passport is delivered to their accountability location prior to entering the hot zone and retrieved upon exiting the hot zone
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; which of the following is a responsibility of the Company Officer?
A) Obtain PARs for their crews, which is a confirmation that all members assigned to his/her crew are accounted for and have an adequate exit air supply
B) Address the tactical level of accountability by tracking of crews assigned to their sector
C) Maintain a constant awareness of his/her exit air supply
D) Obtain personal accountability reports (PAR) from Sector Officers and crews
A) Obtain PARs for their crews, which is a confirmation that all members assigned
to his/her crew are accounted for and have an adequate exit air supply
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; which of the following is a responsibility of the Company Officer?
A) Maintain a constant awareness of his/her exit air supply
B) Consider air supply when making tactical assignments including rotation of crews
C) Keep crew intact and maintain an awareness of the crews exit air supply
D) Include accountability as a major element in strategy and attack planning, and must consider and react to any barriers to effective accountability
C) Keep crew intact and maintain an awareness of the crews exit air supply
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; what level of accountability occurs when the Incident Commander assumes the responsibility of firefighter accountability, and when personnel responding to the incident scene other than on dispatched apparatus must report to the Incident Commander and ensure that their Accountability Tag is attached to the assigned Apparatus or Crew passport prior to proceeding with assignment:
A) Level 1 Crew Accountability
B) Level 2 Incident Scene Accountability
C) Level 3 Entry Control
D) Level 3 Accountability with Entry Control
A) Level 1 Crew Accountability
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; what level of accountability occurs when an entry control site will be established as determined by the Incident
Commander and where accountability boards will be maintained to continuously record apparatus/crew assignments in the support sectors and which crews have entered the hazard zone through what entry control point(s).
A) Level 1 Crew Accountability
B) Level 2 Incident Scene Accountability
C) Level 3 Entry Control
D) Level 3 Accountability with Entry Control
D) Level 3 Accountability with Entry Control
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; which of the following statements regarding Personnel Accountability Reports (PARs) is correct?
A) Dispatch will notify the Incident Commander when personnel have been onscene for fifteen (15) minutes; P.A.R. will be initiated any time there is a change in fire fighting tactics (i.e. interior attack to an exterior attack) or the need arises; In the event of missing personnel, it will be reported that the Company Officer does not have a P.A.R. and the missing person(s) will be identified
B) P.A.R. will be initiated any time there is a change in fire fighting tactics (i.e.
interior attack to an exterior attack) or the need arises (i.e. missing personnel,
building collapse, evacuation tones); Any individual may initiate P.A.R. through Command whenever they have cause for concern; By identifying the individual who is reported missing, it will ensure that if that person is working with another crew or out of sight of the officer, the individual can answer up or will be accounted for by the other crew member(s)
C) Time notification procedure will then be repeated at twenty (20) minute intervals at the discretion of the Incident Commander; After a missing person has been identified or rescued, the P.A.R. can cease; By identifying the individual who is reported missing, it will ensure that if that person is working with another crew or
out of sight of the officer, the individual can answer up or will be accounted for by the other crew member(s)
D) When P.A.R. is initiated all personnel will continue with their assignments and will maintain radio silence until a P.A.R. is “declared”; Command will request a Personnel Accountability Report (P.A.R.) starting with the area of highest hazard; Anytime a RAPID INTERVENTION TEAM (R.I.T.) is deployed, upon completion
of their assigned task a P.A.R. must be activated (P.A.R. shall continue while a
R.I.T. is searching for missing personnel or conducting a firefighter rescue)
B) P.A.R. will be initiated any time there is a change in fire fighting tactics (i.e.
interior attack to an exterior attack) or the need arises (i.e. missing personnel,
building collapse, evacuation tones); Any individual may initiate P.A.R. through Command whenever they have cause for concern; By identifying the individual who is reported missing, it will ensure that if that person is working with another crew or out of sight of the officer, the individual can answer up or will be accounted for by the other crew member(s)
According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; which of the following statements is correct?
A) Level 1 Staging is established at a location away from the immediate area of the incident but having good access to it; Level 1 is used when large numbers of companies and apparatus are required; Arriving companies without predetermined assignments stage in a position that gives them the most flexibility — facing in the direction of travel, out of the block where the incident is taking place
B) Incoming companies without predetermined assignments take up a staged position until they receive orders from Command. They can then be quickly deployed to areas where they may be needed; Staging unneeded apparatus and personnel until they are assigned a task or return to station if not required is critical in reducing the potential of FREELANCING on the fire ground
C) Staged personnel dismount their apparatus, turn off their warning lights unless needed for safety, proceed to the incident and monitor their radios on the appropriate channel/tac
D) Level 2 Staging is established when arriving companies without predetermined assignments stage in a position that gives them the most flexibility — facing in the direction of travel, out of the block where the incident is taking place; is used
primarily for basic and routine incidents in which Command has not designated an official staging area
B) Incoming companies without predetermined assignments take up a staged position until they receive orders from Command. They can then be quickly deployed to areas where they may be needed; Staging unneeded apparatus and personnel until they are assigned a task or return to station if not required is critical in reducing the potential of FREELANCING on the fire ground
According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; effective utilization of Staging procedures will:
A) Prevent excessive apparatus congestion at the scene; Provides a resource pool from which Command may assign units and resources at his/her leisure
B) Allow time for Command to evaluate conditions prior to assigning companies;
Place apparatus in an uncommitted location close to the immediate scene to
facilitate more effective assignment by Command
C) Increases radio traffic during the critical initial stages of the incident
D) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are correct
According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; you are assigned as the Officer for Level 2 staging. The radio designation you should use is:
A) Staging Sector with truck designation
B) Level 2 Staging Sector
C) Staging Sector
D) Level 2 Staging Officer
B) Level 2 Staging Sector
According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; you arrive on scene whereCommand has set-up a Level 2 Staging Area, you have been directed to Stage, Level 2, you should:
A) Report directly to the scene, advise Dispatch and Command of your arrival on scene, and then wait for an assignment
B) Report to the Level 2 Staging area, advise Dispatch and Command of your
arrival on scene, and then wait for an assignment
C) Report directly to the scene, report their arrival in person to the Accountability Officer, and then wait for an assignment
D) Report to the Level 2 Staging area, report their arrival in person to the Level 2 Staging Sector Officer, and then wait for an assignment
D) Report to the Level 2 Staging area, report their arrival in person to the Level 2 Staging Sector Officer, and then wait for an assignment
According to Operational Guideline 506.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT); you have been assigned to RIT at a high rise incident. Where will you stage?
A) Two floors below the incident
B) At Base
C) One floor below the incident
D) In the ‘clean’ / evacuation stairwell
C) One floor below the incident
According to Operational Guideline 507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –
Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities; the RIT Team shall announce benchmarks as they are achieved and call for assistance should they be unable to achieve the task.
Which of the following is NOT one of those benchmarks:
A) Low on air
B) Deployed
C) Firefighter Located
D) Firefighter Outside
A) Low on air
According to Operational Guideline 507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –
Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities; which of the following is correct for operations the entry team shall conduct?
A) Execute the search plan, Benchmark – firefighter low on air, Assess the firefighter and the environment
B) Attach search line at entry, Provide air management trans-fill air / buddy
breathing, Request additional equipment / personnel for extrication and relay rescue operations (as required)
C) Execute the search plan, Provide report to Incident Command on the status of the firefighter (nature of injury, trapped, etc.) and the conditions in the immediate
area of the firefighter (fire, heat, hazards), Prepare to extricate the firefighter
D) Both A and C are correct
B) Attach search line at entry, Provide air management trans-fill air / buddy
breathing, Request additional equipment / personnel for extrication and relay rescue operations (as required)
According to Operational Guideline 507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –
Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities; RIT personnel should perform the following tasks, EXCEPT:
A) Assess the emergency scene perimeter 360 degrees of building noting apparatus placement, points of entry, alternate exit doors and windows
B) Provide additional means of egress (laddering building) for personnel conducting operations who are operating above the ground floor
C) Be involved with on scene fire attack responsibilities wherever possible
D) Illuminate entrances and exits using lights
C) Be involved with on scene fire attack responsibilities wherever possible
According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –Equipment Requirements, Communications; you are the Officer for the Rapid Intervention Team. In order to complete your task and determine what tools / equipment will be required you and your crew must familiarize yourself with the following except:
A) Continuously monitor the safety of emergency operations and act as an
extension of the Incident Commander’s eyes
B) Strategies and tactical objectives employed at the incident, Hazards associated with the incident
C) Access to and egress from the building or incident, Construction of the building
D) Approximate location and task assignment of personnel, Building layout / floor plan
A) Continuously monitor the safety of emergency operations and act as an
extension of the Incident Commander’s eyes
According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –
Equipment Requirements, Communications; as the Officer of the RIT, you have three benchmarks that need to be announced over the radio to the RIT Sector person, they are:
A) RIT Deployed, Firefighter Located, Firefighter Secured
B) RIT Activated, Firefighter Secured, Firefighter Outside
C) RIT Deployed, Firefighter Identified, Firefighter Outside
D) RIT Deployed, Firefighter Located, Firefighter Outside
D) RIT Deployed, Firefighter Located, Firefighter Outside
According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –Equipment Requirements, Communications; whenever a MAYDAY or URGENT request is received, all communications on that frequency are to ______________.
A) Continue
B) Pause
C) Proceed
D) Cease
D) Cease
According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) –Equipment Requirements, Communications; which of the following would not be an example when to use an Urgent Radio Transmission?
A) Fire conditions change rapidly requiring the IC to switch the fire attack from offensive to defensive
B) A Missing firefighter
C) A sudden loss of water supply
D) If structural collapse is imminent
B) A Missing firefighter
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; you are the first arriving Officer, which of the following statements regarding your Initial Assessment is correct?
