hesi primary 2 Flashcards
Xerosis cutis
Xerosis cutis is the medical term for abnormally dry skin. Dry skin is common, especially in older adults, and it is usually a minor and temporary problem.
anomia
a form of aphasia in which the patient is unable to recall the names of everyday objects.
Pioglitazone (Actos) is contraindicated in patients with ?
Pioglitazone (Actos) is contraindicated in patients with class III or IV heart disease and congestive heart failure because it causes water retention.
sulfa allergies
Patients with sulfa allergies may be sensitive to thiazides, loop diuretics, and some protease inhibitors (e.g., darunavair, fosamprenavir), which are used in the treatment of HIV. Potassium-sparing diuretics are a safe alternative for patients with severe sulfa allergy
Reye’s syndrome,
Reye’s syndrome, which is a rare condition that can develop in children and young adults recuperating from febrile viral infections who ingest aspirin or salicylate medications. The condition can progress very quickly. Stage 1 symptoms are severe vomiting, diarrhea, lethargy, stupor, and elevated ALT and AST. Stage 2 includes personality changes, irritability, aggression, and hyperactive (not hypoactive) reflexes. Stages 3 to 5 present with confusion, delirium, cerebral edema, coma, seizures, and death.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) inhibit the vasodilatory effects of prostaglandins, which predisposes the kidney to ischemia. NSAIDs can cause acute kidney injury by decreasing renal blood flow. Nonselective NSAIDs can adversely affect the kidneys, gastrointestinal tract, liver, cardiovascular system, and lungs (bronchospasm).
thiazide diuretic side effects
Side effects of thiazide diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide are hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia, and hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholesteremia. Patients should also be monitored for hypokalemia, hyponatremia (not hypernatremia), and hypomagnesemia.
SSRIs
Fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), and paroxetine (Paxil CR) are SSRIs.
If a patient has a positive nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) for Chlamydia trachomatis, both the patient and their sexual partner should be treated with what?
While azithromycin 1 g PO in a single dose or doxycycline 100 mg PO BID × 7 days are recommended regimens, azithromycin is the preferred treatment due to the compliance advantage of a single dose.
dig toxicity
The classic symptoms of digoxin toxicity are nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellowish-green halos in the patient’s vision. Digoxin toxicity can cause hypokalemia and hypercalcemia.
Lithium toxicity symptoms
are seizures, slurred speech, increased urination, and increased thirst.
Phenytoin (Dilantin) toxicity symptoms
include nystagmus, ataxia, and confusion.
Carbamazepine (Tegretol) toxicity
will present as a skin rash and jaundice.
how do thiazide diuretics decrease calcium excretion?
by the kidneys and stimulate osteoblast production.
This positive side effect of thiazides results in a decrease in calcium bone loss and an increase in BMD.
The therapeutic level of phenytoin (Dilantin) is?
The therapeutic level of phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. Levels greater than this may cause adverse effects: 20 to 30 mcg/mL, nystagmus; 30 to 40 mcg/mL, ataxia; 40 to 50 mcg/mL, mental status changes; >50 mcg/mL, breakthrough seizures; and levels near 100 mcg/ mL may cause death.
Vitamin K in green leafy vegetables and Warfarin?
Green leafy vegetables have high levels of vitamin K, which can bind with the blood-clotting cascade and decrease the bleeding time. Vitamin K and warfarin sodium (Coumadin) have opposing effects. Vitamin K helps to decrease bleeding time; Coumadin helps to increase bleeding time. Leafy green vegetables high in vitamin K would normally decrease the bleeding time. In a patient who is taking Coumadin, the high vitamin K would interfere with the desired effect of the Coumadin (which would be to prolong or increase clotting time) and, in fact, would have the opposite effect, which would be to shorten or decrease the clotting time.
diuretics contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergies
Thiazides (hydrochlorothiazide and indapamide) and loop diuretics (furosemide and bumetanide) are contraindicated in patients with sulfa allergies. Potassium-sparing diuretics are a suitable alternative.
Terazosin (Hytrin)
Terazosin (Hytrin) is a quinazoline used to treat symptoms of BPH and hypertension.
Silodosin (Rapaflo) i
Silodosin (Rapaflo) is used to manage the signs and symptoms of BPH.
Finasteride (Proscar)
Finasteride (Proscar) is used to treat symptomatic BPH.
Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)
Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline) is a nonselective alpha-adrenergic blocker used to improve urinary flow; however, because of nonselectivity, it has a high incidence of adverse effects.
Chronic use of NSAIDs is associated with increased risk of ? What systems are effected?
Chronic use of NSAIDs is associated with increased risk of ulcers, perforation, bleeding of the gastrointestinal tract, heart attacks, cardiovascular damage, strokes, acute interstitial nephritis and kidney injury, and liver damage. It can also affect the lungs of those with asthma or underlying aspirin sensitivity, causing bronchospasm. Chronic NSAID use does not adversely affect the endocrine system.
positive Finkelstein’s test
Finkelstein’s test is used to diagnose de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. De Quervain’s tenosynovitis occurs from repetitive movement or overuse of the wrist and thumb. The symptoms associated with de Quervain’s tenosynovitis result from inflammation of the tendons and sheaths located on the thumb side of the wrist, causing pain traveling up the arm and swelling over the thumb and wrist. The patient will be instructed to apply ice packs for a prescribed amount of time daily and take a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug such as ibuprofen for discomfort.