A) Determine appropriate size and length of hose or other extinguishing appliance, Clearly identify the incident location by using the correct street address and/or a common descriptive name, obtain a situation-status briefing from the Incident Commander that includes the incident action plan, May proceed to rear of premises to check for signs of fire or fire spread
B) Determine appropriate size and length of hose or other extinguishing appliance, Clearly identify the incident location by using the correct street address and/or a common descriptive name, Confirm the assumption and designation of Command, monitor the incident scene and report to the incident commander the status of conditions, hazards, and risks
C) Determine appropriate size and length of hose or other extinguishing appliance, Clearly identify the incident location by using the correct street address and/or a common descriptive name, Confirm the assumption and designation of Command, May proceed to rear of premises to check for signs of fire or fire spread
D) Determine appropriate size and length of hose or other extinguishing appliance, Clearly identify the incident location by using the correct street address and/or a common descriptive name, Confirm the assumption and designation of Command, Establish the layout of staging area
C) Determine appropriate size and length of hose or other extinguishing appliance, Clearly identify the incident location by using the correct street address and/or a common descriptive name, Confirm the assumption and designation of Command, May proceed to rear of premises to check for signs of fire or fire spread
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; you are the first arriving Officer (IC1) to a confirmed fire. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
A) All companies working in the hazard zone must be assigned according to the fire ground organizational structure and must work within the Incident Action Plan (IAP) that has been established with absolutely no freelancing
B) Incidents involving confirmed fires require the Company Officer to confirm “Working Fire” to HFD Communications and request other additional apparatus as required
C) If suspected arson, follow arson investigation guidelines
D) Considering the level of risk, the Incident Commander will choose the proper strategy to be used at the fire scene
C) If suspected arson, follow arson investigation guidelines
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; considering the level of risk, the Incident Commander will choose the proper strategy to be used at the fire scene. The strategy can change with conditions or because certain
benchmarks (i.e. Primary search complete) are obtained. The strategic mode will be based on the following except:
A) The rescue profile (savable occupants/survivability profile)
B) The fire load (what type of fuel is burning and what’s left to burn)
C) The ventilation profile and the ability to perform vertical ventilation
D) The building (type of construction, condition, age, etc.)
C) The ventilation profile and the ability to perform vertical ventilation
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; which of the following statements regarding the Incident Commander is correct?
A) The initial Incident Commander will include the fire ground strategy in the on-scene report
B) The Incident Commander is responsible for determining the appropriate fire ground strategy
C) The Incident Commander shall ensure all required fire fighting activities are safely and efficiently performed by personnel
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; for defensive fires, the Incident Commander will have to:
A) Ensure that the primary search (where possible) has been completed, that all saveable occupants are out of the hazard zone
B) Identify cut-off points
C) Protect any exposed occupancies from any fire extension
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 602.01 - Minimum On-Scene Fire Attack Teams; which of the following situations are acceptable activities for a single apparatus response (with no additional crews on site)?
A) A car fire on a busy roadway, the pump apparatus should be positioned to protect the firefighters and still allow the attack line(s) to be used from the safe side of the apparatus.
B) Conducting interior suppression or rescue operations, beyond the incipient stage of fire
C) Advanced auto extrication maneuvers such as removal and relocation of doors, roofs, steering columns, use of air lifting bags, etc.
D) Establishment of a water supply from a static source within reasonable time limits
A) A car fire on a busy roadway, the pump apparatus should be positioned to protect the firefighters and still allow the attack line(s) to be used from the safe side of the apparatus.
According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; the stage of the fire becomes a critical factor that affects the rescue approach developed by Command. Which statement is correct regarding cases of fully involved buildings or
sections of buildings, where immediate entry and primary search activities become impossible, and survival of occupants is improbable?
A) Fire control efforts must be extended simultaneously with rescue operations in order to gain entry and control interior access to complete primary search
B) Command must initially report fully involved conditions and that he will not be ordering a primary search
C) Command must structure a rapid interior search and report “Primary search complete - ALL CLEAR”. (The interior search for victims will also verify no fire/fire.)
D) Both A) and C) are correct
B) Command must initially report fully involved conditions and that he will not be ordering a primary search
According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; Command must consider factors in developing a basic rescue size-up, the factors are:
A) Affect the fire has on the victims
B) Capability of the crews to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control fire
C) Number, location and condition of victims
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; which of the following Search Safety Procedures is incorrect?
A) Inform the Incident Commander immediately of any room or rooms that could not be searched (give the reason as well)
B) Structuring treatment of victims after removal is unnecessary. Multiple victims should be removed to any safe location for triage and treatment
C) Coordinate with crews conducting ventilation/Command before opening windows to relieve smoke and heat during a search
D) Work according to the incident action plan – Do Not Freelance
B) Structuring treatment of victims after removal is unnecessary. Multiple victims should be removed to any safe location for triage and treatment
According to Operational Guideline 606.00 – On Scene Emergency Evacuation; what is the correct sequence for activating the Air Horn Evacuation Signal?
A) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second
blast, five (5) second pause. Repeat one more time.
B) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second
blast, five (5) second pause. Repeat two more times.
C) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second
blast, five (3) second pause. Repeat two more times.
D) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second
blast, five (3) second pause. Repeat one more time.
B) Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second
blast, five (5) second pause. Repeat two more times.
According to Operational Guideline 606.00 – On Scene Emergency Evacuation; which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) The activation of the “Emergency Evacuation Signal(s)” requires the immediate and complete withdrawn all personnel from an emergency incident scene
B) The tone shall be put over the air twice; each time shall be 10 second duration
C) Incident Commanders are responsible for all personnel involved at an incident and to account for all personnel as soon as possible after the activation of an Evacuation Order
D) All personnel will immediately cease all operations and exit the involved
structure/area. They shall report to their respective apparatus
B) The tone shall be put over the air twice; each time shall be 10 second duration
According to Operational Guideline 606.00 – On Scene Emergency Evacuation; which
of the following statements is incorrect?
A) Re-entry into the building or danger area shall only be made with the
authorization of the Incident Commander
B) In the event of missing personnel, it will be reported by the Company Officer that they do not have a PAR. The missing person(s) will be identified to Command by the Company Officer
C) Area in need of evacuation will be the interior
D) Crews will stand by at their individual apparatus to await further orders
C) Area in need of evacuation will be the interior
According to Operational Guideline 607.00 Salvage Operations; salvage objectives are:
A) Reducing the risk of musculoskeletal injuries during salvage operations
B) Protect or remove contents
C) Stop or reduce the source of damage
D) Both B and C Are correct
D) Both B and C Are correct
According to Operational Guideline 608.00 – Overhaul Operations; which statement is correct?
A) Customer service is of the utmost importance to Hamilton Fire Department and therefore accommodation of the public is a priority. The state of a building and the way it is left by HFD personnel is often the measure of the performance of personnel despite an exemplary firefighting initiative
B) Overhaul operations should be extensive but never reckless in the treatment of property
C) Overhaul operations should be complimented by extensive salvage efforts to protect property and contents
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 608.01 - Cellulose Insulation; which of the following actions is not required during overhaul after a fire involving cellulose insulation:
A) In buildings where some of the fibre insulating material has been left intact, an active fire watch shall be maintained for a minimum of two hours, followed by evaluation by the Platoon Chief or a District Chief
B) Overhaul shall be continued until there is no evidence of charring or smoke staining on the material being removed or the surrounding building material
C) Soaking-in-place of all blown-in cellulose insulation from the entire attic
D) Establish fire origin and extent of spread. Complete initial extinguishment and overhaul sequence
C) Soaking-in-place of all blown-in cellulose insulation from the entire attic
According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; overhaul; in buildings where some of the fibre insulating material has been left intact, an active fire watch shall be maintained for a minimum of ____ _____, followed by evaluation by the Platoon Chief or a District Chief
A) 0.5 hours
B) 1 hour
C) 2 hours
D) 2.5 hours
C) 2 hours
According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; which of the following is not an identifiable characteristic of cellulose insulation?
A) Usually resting on top of other attic insulations
B) Black/grey/charcoal coloured
C) Fibre texture (recycled, shredded paper, etc.)
D) Light weight
B) Black/grey/charcoal coloured
T/F: According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; relying entirely on measurements of thermal imaging cameras, heat guns, and other mechanical devices to determine extinguishment is a best practice for cellulose insulation.
A) True
B) False
B) False
According to Operational Guideline 609.00 Valuables at the Scene; you are the Officer surrendering valuables to a Police Officer at the scene, you shall ensure that:
A) The transfer is witnessed by another police officer, an itemized list is compiled of the items surrendered, obtain name/badge number of police officer is acquired
B) The transfer is witnessed by another HFD member, an itemized list is compiled of the items surrendered, obtain name/badge number of police officer is acquired
C) The transfer is witnessed by another HFD member, an itemized list is compiled of the items surrendered, obtain police occurrence number
D) The transfer is witnessed by another police officer, an itemized list is compiled of the items surrendered, obtain police occurrence number
B) The transfer is witnessed by another HFD member, an itemized list is compiled of the items surrendered, obtain name/badge number of police officer is acquired
According to Operational Guideline 610.00 - Fire Watch; the “termination of a HFD fire watch shall be at the discretion of:
A) The Company Officer from the crew left to conduct the fire watch
B) The Safety Officer, from the respective incident following an inspection
C) The Senior Incident Commander from the respective incident
D) The Platoon Chief
C) The Senior Incident Commander from the respective incident
According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; circumstances that may cause an Incident Commander to establish and maintain a fire watch can include:
A) An arson investigation by Hamilton Police
B) A continuing fire risk, risk due to crowd size, and/or undue risk of public hazard
C) Through coordination of the Office of the Fire Marshal
D) None of the above
B) A continuing fire risk, risk due to crowd size, and/or undue risk of public hazard
According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; who maintains command for the fire watch until such time as he/she surrenders that responsibility. This still applies after
that Officer has cleared the incident.
A) The First-in Officer who was acting as the Incident Commander
B) The Safety Officer
C) The most Senior Officer acting as the Incident Commander
D) The Duty Officer
C) The most Senior Officer acting as the Incident Commander
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; ‘Firefighters are responsible to do the following’, except:
A) Maintaining scene security and safety
B) Maintaining accurate and complete records - notes and reports
C) Fire cause determination
D) Interviewing witnesses (subsequent interviews may be required by other
authorities)
C) Fire cause determination
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; Firefighters are responsible to do the following’, except:
A) Conscientiously establishing the cause of every fire
B) Notifying the Provincial Emergency Operations Centre (PEOC) Duty Officer
C) Recognizing and preserving evidence which may relate to fire cause
D) Maintaining the integrity of the fire scene
B) Notifying the Provincial Emergency Operations Centre (PEOC) Duty Officer
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; which of the following about ‘Collecting Evidence’ is correct:
A) Document then move evidence to safe location. The person(s) who locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be turned over to the Hamilton Police Service
B) Leave evidence where it is, untouched and undisturbed. The person(s) who locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be turned over to the Hamilton Police Service
C) Leave evidence where it is, untouched and undisturbed. The person(s) who locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be turned over to the Incident Commander
D) Document then move evidence to safe location. The person(s) who locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be turned over to the Incident Commander
B) Leave evidence where it is, untouched and undisturbed. The person(s) who locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be turned over to the Hamilton Police Service
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; Firefighters may be in the best position to determine the area of origin of the fire and establish fire cause because they:
A) Are responsible for fire cause determination at structure fires
B) May talk to witnesses on the scene while facts are still clear in the witnesses’ minds
C) Are trained in fire cause determination
D) Complete a walking inspection of all areas of the premises at a minimum of thirty (30) minute intervals
B) May talk to witnesses on the scene while facts are still clear in the witnesses’ minds
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; during arrival at the fire scene Officers should note the following:
A) What window or door the fire was observed through
B) The location of the fire safety plan
C) Height and construction of the building or buildings involved
D) Both A and C are correct
D) Both A and C are correct
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; during arrival at the fire scene Officers should note the following:
A) Whether doors and windows are secure
B) What means of entry and direction of fire travel there are
C) Ventilation profile of the building
D) Both A and B are correct
D) Both A and B are correct
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; to establish the cause of a fire, find the point in the building where the fire started (i.e. the area of origin). Locate the __________ point of burning with the greatest amount of
___________.
A) Lower point of burning with the greatest amount of fuel
B) Higher point of burning with the greatest amount of charring
C) Higher point of burning with the greatest amount of fuel
D) Lower point of burning with the greatest amount of charring
D) Lower point of burning with the greatest amount of charring
According to Operational Guideline 0612.01 - Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal; who is responsible for requesting that the OFM respond?
A) Fire Chief
B) Incident Commander
C) Captain
D) Any Firefighter
B) Incident Commander
According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal –Investigation Services; you are the Incident Commander at a structure fire with a loss estimated at $400,000 in a clandestine drug operation, should the Fire Marshal be notified?
A) Yes
B) No
A) Yes
According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal –Investigation Services; you are the Incident Commander at a structure fire, which of the following incidents does not meet the criteria for notifying the Ontario Fire Marshal?
A) Fires in multi-unit residential occupancies where fire spread is beyond unit of origin or where suspected Fire Code violations have impacted on the circumstances of the event
B) Fires involving circumstances that may result in widespread public concern (e.g. environmental hazard)
C) Large loss fires, $400,000 and over or where the loss is significant to the
community
D) Fires of unusual origin or circumstances and for which expert investigative assistance is required with determining cause
C) Large loss fires, $400,000 and over or where the loss is significant to the
community
According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal –Investigation Services; part of the mandate of the OFM is to assist the local police in identifying a purposely-set fire and to support the local police in carrying out significant criminal investigations. The successful prosecution of a criminal charge by the police is dependent on the integrity and continuity of possession of the evidence found at the scene. It is therefore necessary that the ___________ of the _________ be maintained prior to the arrival of an OFM or police investigator.
A) Notes of the incident
B) Security of the scene
C) Communications of the incident
D) Safety of the scene
B) Security of the scene
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; the staging area for Hamilton Fire Department apparatus responding to a call on airport property is the:
A) Canadian Warplane Heritage Museum
B) Airport Fire Hall
C) Main Entrance
D) Cargo Jet Building
B) Airport Fire Hall
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; you are the Officer responding to ‘alarm conditions’ in the Cargo Jet Building. Airport Fire is on scene and cancels you from the call. What are your actions?
A) Cancel from the call and return to quarters
B) Continue to the call
B) Continue to the call
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; the “AIRPORT FIRE” talk group can be found on all Hamilton Fire Department mobile and portable radios in the channel __ position.
A) Channel 7
B) Channel 9
C) Channel 10
D) Channel 11
C) Channel 10
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; which of the following statements is correct when dispatched to an aircraft crash on airport property:
A) Respond to Control Access Gate A (west of main terminal) and standby for an escort to the incident location, Co-ordinate with Airport ERS to assist in the control of the incident, Co-ordinate through the on-scene Airport Fire Incident Commander as required
B) Respond to the automatic Control Access Gate B, Proceed to the Staging Area (Fire Hall) and standby, Wait for escort to the crash scene
C) On arrival, report to the on-scene Airport Fire Incident Commander, assume Command from Airport Fire Incident Commander as required, assign tasks such as: triage, medical assistance and water supply operations for firefighting to incoming units
D) Respond to the automatic Control Access Gate B, Proceed to the Staging Area (Cargo Jet Building) and standby, Wait for escort to the crash scene
B) Respond to the automatic Control Access Gate B, Proceed to the Staging Area (Fire Hall) and standby, Wait for escort to the crash scene
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; in the event that the Airport Emergency Response Services respond to an aircraft crash off the airport property, the distance limit for such a response is within a ______ mile radius of the airport.
A) Three mile
B) Five mile
C) Seven mile
D) Ten mile
B) Five mile
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; you are dispatched to a ‘Stand-By for Aircraft Emergency’, you shall:
A) Respond to the automatic Access Control Gate B (Salem Road), Proceed to the Staging Area (Fire Hall) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities
B) Respond to Control Access Gate A (west of main terminal), Proceed to the
Staging Area (Fire Hall) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities
C) Respond to the automatic Access Control Gate B (Salem Road), Proceed to the Staging Area (Cargo Jet Building) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities
D) Respond to Control Access Gate A (west of main terminal), Proceed to the
Staging Area (Cargo Jet Building) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until
required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities
A) Respond to the automatic Access Control Gate B (Salem Road), Proceed to the Staging Area (Fire Hall) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities
According to Operational Guideline 614.00 - Assistance to Victims of Fires; whose responsibility is it to notify Communications in the event of fires or other emergencies which result in personal hardship (lack of accommodation, food, clothing, etc.)?
A) Safety Officer
B) Platoon Chief
C) Incident Commander
D) First arriving Officer
C) Incident Commander
According to Operational Guideline 615.00 – Hazard Control Zones; when the Fire Department is preparing to terminate an incident where there is a possibility of structural collapse, the Incident Commander shall contact the _____ ________ to respond.
A) Fire Chief
B) Building Department
C) Fire Marshal
D) Hamilton Police
B) Building Department
According to Operational Guideline 615.00 – Hazard Control Zones; on the completion of an incident (no sign of collapse), it is the responsibility of the Incident Commander to make the Responsible Party aware of the new inherent dangers that are identified by
________________ and any other areas that may be a threat for the assuming parties.
A) Only red tape
B) Only yellow tape
C) Either yellow or red tape
D) None of the above
C) Either yellow or red tape
According to Operational Guideline 615.00 – Hazard Control Zones; you are the Incident Commander at a scene that requires establishing a Red Zone but tape cannot be initiated because of heat, smoke, and gases, etc. as the Incident Commander you shall:
A) Set-up Red Zone minimum 15 m away from the spot you want to cordon off, and place the Safety Officer in position to warn firefighters
B) On the initial radio transmission, the term URGENT shall be repeated three times followed by the information for the firefighting crews of the Incident Commander
C) Relay this information to Dispatch. Dispatch would make a short formal
announcement to personnel at the scene describing the area and the reason for the establishment
D) Do nothing, the Red Zone should be disregarded if it cannot be established
safely
C) Relay this information to Dispatch. Dispatch would make a short formal
announcement to personnel at the scene describing the area and the reason for the establishment
According to Operational Guideline 616.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Report Information, the reporting officer shall endeavor to provide as much information as possible in the MVC section of the FDM report. Which of the following is considered to
be of the highest priority?
A) License plate numbers for all the involved vehicles as well as make and
model if possible.
B) Insurance information for the involved vehicles
C) Police occurrence/report number
D) Owner and driver information for the involved vehicles.
C) Police occurrence/report number
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the following is correct for breaking of glass windows or doors on the exterior of high-rise buildings:
A) Do not break glass in high rise unless you have looked out the window or
door to ensure no one will be struck by falling glass within a 30meter safety
zone.
B) Do not break glass in high rise until a charged hose line is in place to begin
hydraulic ventilation.
C) Do not break glass in high rise until your company officer has given a size-up report to Incident Command detailing smoke conditions.
D) Do not break glass in high rise unless it is coordinated with and confirmed by
Command that a safety perimeter is established (At least 60 metres).
D) Do not break glass in high rise unless it is coordinated with and confirmed by
Command that a safety perimeter is established (At least 60 metres).
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; the second arriving Engine/Pump at a High-rise incident shall:
A) Will don full PPE, gather appropriate equipment, and proceed to the floor
above the fire to assume duties formerly performed by the Rescue Unit
B) Will be committed to obtaining a water supply and connecting to the
Standpipe System of the high-rise
C) Will locate and stand-by at the closest hydrant, await confirmation of the IC to begin water supply before assuming Lobby Sector
D) Will don full PPE, gather appropriate equipment, and proceed to the lobby, locate a responsible party for the building and gain control of the elevator
B) Will be committed to obtaining a water supply and connecting to the
Standpipe System of the high-rise
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the following is not an “Immediate Priority” for the first arriving units.
A) Recalling and assuming control of the elevators.
B) Assessing stairs, designating fire fighting/evacuation stairs.
C) Establishing a Command and a Lobby Sector. Assessing lobby conditions, verifying actual fire and fire location(s).
D) Proceed directly to the fire floor and begin aggressive fire attack combined with search and rescue operations.
D) Proceed directly to the fire floor and begin aggressive fire attack combined with search and rescue operations.
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the following statements is not correct regarding elevator procedures:
A) Never take an elevator directly to the fire floor or above. If used, the elevator should only be taken to the floor below the fire
B) The responsible party/key holder for the building may operate elevator and provide access to locked apartments
C) Firefighters should never use an elevator if there is any chance it will travel to or above the fire floor.
D) If unsure of the elevators, consider using them to send equipment only
instead of firefighters (if the elevators can be used without an operator).
B) The responsible party/key holder for the building may operate elevator and provide access to locked apartments
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; a _____ _______ elevator is a Firefighters elevator that is not in it’s own fire separated shaft (could be in a shaft with other elevators) and the elevator car will not automatically recall to the lobby level upon activation of an alarm, it must be automatically recalled with a key by an RP or FEO key
A) Emergency Service
B) Red Hat
C) Yellow Hat
D) None of the above
C) Yellow Hat
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; a _________ _______ elevator is a Firefighters elevator that is in its own fire separated shaft and the elevator car will automatically recall to the lobby level upon activation of an alarm. A smoke detector will be located outside of the elevator car on the recall level and if detects smoke, the car will recall to an alternate floor level
A) Emergency Service
B) Red Hat
C) Yellow Hat
D) None of the above
B) Red Hat
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the following is not a Tactical Objective in a high-rise fire?
A) Rescue any immediately threatened occupants
B) Reset the alarm system
C) Stop the production of life threatening heat and smoke by extinguishing the fire
D) Secure and maintain a viable exit stairwell
B) Reset the alarm system
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the following is not a Tactical Objective in a high-rise fire?
A) Start Property conservation early and address loss control in all objectives
B) Secure and maintain a viable exit stairwell
C) Obtain the presence of the building engineer, superintendent or responsible party
D) Manage the spread of existing heat and smoke throughout the building by
pressurizing the stairwells, controlling the building H.V.A.C., and, if possible,
cross ventilation of the fire floor
C) Obtain the presence of the building engineer, superintendent or responsible party
According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; a _______ __ Entrapment is based upon unreasonable entrapment time exceeding 45 minutes, and/or situations involving non-life threatening conditions with medical factors (i.e. requires medications) or where severe environmental conditions are involved (i.e. elevated temperatures in the car)
A) Level I
B) Level II
C) Level III
D None of the above
B) Level II
According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; as the Company Officer you have determined that there is an immediate threat to life or extreme environment. This is a ___Entrapment.
A) Level I
B) Level II
C) Level III
D) Level IV
C) Level III
According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; no rescue attempt shall be made by HFD personnel if any of the following situations occur(s):
A) Elevator brake is not set prior to or upon performing a mainline disconnect.
B) Upon checking that the power is disconnected it is found that one or more power phases (legs) are not disconnected.
C) Upon entering the machine room, the elevator is found to be moving
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses;
completion of Standard Incident Report in HFD – FDM RMS which should include the
following information except:
A) Number of passengers extricated and relevant medical treatment including
contact information
B) Type of elevator installation
C) Name and contact number of elevating device mechanic and the role they played
in the extrication
D) Describe actions taken to secure the scene and mitigate the situation.
B) Type of elevator installation
According to Operational Policy 618.02 – Lockout/Tagout; Incident Command is
responsible to ensure all sources of energy are neutralized, that is, have achieved a
______ ______ ______ as soon as possible where there may be cause of injury or
harm and to ensure a lockout takes place.
A) Limited Electrical Source
B) Zero Energy State
C) Limited Energy Source
D) Zero Electrical State
B) Zero Energy State
According to Operational Policy 618.02 – Lockout/Tagout; a positive means (e.g., a lock) that secures an energy-isolating device in a position that prevents the inadvertent re-energizing of a machine, piece of equipment or process is known as -
__________________.
A) Lockout
B) Tag-out Device
C) Tag-out
D) Lockout Device
D) Lockout Device
According to Operational Policy 618.02 – Lockout/Tagout; an approved, durable label that is made of non-conductive material, which provides information about the purpose of locking the equipment out, and particulars such as whose lock it is and the date and time of the lockout is known as __________________.
A) Lockout
B) Tag-out Device
C) Tag-out
D) Lockout Device
C) Tag-out
According to Operational Guideline 619.00 – Emergency Voice Alarm Communication (EVAC) Systems; which of the following reasons would prompt an announcement through the EVAC?
A) To update building occupants at regular intervals with relevant information
B) To inform building occupants that Hamilton Fire Department apparatus and
personnel are at scene and investigating the situation
C) To advise occupants of the incident status
D) All of the Above
D) All of the Above
According to Operational Guideline 620.00 - Fire Fighting Operations in Underground Facilities; you are in Command of a fire in an underground facility. To control fires in underground areas, you should be familiar with many factors and considerations. Which of the following is not a factor to control at a fire in an underground facility?
A) Stairways and hallways can act like chimneys for superheated and fire gases being given off by the fire
B) Smoke migration/contamination of many floors from the actual fire
C) Interstitial and void spaces
D) Establish effective communications system, either by radio or alternate means, such as Firefighter telephones if available
C) Interstitial and void spaces
According to Operational Guideline 620.00 - Fire Fighting Operations in Underground Facilities; you are in Command of a fire in an underground facility. To control fires in underground areas, you should be familiar with many factors and considerations. Which of the following is not a factor to control at a fire in an underground facility?
A) Wearing complete personal protective equipment (PPE) including SCBA
B) Establishing a floor warden
C) Reaching below grade fires can be extremely punishing to crews as they
descend to the fire area
D) Limiting the number of Firefighters committed to the underground until the fire is located
B) Establishing a floor warden
According to Operational Guideline 621.00 – Fire Alarm Systems; if there are Building Supervisory Staff at the scene, the Incident Commander shall ensure the following actions take place:
A) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the
building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no evidence of fire, then instruct the Building Supervisory Staff to reset the fire alarm system; post the completed Form 327 on the entrance to the premises
B) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the
building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no evidence of fire, then instruct the Building Supervisory Staff to reset the fire alarm system; Check the annunciator panel to see that it is in normal operating status (no alarm or trouble indicated) before leaving scene
C) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the
building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm reset by Lobby Sector; if monitored by an alarm company, confirm via Communications that the monitoring company has obtained a reset; If the system cannot be reset, then fire crews should re-check for activated pull stations, smoke detectors, or heat detectors
D) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the
building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no evidence of fire, then instruct Lobby Sector to reset the fire alarm system; Check the annunciator panel to see that it is in normal operating status (no alarm or
trouble indicated) before leaving scene
B) The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the
building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no evidence of fire, then instruct the Building Supervisory Staff to reset the fire alarm system; Check the annunciator panel to see that it is in normal operating status (no alarm or trouble indicated) before leaving scene
According to Operational Guideline 621.00 – Fire Alarm Systems; if there are no Building Supervisory Staff at the scene, the Incident Commander shall:
A) Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #437 that reflects the status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible occupant, if possible; if monitored by an alarm company, confirm via Communications that the monitoring company has obtained a reset
B) Silence/reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible occupant, if possible; advise occupants that the alarms will ring until Building Supervisory Staff can be contacted and that they should be alert for signs of fire until the
alarm system has been restored (i.e. reset).
C) Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible occupant, if possible; advise occupants that the alarms will ring until Building Supervisory Staff can be contacted and that they should be alert for signs of fire until the alarm system has been restored (i.e. reset).
D) Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible occupant, if possible; if monitored by an alarm company, confirm via Communications that the monitoring company has obtained a reset
C) Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible occupant, if possible; advise occupants that the alarms will ring until Building
Supervisory Staff can be contacted and that they should be alert for signs of fire
until the alarm system has been restored (i.e. reset).
According to Operational Guideline 621.00 – Fire Alarm Systems; at a private residence with the alarm sounding and no answer at the door, the Incident Commander shall:
A) Ensure that windows and door leading to the interior of the building have been visually examined for smoke or fire conditions inside the building; if an owner/responsible party cannot be contacted and the Incident Commander feels that the alarm was initiated by a system malfunction, then a Form 327 shall be left at the front door of the residence and all HFD vehicles may clear the scene; if monitored by an alarm company, confirm via Communications that the monitoring company has obtained a reset
B) Ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of smoke or fire; Command shall not authorize any activity that may cause damage to the building without clear indications that a fire condition exists within the structure; if entry to a residence is forced, the Platoon Chief shall be summoned
C) Ensure that windows and door leading to the interior of the building have been visually examined for smoke or fire conditions inside the building; if an owner/responsible party cannot be contacted and the Incident Commander feels that the alarm was initiated by a system malfunction, then a Form 437 shall be left at the front door of the residence and all HFD vehicles may clear the scene; ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of smoke or fire
D) Ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of smoke or fire; Command shall not authorize any activity that may cause damage to the building without clear indications that a fire condition exists within the structure; if entry to a residence is forced police shall be summoned
D) Ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of smoke or fire; Command shall not authorize any activity that may cause damage to the building without clear indications that a fire condition exists within the structure; if entry to a residence is forced police shall be summoned
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; full Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) and Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) shall be donned and activated before entering or operating at any confirmed or suspected natural gas / methane / atmosphere where air monitoring equipment indicates oxygen (O2) readings are ___% or less, or when observations and
information received upon arrival indicates the presence of natural gas / methane.
A) 22.5%
B) 22%
C) 21%
D) 20%
D) 20%
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; the Incident Commander shall ensure that:
A) Two 45 mm dry hose lines are deployed once personnel are brought forward
B) One 65 mm dry hose lines are deployed once personnel are brought forward
C) One 65 mm hose lines are deployed and charged once personnel are brought forward
D) Two 65 mm hose lines are deployed and charged once personnel are brought forward
C) One 65 mm hose lines are deployed and charged once personnel are brought forward
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak at a residence. What pressure should you expect in the service line?
A) 1207 – 3448 kPa
B) Up to 450 kPa
C) 1.7 – 140 kPa
D) 1.7 kPa
D) 1.7 kPa
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak at an Industrial occupancy. What pressure should you expect in the service line?
A) 1207 – 3448 kPa
B) Up to 450 kPa
C) 1.7 – 140 kPa
D) 1.7 kPa
B) Up to 450 kPa
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; for Rescue and Evacuation of Persons – personnel shall immediately evacuate the building of all persons and the outdoor area of all civilians and unnecessary emergency response personnel and apparatus for ____ m in all directions. For large natural gas / methane leaks or fires, distances up to _____ m downwind
should be considered.
A) 50 m and 250 m
B) 100 m and 500 m
C) 100 m and 800 m
D) 150 m and 1000 m
C) 100 m and 800 m
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are the Incident Commander at a gas leak at a strip mall, a paramedic rapid response unit and a police vehicle are directly in front of the business and customers are entering adjoining stores. Your action should be:
A) Leave the paramedic rapid response unit and police vehicle where they are and have the customers and businesses shelter-in-place
B) Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 50 m away in all directions and have the customers and businesses shelter-in-place
C) Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 50 m away in all directions and evacuate the customers and businesses 100 m in all directions
D) Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 100 m away in all directions and evacuate the customers and businesses 100 m in all directions
D) Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 100 m away in all directions and evacuate the customers and businesses 100 m in all directions
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; which statement is incorrect about prevention of Natural Gas Fires/Explosions (indoor or Outdoor)?
A) Close all windows and doors of neighbouring buildings to prevent natural gas from entering
B) Personnel shall control all sources of potential ignition of escaping natural gas by placing the fire apparatus downwind
C) Check all interior levels of neighbouring buildings including basements and outside areas such as sewers for the presence of natural gas / methane
D) Personnel shall control all sources of potential ignition of escaping natural gas by shutting vehicle engines off if able to do so
B) Personnel shall control all sources of potential ignition of escaping natural gas by placing the fire apparatus downwind
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are the Incident Commander at a Natural Gas Fire, which of the following statements is correct?
A) HFD personnel shall not extinguish a natural gas fire unless the natural gas flow or leak can be stopped by closing natural gas supply valves before or
immediately after extinguishment of the fire
B) If the fire is isolated to a single appliance, personnel should shut off the natural gas flow at the service line
C) HFD personnel shall not extinguish a natural gas fire all escaping natural gas will be consumed by the fire
D) Personnel should spray a straight stream on any surrounding combustibles and/or exposures if in danger of igniting before natural gas flow can be stopped
A) HFD personnel shall not extinguish a natural gas fire unless the natural gas flow or leak can be stopped by closing natural gas supply valves before or
immediately after extinguishment of the fire
According to Operational Guideline 627.00 – Flooding Conditions; which of the following is correct for flooding conditions:
A) Flooding conditions will always be an emergency response
B) If the building is flooded, best practice is to disconnect power from outside prior to entry
C) A fire apparatus may be used to pump out a basement
D) Portable generators are not considered an issue at flooding alarms
B) If the building is flooded, best practice is to disconnect power from outside prior to entry
According to Operational Guideline 627.00 – Flooding Conditions; which of the following is correct for flooding conditions:
A) Fast moving water 10 cm deep is strong enough to cause an adult to lose footing and fall into the flood waters
B) Standing or working in water removes body heat more rapidly than it can be replaced, resulting in hyperthermia
C) First aid, even for minor scratches and burns, is extremely important when exposure to waters potentially contaminated with human, animal or toxic waste exists
D) Portable generators are not considered an issue at flooding alarms
C) First aid, even for minor scratches and burns, is extremely important when
exposure to waters potentially contaminated with human, animal or toxic waste exists
According to Operational Guideline 629.00 - Operations Near Water/Shore Based Rescue; If Hamilton Beach Rescue is requested by Incident Command for any Open Water rescue call, The Hamilton Beach Rescue Unit operational channel will be patched into our operational TAC for the alarm and the Incident Commander will have the ability to directly communicate with personnel from Hamilton Beach Rescue. Which of the Primary contacts along with their radio aliases at Hamilton Beach Rescue are NOT used?
A) Chief - Alpha 1
B) Deputy Chief - Alpha 2
C) Unit Administrator - Alpha 3
D) Hamilton Police Administrator – Alpha 4
D) Hamilton Police Administrator – Alpha 4
According to Operational Guideline 630.00 – Responses to Bomb Threats; apparatus shall report to a location at least ____ m away from the location and establish a staging area.
A) 100
B) 150
C) 200
D) 250
B) 150
According to Operational Policy 631.00 - Use of Equipment Not Provided by Hamilton Fire; you are the Officer at an incident where the problem is on the roof of a commercial building. There is a fixed steel safety ladder with a cage attached to the side of the building to gain access, is this acceptable to use?
A) Yes, it will make the unit 10-8 quicker
B) No, the crew shall only use equipment that they brought with them to accomplish their task, including a ladder from the apparatus when one is required
C) Yes, the owner has installed a fixed steel safety ladder with a cage that meets Occupational Health and Safety Act requirements
D) No, it will be unnecessary to go to the roof once a service technician is on scene
B) No, the crew shall only use equipment that they brought with them to accomplish their task, including a ladder from the apparatus when one is required
According to Operational Guideline 632.00 - Carbon Monoxide Incidents; the Immediate Danger to Life and Health (IDLH) of CO is ______ ppm.
A) 100 ppm
B) 500 ppm
C) 800 ppm
D) 1200 ppm
D) 1200 ppm
According to Operational Guideline 632.00 - Carbon Monoxide Indents; crews at incidents involving suspected faulty appliances and equipment; HFD personnel shall advise the owner/occupant of the suspected source then:
a) Shut off the appliance,
b) Shut off the fuel source to the appliance and
c) Issue a form #_______ regarding the service termination.
A) 328
B) 329
C) 327
D) 437
C) 327
According to Operational Guideline 632.00 - Carbon Monoxide Incidents; mandatory use of SCBA shall be employed with facepiece donned and air activated when CO readings are in excess of ______ ppm.
A) 25 ppm
B) 9 ppm
C) 100 ppm
D) 50 ppm
A) 25 ppm
According to Operational Guideline - 632.00 Carbon Monoxide Incidents; crews on scene at incidents where readings are 9 ppm or less shall inform the residents that elevated levels were not detected, discuss the findings and actions you have taken (if any) and complete Form _____and_____.
A)328 and 329
B)328 and 327
C)327 and 329
D)327 and 437
A) 328 and 329
According to Operational Guideline 633.00 - Violent Situations; what is the “10 Code” to be used for “IMMEDIATE” Police assistance where the safety of personnel may be jeopardized if verbal discretion is not used?
A) 10- 33
B) 10- 43
C) 10- 78
D) 10-88
C) 10- 78
According to Operational Guideline 634.00 – Career Responses into Volunteer Districts; Single Truck Response – which of the following statements is correct?
A) If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a
prolonged nature, they will cancel the volunteer apparatus
B) The unit doing the canceling must be on scene (10-12)
C) If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a
prolonged nature, they will not cancel the volunteer apparatus
D) Both B and C are correct
D) Both B and C are correct
According to Operational Guideline 634.00 – Career Responses into Volunteer Districts; Single Truck Response – which of the following statements is correct?
A) If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a
prolonged nature, they will not cancel the volunteer apparatus
B) The unit cancelling apparatus does not need be on scene (not 10-12)
C) If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a
prolonged nature, the volunteer apparatus will continue and assume Command of the Incident, releasing the Career unit to return to quarters
D) Both A and C are correct
D) Both A and C are correct
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; which of the following statements regarding Hydro Electric Emergencies is incorrect?
A) Fire fighting personnel shall not enter an electrical substation or vault without on-site assistance from hydro personnel
B) HFD personnel may pull any hydro meter to disconnect the power supply to a structure
C) All wires and electrical equipment shall be considered live until confirmed de-energized by hydro provider personnel
D) Command shall request that the Hydro personnel be called to any incident involving electricity that poses a known or anticipated risk to personnel or property
B) HFD personnel may pull any hydro meter to disconnect the power supply to a structure
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; when wires are down, the Incident Commander shall establish a safe zone of at least ____ m (____ ft.) away from wires and anything wires may be touching.
A) 15 m, 50 ft.
B) 12 m, 40 ft
C) 10 m, 33 ft.
D) 6 m, 20 ft.
C) 10 m, 33 ft.
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; if dispatched to a substation fire, you should secure the area; to keep on-lookers back at least ____ m, ____ ft. for an explosion risk.
A) 50 m, 165 ft.
B) 100 m, 330 ft.
C) 150 m, 490 ft.
D) 200 m, 655 ft
B) 100 m, 330 ft.
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; substation control buildings require special consideration when fighting fires. The nature of the equipment installed within the station, its high value and susceptibility to damage from many extinguishing agents requires careful consideration in agent selection. Preference must be given to ___________ ___________.
A) Carbon Dioxide
B) Potassium Bicarbonate
C) Halon Agents
D) Sodium Bicarbonate
A) Carbon Dioxide
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; when responding to a padmount transformer and/or switching kiosks damaged in an accident, personnel shall assess the situation from at least _____ metres (____ ft.) back.
A) 6 m, 20 ft.
B) 10 m, 33 ft.
C) 12 m, 40 ft.
D) 15 m, 50 ft.
B) 10 m, 33 ft.
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; when responding to a padmount transformer and/or switching kiosks damaged in an accident, which of the following statements is correct?
A) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet close together (to minimize the step potential); don’t approach closer than 10 metres (33 ft.) to the vehicle; tell occupants of the vehicle to “Stay in the vehicle, we are contacting the electrical utility. Do not exit the vehicle until they have said it is safe to do so.”
B) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet close together (to minimize the step potential); don’t approach closer than 12 metres (40 ft.) to the vehicle. tell occupants of the vehicle to “Stay in the vehicle, we are contacting the electrical utility. Do not exit the vehicle until they have said it is safe to do so.”
C) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet close together (to minimize the step potential); if possible, provide the
transformer or switching kiosk location and number to Communications, they can pass it on to Hydro; perform the rescue immediately
D) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet close together (to minimize the step potential); perform the rescue immediately; document actions in the Summary report in FDM
A) Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet close together (to minimize the step potential); don’t approach closer than 10 metres (33 ft.) to the vehicle; tell occupants of the vehicle to “Stay in the vehicle, we are contacting the electrical utility. Do not exit the vehicle until they have said it is safe to do so.”
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; you are responding to a vault explosion, what are your first three actions?
A) Assess the situation from at least 12 metres, (40 ft.); determine the safe zone, secure the area, and keep the public at least 15 metres (50 ft.) back; request that Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the service access involved
B) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); attempt to remove the
service access cover; from a safe location apply non-conducting fire
extinguishing substances such as dry chemical or Co2
C) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); determine the safe zone, secure the area, and keep the public at least 15 metres (50 ft.) back; request that Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the service access involved
D) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); determine the safe zone, secure the area, and keep the public at least 20 metres (65 ft.) back; request that Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the service access involved
C) Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); determine the safe zone, secure the area, and keep the public at least 15 metres (50 ft.) back; request that Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the service access involved
According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour
Notification; the Ontario Ministry of Labour is required to be notified for any one of the following except:
A) The worker advises employer that he/she has been diagnosed with an
occupational disease
B) The worker is critically injured
C) The worker killed on the job
D) The worker invokes their right to refuse
D) The worker invokes their right to refuse
According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; you are the Incident Commander on scene where a worker was critically injured on the job site. What is your responsibility?
A) Begin the investigation into the accident
B) If the Police do not attend an incident involving a worker who is critically injured, and the Incident Commander feels an Inspector should attend immediately, the Incident Commander shall direct HFD Communications to notify the Duty Officer
C) Check with Police to confirm that they will be making the MOL notification. This should be noted in the Incident Report on FDM along with the police officer’s particulars
D) All of the above
C) Check with Police to confirm that they will be making the MOL notification. This should be noted in the Incident Report on FDM along with the police officer’s particulars
According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; you are the Incident Commander on scene where a worker was critically injured on the job site. You only wish to ensure that the MOL is notified (and immediate response is not an issue) then the responsibility for making the call to the Ministry of Labour falls upon:
A) The Duty Officer
B) The Incident Commander
C) The Officer of the responding unit
D) The Deputy Chief
C) The Officer of the responding unit
According to Operational Guideline 638.00 - Notification of Public Health Services; you are the Incident Commander at a fire incident at a movie theatre in the lobby area,
based on this response, should you request Public Health Services?
A) Yes
B) No
A) Yes
According to Operational Guideline 638.00 - Notification of Public Health Services; you are the Incident Commander at a Lodging Home where there has been a long power outage impacting refrigeration units. Based on this response, should you request Public
Health Services?
A) Yes
B) No
A) Yes
According to Operational Guideline 640.00 - Atmosphere Monitoring at Fires; which of the following is incorrect regarding the atmospheric levels where you can operate without SCBA in an environment where smoke was present?
A) 0 ppm for HCN (Hydrogen Cyanide)
B) 10 ppm for H2S (Hydrogen Sulfide)
C) 0 ppm for CO (Carbon Monoxide)
D) Not less than 20.8% Oxygen
B) 10 ppm for H2S (Hydrogen Sulfide)
According to Operational Guideline 645.00 - Radioactive Storage Areas - McMaster University; all laboratories, which contain radioactive material, are posted with warning signs stating?
A) “Caution – Radioactive Material.”
B) “Danger - - Radioactive material”
C) “Caution - - Radiation”
D) “Danger – Radiation”
A) “Caution – Radioactive Material.”
According to Operational Guideline 645.00 - Radioactive Storage Areas - McMaster University; there are ______ areas on campus where entry must not be made until Radiation Safety personnel have monitored the areas?
A) 6
B) 3
C) 7
D) 4
D) 4
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor vehicle Collisions – Extrications, which of the following is the correct order of operations for the first arriving company/crew:
A) Provide scene stabilization, establish Hazard Control Zones, stabilize the
vehicle with Rescue 42 struts to prevent further movement of the vehicle,
remove all tempered glass, access and stabilize the patient(s).
B) De-energize the vehicle/disconnect battery, stabilize the vehicle to prevent
further movement of the vehicle, access and stabilize the patient(s).
C) Provide scene stabilization, contain fluids/place absorbent material on spills
and leaks, remove all tempered glass, access and stabilize the patient(s).
D) Provide scene stabilization, establish Hazard Control Zones, access and
stabilize the vehicle to prevent further movement of the vehicle, access and
stabilize the patient(s).
D) Provide scene stabilization, establish Hazard Control Zones, access and
stabilize the vehicle to prevent further movement of the vehicle, access and
stabilize the patient(s).
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Extrications; which of the following actions shall not be initiated by the first arriving company?
A) Implement initial traffic control on the scene
B) Provide fire protection to the scene
C) Develop a plan for the freeing of entrapped occupants, based on identified priorities
D) Provide scene stabilization
C) Develop a plan for the freeing of entrapped occupants, based on identified priorities
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Extrications; which of the following actions shall not be initiated by the first arriving company?
A) Access and stabilize the patient(s)
B) Ensure that backup equipment and personnel necessary for the operations are positioned adjacent to the controlled area (consider setting up an equipment staging area on a tarp)
C) Relay information to Communications
D) Conduct a thorough scene survey
B) Ensure that backup equipment and personnel necessary for the operations are positioned adjacent to the controlled area (consider setting up an equipment staging area on a tarp)
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Extrications; which of the following statements regarding extrications is incorrect?
A) Officers overseeing the actual extrication operations are responsible for the safety of all individuals operating within the extrication rescue sector
B) In areas that are not serviced by hydrants, a second pump/engine or a tanker shall also form part of the minimum dispatch to ensure that an adequate water supply is available for the initial response
C) An “action circle” that extends 10 metres around the vehicle(s) should be
established
D) HFD members working inside the “action circle” must be wearing complete turn out gear including their helmet and gloves while any rescue operation is ongoing
C) An “action circle” that extends 10 metres around the vehicle(s) should be
established
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Extrications; which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) Rescuers should enter a vehicle to begin assessment of a patient or commence extrication operations before stabilization of the vehicle is completed
B) Whenever possible, the rescuer(s) shall enter the stabilized vehicle and assess, stabilize and monitor the patient’s condition and provide protection and comfort for the patient during extrication operations
C) The fire-fighter attending the hose line shall wear full personal protective
equipment with SCBA
D) Only tools/equipment that is intended for use at vehicle extrications that have been provided by the Hamilton Fire Department shall be utilized at extrications
A) Rescuers should enter a vehicle to begin assessment of a patient or commence extrication operations before stabilization of the vehicle is completed
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Extrications; which of the following statements about Hybrid Electric and Electric Vehicle Safety is incorrect?
A) Hybrid/Electric vehicles are automobiles powered by a combination of internal combustion and electric motors
B) Firefighters do not need to be aware where the high voltage cable runs when
lifting or stabilizing Hybrid/Electric and Electric vehicles
C) The Hybrid/Electric vehicle’s high voltage system can pose a hazard to the safety of firefighters in an emergency situation
D) Do not cut, disconnect or handle the high voltage cable that is color-coded
orange
B) Firefighters do not need to be aware where the high voltage cable runs when
lifting or stabilizing Hybrid/Electric and Electric vehicles
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Extrications; which of the following statements about Hybrid Electric and Electric Vehicle Safety is incorrect?
A) High voltage systems need to be shut down by any of the several means
provided by manufacturers before firefighters enter damaged hybrid/electric or electric vehicles, or before starting extrication procedures
B) It is safe to disconnect or handle the high voltage cable that is color-coded
orange as long as it is not cut
C) Extrication procedures may vary from manufacturer to manufacturer
D) Shutting down the high voltage systems prevents accidental movement of the vehicle because there may be no engine noise even though a hybrid/electric or electric vehicle is powered on
B) It is safe to disconnect or handle the high voltage cable that is color-coded
orange as long as it is not cut
According to Operational Guideline 651.00 – Vehicle Accidents – Traffic Control and Scene Safety; personnel at the scene of highway incident operations fire personnel should do the following except:
A) Exit the vehicle on the untraveled side of the apparatus at all times.
B) NOT turn their back on moving vehicular traffic.
C) Always work towards the approaching traffic.
D) Only cross high-speed traffic lanes on foot if wearing reflective clothing and apparatus emergency lights are displayed
D) Only cross high-speed traffic lanes on foot if wearing reflective clothing and apparatus emergency lights are displayed
According to Operational Guideline 651.00; Vehicle Accidents – Traffic Control and Scene Safety; it is recommended that a buffer area be established between the incident scene and emergency apparatus. The suggested buffer area is ___ m for every 10km/h of posted roadway:
A) 2.0
B) 3.0
C) 4.0
D) 5.0
C) 4.0
According to Operational Guideline 654.00 – Notification of the Building Services Division; the Building Construction Section responds to such matters as:
A) Providing physical security standards through a prevention and deterrence model for Fire damaged/vacant buildings
B) Fire damaged/vacant buildings, and/or an unsafe condition of a building
C) Investigates complaints on private and public property to ensure compliance with by-laws
D) None of the above
B) Fire damaged/vacant buildings, and/or an unsafe condition of a building
According to Operational Guideline 654.00 – Notification of the Building Services Division; which of the following circumstances is incorrect when determining if the Building Services Division Inspector is required:
A) Structurally weakened building
B) Collapsed building
C) Only structures which have been struck by motor vehicles or other objects
D) Hazardous structures
C) Only structures which have been struck by motor vehicles or other objects
According to Operational Policy 655.00 – Operation of Aerial Ladders in High Winds; when sustained wind speeds reach _____ km/h all HFD aerial ladders will not be used.
A) 70 km/h
B) 90 km/h
C) 56 km/h
D) 80 km/h
D) 80 km/h
According to Operational Guideline 701.00 – Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Responses; EMS is first on scene but has not made patient contact, HFD personnel shall:
A) Stand by on scene and wait for instructions from paramedics
B) Accompany the EMS crew to the patient’s side to ensure the patient’s condition can be optimally treated by the EMS crew alone
C) Clear the scene immediately
D) Accompany the EMS crew to the patient’s side to ensure the patient’s condition can be optimally treated and assume care of the patient
B) Accompany the EMS crew to the patient’s side to ensure the patient’s condition can be optimally treated by the EMS crew alone
According to Operational Guideline 701.00 – Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Responses; which of the following is information that the Company Officer shall obtain and then document in the Narrative of the Incident Report (FDM)?
A) Patient’s medical history, Physician’s Name, Age, Address, and the unique DNR serial number
B) Patient’s medical history, Physician’s Name, Date of birth, Age, Address, and the unique DNR serial number
C) Patient’s medical history, Name of care giver RN, RN (EC) or RPN, Address, and the unique DNR serial number
D) Patient’s medical history, Date of birth, Age, Address, and the unique DNR serial number
D) Patient’s medical history, Date of birth, Age, Address, and the unique DNR serial number
According to Operational Guideline 701.00 – Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Responses; you are asked by paramedics to assign a firefighter to drive an ambulance so that the two paramedics can work together to perform life saving care. As the Company Officer how would handle this request?
A) You can allow this request if the second paramedic would be essential in providing life saving care
B) You cannot allow this request as Hamilton Fire Department personnel, excluding Mechanical Division personnel, shall not, for any reason, drive any Hamilton Paramedic Services apparatus
C) You can allow this request but you must follow the ambulance to the hospital to ensure a full crew is re-established immediately afterwards
D) You cannot allow this request unless the Platoon Chief is notified, and has approved the request
B) You cannot allow this request as Hamilton Fire Department personnel, excluding Mechanical Division personnel, shall not, for any reason, drive any Hamilton Paramedic Services apparatus
According to Operational Guideline 701.01 – Oxygen Resuscitation Kit; a crew member reports to you that the oxygen cylinder level is at 30 percent (30%) capacity and asks if it should be replaced. Your answer should be:
A) Yes, a cylinder that is at thirty-five percent (35%) of full capacity or lower should be replaced with a full cylinder
B) No, a cylinder that is at fifteen percent (15%) of full capacity or lower should be replaced with a full cylinder
C) Yes, a cylinder that is at forty percent (40%) of full capacity or lower should be replaced with a full cylinder
D) No, a cylinder that is at twenty-five percent (25%) of full capacity or lower should be replaced with a full cylinder
D) No, a cylinder that is at twenty-five percent (25%) of full capacity or lower should be replaced with a full cylinder
According to Operational Guideline 703.00 – Designated Medical Officer’s Notification; the Officer shall:
A) Ensure that any Members who may have been exposed to a suspected
communicable disease decontaminate on return to station
B) Ensure an “Exposure Report Form” and an “Employee Incident/Accident Report Form” are completed
C) Notify their District Chief immediately when the Supervisor or a Member suspects an exposure to a communicable disease has occurred
D) All of the Above
B) Ensure an “Exposure Report Form” and an “Employee Incident/Accident Report Form” are completed
According to Operational Guideline 703.00 – Designated Medical Officer’s Notification; a “Report of Accidental Injury and Occupational Disease” shall be completed. These forms shall be forwarded to the _______before the end of duty on that particular shift.
A) Duty Officer
B) Medical Officer
C) Deputy Chief
D) Platoon Chief
D) Platoon Chief
According to Operational Guideline 705.00 – Patients with Vital Signs Absent; which of the following is correct when observations or information suggests to responders that foul play might be the cause?
A) Firefighters shall assess the patient for vital signs, then gather any weapons or items of evidence for Police
B) Firefighters shall move as few things as possible, remembering where the item was and where it was moved
C) Any suicide scene shall be treated as a accidental death until proven otherwise
D) All of the Above
B) Firefighters shall move as few things as possible, remembering where the item was and where it was moved
According to Operational Guideline 705.00 – Patients with Vital Signs Absent; Company Officers shall accurately document as much detail as possible when completing the Incident Report (on FDM). Which of the following is not information that would be included in the report?
A) Other details that would be significant, i.e. history of incident, signs and symptoms of patient, any statement made by patient, witnesses, etc.
B) Note the apparent mental condition of person(s) at the scene whether it be the suspect, victim or witness
C) The last oral intake eight (8), hours prior
D) Times of dispatch, arrival, and departure of EMS and any other agencies at the scene
C) The last oral intake eight (8), hours prior
According to Operational Guideline 705.00 – Patients with Vital Signs Absent; Police shall always be requested when?
A) To take over at a scene where a VSA patient has been transported and; there is an adult remaining at the residence or premise the patient was found in
B) To take over at a scene where a VSA patient has been transported and; where a minor is present and there is no adult left to care for the child
C) A patient is pronounced or obviously dead
D) Both B and C are correct
D) Both B and C are correct
According to Operational Guideline 706.00 – Physician on Scene at Medical Calls; you are the Officer where an on-scene physician offers assistance and indicates they want to assume responsibility for patient care, you shall ensure:
A) That the Physician is a Medical Doctor licensed to practice medicine in the Province of Ontario; That a letter of recommendation is produced to verify the physician’s status; That the physician is willing to assume responsibility for this patient
B) That the Physician is a Medical Doctor licensed to practice medicine in Canada; That identification is produced to verify the physician’s status; That the physician is willing to assume responsibility for this patient
C) That the Physician is a Medical Doctor licensed to practice medicine in the Province of Ontario; That identification is produced to verify the physician’s status; That the physician is willing to assume responsibility for this patient
D) That the Physician is a Medical Doctor licensed to practice medicine in Canada; That a letter of recommendation is produced to verify the physician’s status; That the physician is willing to assume responsibility for this patient
C) That the Physician is a Medical Doctor licensed to practice medicine in the Province of Ontario; That identification is produced to verify the physician’s status; That the physician is willing to assume responsibility for this patient
According to Operational Guideline 707.00 – Hazardous Drugs; In the event that a responder is accidentally exposed to a cyto-toxic drug or cyto-toxic waste, the following actions shall be taken except:
A) Any splashes to the eyes will require flushing with water for at least 15 minutes. Access the burn kit and use the sterile water with in this kit
B) Any skin contact will require the responder to remove him/herself from the area and wash with soap and water
C) Responder is to report to the nearest hospital for treatment
D) A “Report of Accidental Injury or Occupational Disease” Form (WSIB) is
unnecessary as the firefighter will be attending the nearest hospital for treatment
D) A “Report of Accidental Injury or Occupational Disease” Form (WSIB) is
unnecessary as the firefighter will be attending the nearest hospital for treatment
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 – Hazardous Materials - First Arriving Apparatus; which of the following is not a consideration when responding to hazardous materials incidents (from upwind, upgrade), HFD personnel should be attentive to safety precautions in accordance with the following?
A) When approaching, slow down or stop to assess any visible activity taking place, evaluate effects of wind, topography and location of the situation
B) The first unit must commit itself to a dangerous situation
C) Consider directing the remaining responding vehicles to stage themselves upwind, upgrade and well away from any potential hazards and await instructions
D) Route any other responding companies away from any hazards
B) The first unit must commit itself to a dangerous situation
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; which of the following is not a basic action principle that first-in apparatus should follow:
A) Restrict and/or deny access to the area
B) Direct persons to affect self-rescue from a safe distance or location.
C) Only enter an effected area to rescue nonviable victims. This should only be
attempted with full PPE, decontamination immediately available and back-up rescuers in place
D) Self-protection
C) Only enter an effected area to rescue nonviable victims. This should only be
attempted with full PPE, decontamination immediately available and back-up
rescuers in place
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; which of the following is not a basic action principle that first-in apparatus should follow:
A) Provide access to area/building owner/Responsible Party
B) Direct persons to affect self-rescue from a safe distance or location
C) Only enter an effected area to rescue viable victims. This should only be
attempted with full PPE, decontamination immediately available and back-up
rescuers in place
D) Control the egress of persons exposed or suspected to have been exposed
A) Provide access to area/building owner/Responsible Party
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; when responding to hazardous materials incidents, HFD personnel should be attentive to safety precautions in accordance with the following:
A) Approach cautiously (from downwind), Secure the scene, Identify the hazards, Assess the situation
B) Approach cautiously (from upwind, apparatus shall report to a location at least 150 m away), Secure the scene, Identify the hazards, Assess the situation
C) Approach cautiously (from upwind), Secure the scene, Identify the hazards,
Assess the situation
D) Approach cautiously (from downwind, apparatus shall report to a location at least 150 m away), Secure the scene, Identify the hazards, Assess the situation
C) Approach cautiously (from upwind), Secure the scene, Identify the hazards,
Assess the situation
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; when securing the scene, the Officer should consider:
A) Enter the immediate hazard area, isolate the area and assure the safety of people and the environment, keep people away from the scene and outside the safety perimeter; allow enough room to move and remove HFD equipment, and establish and enforce control zones
B) Without entering the immediate hazard area, isolate the area and assure the safety of people and the environment, keep people away from the scene and outside the safety perimeter; allow enough room to move and remove HFD equipment, and establish and enforce control zones
C) Without entering the immediate hazard area, isolate the area and assure the safety of people and the environment, keep people away from the scene and outside the safety perimeter except for the owner/responsible party; allow
enough room to move and remove HFD equipment, and establish and enforce
control zones
D) Enter the immediate hazard area, isolate the area and assure the safety of people and the environment, keep people away from the scene and outside the safety perimeter except for the owner/responsible party; allow enough room to move and remove HFD equipment, and establish and enforce control zones
B) Without entering the immediate hazard area, isolate the area and assure the
safety of people and the environment, keep people away from the scene and
outside the safety perimeter; allow enough room to move and remove HFD
equipment, and establish and enforce control zones
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; when identifying the hazards, which of the following should not be considered by the first arriving Officer?
A) Placards, container labels, U. N. number, shipping documents, material safety data sheets, rail car and road trailer identification charts and/or knowledgeable persons on the scene
B) Evaluate all available information and consult the North American Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) to reduce immediate risks
C) Immediately contact CANUTEC at 1-888-CANUTEC for direction for possible
risks
D) Additional information provided by the shipper or obtained from another
authoritative source may change some of the emphasis or details found in the
ERG
C) Immediately contact CANUTEC at 1-888-CANUTEC for direction for possible
risks
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; when assessing the situation, the Officer should consider:
A) Is there a fire, a spill or a leak, what are the weather conditions, what is the terrain like, who/what is at risk: people, the environment or property
B) Is there a fire, a spill or a leak, what are the weather conditions, assume that gases or vapours are harmless because of lack of a smell, take corrective actions
C) Is there a fire, a spill or a leak, what are the weather conditions, what is the occupancy, who/what is at risk: people, the environment or property
D) Is there a fire, a spill or a leak, what are the weather conditions, what is the terrain like, take corrective actions
A) Is there a fire, a spill or a leak, what are the weather conditions, what is the terrain like, who/what is at risk: people, the environment or property
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; when assessing deciding site entry, the Officer should consider:
A) Conduct risk/benefit analysis; take corrective actions; and enter the area only when wearing appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE)
B) Conduct risk/benefit analysis; any efforts made to rescue persons, protect the environment or property shall be weighed against the possibility rescuers become part of the problem; and enter the area only when wearing appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE)
C) Conduct risk/benefit analysis; if required perform a ‘go’ rescue for nonviable patient(s); and enter the area only when wearing appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE)
D) Conduct risk/benefit analysis; any efforts made to rescue persons, protect the environment or property shall be weighed against the possibility rescuers become part of the problem; and enter the area only when wearing encapsulating chemical protective suits
B) Conduct risk/benefit analysis; any efforts made to rescue persons, protect the environment or property shall be weighed against the possibility rescuers become part of the problem; and enter the area only when wearing appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE)
According to Operational Guideline 806.00 - Air Monitoring; HFD uses standard alarm settings, which of the following settings is not correct?
A) 25 ppm (low) & 40 ppm (high) for carbon monoxide (CO)
B) 10 ppm (low) & 20 ppm (high) for hydrogen sulphide (H2S)
C) 19.5% (low) & 23 ppm (high) for oxygen (O2)
D) 5% (low) & 10% (high) LEL for combustibles
A) 25 ppm (low) & 40 ppm (high) for carbon monoxide (CO)
According to Operational Guideline 806.00 - Air Monitoring; prior to operation, detectors should be warmed up for ______ (__) to _____ (__) minutes in fresh, clean air.
A) One (1) to two (2) minutes
B) Two (2) to three (3) minutes
C) Three (3) to five (5) minutes
D) Four (4) to six (6) minutes
C) Three (3) to five (5) minutes
T/F: According to Operational Guideline 806.00 - Air Monitoring; air monitoring results taken (including a “zero” reading) shall be announced via radio to the Incident Commander and HFD Communications Centre
A) True
B) False
A) True
According to Operational Guideline 806.00 - Air Monitoring; which of the following is correct regarding detector maintenance?
A) Detectors shall be subjected to a functional bump test weekly, and a full
calibration on a monthly basis
B) Detectors shall be subjected to a functional bump test monthly, and a full calibration on a quarterly basis
C) Detectors shall be subjected to a functional bump test daily, and a full calibration on a weekly basis
D) Detectors shall be subjected to a functional bump test daily, and a full calibration on a monthly basis
D) Detectors shall be subjected to a functional bump test daily, and a full calibration on a monthly basis
According to Operational Guideline 807.00 - Hazardous Materials Incidents – Victim
Management; section 9.01 states which of the following?
A) Deceased are to be left in hot zone unit all victims have been transported
B) Deceased are to be left in the ambulance unit all victims have been
transported
C) Deceased are to be left in hot zone until decontaminated
D) Deceased are to be removed first
A) Deceased are to be left in hot zone unit all victims have been transported
According to Operational Guideline 809.00 - Responses Involving Railways; the safety of the crew aboard a derailed train carrying Hazardous Materials shall be the primary responsibility of?
A) On scene firefighting personnel
B) Hamilton Police Services
C) 1
st arriving HMRT
D) Hamilton EMS
A) On scene firefighting personnel
According to Operational Guideline 809.00 - Responses Involving Railways; what is the minimum number of personnel required to keep a watch during incidents that may require Firefighters working in the danger zone near railway tracks?
A) 4 personnel
B) 2 personnel
C) 1 person
D) 3 personnel
B) 2 personnel
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; entry into a clan lab is high risk and shall only be made to conduct a _____ rescue of human life. Under fire conditions with no life hazard, prevent extension and exposure damage but do not enter the hazard area.
A) Perceived
B) Known
C) Unknown
D) Speculated
B) Known
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; the Incident Commander should consider ___________ __________ of attack as appropriate to
protect personnel from unknown chemical exposure, explosion and rapid fire advance.
A) A Defensive Mode
B) An Aggressive Mode
C) A Transitional Mode
D) A Defensive Mode
D) A Defensive Mode
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; you are the first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to suspect a clandestine drug laboratory and potentially change your strategy?
A) Makeshift ventilation pipes, vacuum tubes and plastic or rubber tubing
B) Metal drums and boxes with labels removed or spray painted over
C) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside
D) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are correct
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; you are the first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to suspect a clandestine drug laboratory and potentially change your strategy?
A) Bright interior lights left on all day and night
B) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside
C) Chemical containers, particularly those that are not properly labelled
D) Both A & B are correct
C) Chemical containers, particularly those that are not properly labelled
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; which of the following is not considered a hazard associated with clan labs?
A) Clan labs pose serious hazards to emergency response personnel and may also endanger residents in the community or contaminate the environment due to the lack of ventilation systems
B) Inside storage of propane tanks and makeshift connections to domestic natural gas supply
C) The use of water during fire suppression activities may cause a violent explosion or the release of toxic gases
D) Unknown and hazardous chemicals that may be present such as radioactive materials
B) Inside storage of propane tanks and makeshift connections to domestic natural gas supply
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; which of the following statements regarding Clandestine Drug Laboratories is incorrect?
A) On occasion, a clan lab and the surrounding property may be protected with defence systems or “booby-traps” to deter unwanted visitors
B) Electric switches, vacuum pumps, chemical containers, glassware, or anything that is plugged into an electrical receptacle shall be unplugged
C) Operators of clan labs may not always be familiar with the flammability and reactivity of some chemicals
D) Opening or moving doors, windows, refrigerator doors, chemical containers or furniture may be a triggering mechanism for an explosive device or chemical reaction that may be lethal
B) Electric switches, vacuum pumps, chemical containers, glassware, or anything that is plugged into an electrical receptacle shall be unplugged
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; HFD shall provide support to Police personnel on scene. Which of the following is not a support action HFD shall provide?
A) Mitigation of hazardous chemicals
B) Provide research and information on chemicals that are suspected or are known to be in the laboratory
C) Investigate and seize Clandestine Drug Laboratory equipment
D) Decontamination of any entry personnel
C) Investigate and seize Clandestine Drug Laboratory equipment
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; you are firstin and still in Command at a Clandestine Drug Laboratory, rescue of persons or fire suppression are non existent, HFD personnel shall immediately leave the clan lab area and stand-by at the safe evacuation distance of _____ m - _____ m
A) 25 m – 75 m
B) 50 m – 100 m
C) 75 m – 125 m
D) 100 m – 150 m
B) 50 m – 100 m
According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; you are the first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to suspect a marijuana grow operation and potentially change your strategy?
A) Makeshift ventilation pipes, vacuum tubes and plastic or rubber tubing
B) Metal drums and boxes with labels removed or spray painted over
C) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside
D) Both A & B are correct
C) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside
According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; you are the first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to suspect a marijuana grow operation and potentially change your strategy?
A) Bright interior lights left on all day and night
B) Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside
C) Chemical containers, particularly those that are not properly labelled
D) Both A & B are correct
D) Both A & B are correct
According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; of the following is not considered a hazard associated with marijuana grow operation?
A) Electrocution from electrical bypass, power lines, secondary distribution panels and transformers.
B) Inside storage of propane tanks and makeshift connections to domestic natural gas supply
C) Solvents and pesticides stored in the interior
D) Unknown and hazardous chemicals that may be present such as radioactive materials
D) Unknown and hazardous chemicals that may be present such as radioactive materials
According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; which of the following statements regarding marijuana grow operations is incorrect?
A) Opening or moving doors, windows, refrigerator doors, chemical containers or furniture may be a triggering mechanism for an explosive device or chemical reaction that may be lethal
B) Entry into a grow op is high risk and shall only be made to conduct a rescue of human life known to be in the premises
C) The Incident Commander should consider a defensive mode of attack as
appropriate to protect personnel from unknown chemical exposure, explosion and rapid fire advance
D) Clues that may indicate the presence of a grow op can include windows are covered often with dark plastic, foil or newspaper and little snow on the roof in winter
A) Opening or moving doors, windows, refrigerator doors, chemical containers or furniture may be a triggering mechanism for an explosive device or chemical reaction that may be lethal
According to Operational Guideline 812.00 - Chemical Suicides; H2S is a colorless gas with notable odor of (rotten egg/sewer gas) detectable at low levels [measured in parts per million (ppm] Although pungent at first, it quickly deadens the sense of smell between the range of ________ ppm.
A) 300 - 500 ppm
B) 200 - 400 ppm
C) 150 - 250 ppm
D) 250 - 350 ppm
C) 150 - 250 ppm
According to Operational Guideline 812.00 - Chemical Suicides; what additional agencies must be notified in advance in order to avoid contamination of personnel or equipment?
A) Coroner / morgue
B) HPS (Hamilton Police Services)
C) HPW (Hamilton Public Works)
D) EMS and Hospital
D) EMS and Hospital
According to Operational Guideline 812.00 - Chemical Suicides; locations of such acts may occur in but not limited to the following areas except where vapors have the ability to disperse?
A) Vehicles.
B) Open areas
C) Small rooms inside the residence.
D) Apartments
B) Open areas
According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational Response; a confined space is any space that has the following characteristics:
A) Has limited or restricted means for entry or exit. Is not designed for continuous human occupancy
B) Contains a material that has the potential for engulfing an entrant
C) Is large enough and so configured that a person can enter and perform assigned work
D) All of the Above
D) All of the Above
According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational Response; which of the following is not a characteristic of a confined space?
A) Contains or has a potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere
B) An excavation made below the surface of the ground where the depth is greater than the width
C) Has an internal configuration such that an entrant could be trapped or
asphyxiated by inwardly converging walls or by a floor that slopes downward and tapers to a smaller cross section
D) Has limited or restricted means for entry or exit. Is not designed for continuous human occupancy
B) An excavation made below the surface of the ground where the depth is greater than the width
According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational Response; you are first-in and shall determine the severity and extent of the confined space rescue emergency. Should a confined space rescue exist, the officer shall do the
following except:
A) Determine if the area is a confined space (by definition)
B) Approach the area from the ends if possible
C) Confirm that all Confined Space / HARR apparatus are responding
D) Tape off the Rescue area, establish safety zone
B) Approach the area from the ends if possible
According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational Response; you are first-in and shall determine the severity and extent of the confined space rescue emergency. Should a confined space rescue exist, the officer shall do the
following except:
A) Assess Rescue versus Recovery mode, consideration for obvious death
B) Gather information from on-site personnel such as entry permits, MSDS, and Lockout/Tag out locations
C) Place ground pads around the work area
D) Attempt communication with victim(s)
C) Place ground pads around the work area
According to Operational Policy 903.00 - Smoke Alarm Enforcement Policy (SAEP); a follow up on SANN’s issued will be conducted as soon as practical after____ hrs. have expired since its issuance by Operations.
A) 36
B) 24
C) 48
D) 72
B) 24
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (LiquifiedPetroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak at a commercial occupancy. What pressure should you expect in the service line?
A) 1207 – 3448 kPa
B) Up to 450 kPa
C) 1.7 – 140 kPa
D) 1.7 kPa
C) 1.7 – 140 kPa