Tetracyclines (category D) safe for children?
should not be prescribed for patients younger than 9 years old.
preferred first-line therapy for children with impetigo
Mupirocin is the preferred first-line therapy for children with impetigo.
Levothyroxine (Synthroid) interact with which numerous drugs and food?
anticoagulants, tricyclic antidepressants, antacids and calcium, iron, multivitamins, proton pump inhibitors, estrogens, statins, metformin. Certain foods interfere with absorption (calcium-fortified foods, dietary fiber, walnuts, soy). Patients should avoid taking them together and should space these foods and drugs several hours apart. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of T4.
The current treatment for hypothyroidism ?
The current treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine T4. Replacement therapy with levothyroxine T3 alone is not recommended. Much of the conversion of T3 comes from T4. T3 has a very short life span in the body, which would require a patient to take the medication several times a day and may result in imbalanced levels resulting in unpleasant symptoms. Too high of a level can result in injury to the heart and bones. Combined levothyroxine T3 and T4 can be prescribed, but this does not offer any advantage over prescribing T4 alone.
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) side effects?
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine that causes sedation and is used as a hypnotic. Older patients have increased sensitivity to the drug’s effects. Diphenhydramine use places the patient at risk for confusion, urinary retention and incontinence, and sedation.
What should be monitored upon initiation of an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin-receptor blocker (ARB) in a patient with kidney disease?
Serum potassium should be monitored upon initiation of an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin-receptor blocker (ARB) in a patient with kidney disease. Potassium may rise initially and begin to taper off 2 to 3 months later, so continued monitoring of serum potassium is recommended.
What would you do for a patient who presents with symptoms associated with Pasteurella multocida , which is an anaerobic gram-negative coccobacillus found in the oropharynx of healthy cats, dogs, and other animals?
The diagnosis of the bacteria can be made with a gram-stain culture; however, a broad-spectrum antibiotic that targets Pasteurella, as well as other gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, is preferred for prophylaxis. Amoxicillin–clavulanate is a recommended antibiotic for prophylactic treatment.
shingles treatment 3 months after outbreak
The outbreak that occurs with shingles lasts about 3 to 5 weeks. A patient prescribed gabapentin 3 months after an outbreak of shingles is being treated for postherpetic neuralgia. Therefore, the nurse practitioner will inquire about pain, which is generally confined to the area in which dermatomal involvement occurred. Symptoms associated with postherpetic neuralgia include a sensation of burning, throbbing, sharp pain, and aching at the site of the outbreak.
risks with The combination of a statin with niacin
symptoms of liver damage, including fatigue, anorexia, jaundice, and dark-colored urine. The statin should be discontinued, and a liver function profile is indicated. This patient is taking high-dose atorvastatin (60 mg) plus a high-dose B-complex vitamin (which contains niacin or vitamin B3). The combination of a statin with niacin raises the risk of drug-induced hepatitis and rhabdomyolysis.
The first-line antibiotic treatment for an infant with pertussis
The first-line antibiotic treatment for an infant with pertussis are macrolides (azithromycin, erythromycin, or clarithromycin).
Penicillins for children indications
Penicillins are indicated for strep throat and otitis media.
Cephalosporins for children indications
Cephalosporins are appropriate for gram-positive cocci bacteria.
Quinolones for children indications
Quinolones are effective against gram-negative and atypical bacteria.
The chronic effect of using finasteride to treat prostate cancer ?
The chronic effect of using finasteride to treat prostate cancer is the stabilization or gradual decline of the patient’s PSA. An acute effect of the finasteride on PSA is a reduction, rather than an increase, of approximately 50%. Any increase in PSA is a concern, even if the value is within a normal range.
The use of aspirin affects platelet function
The use of aspirin affects platelet function by irreversibly inactivating platelet COX-1 enzyme, ultimately affecting platelet aggregation due to lowered levels of thromboxane A2. While the ½ life of aspirin is only 15 to 20 minutes, the antiplatelet effect lasts the entire lifespan of the platelet, which is approximately 10 days. Although it may take 10 days for the total platelet population to be renewed, platelets are renewed at a rate of 10% per day, and partial platelet function can be seen when about 1/3 of the platelets have COX function (~33% or almost 4 days).
administering theophylline (Theo-Dur) what will you monitor?
It is important to monitor serum concentration when administering theophylline (Theo-Dur). Theophylline can cause adverse effects due to the plasma concentration, especially when it exceeds 20 mg/L.
when is it appropriate for liver function testing with meds?
Liver function testing is appropriate for medications that affect the liver such as antibiotics, antipsychotics, and statins.
When is complete metabolic panel lab testing instrumental ?
Complete metabolic panel lab testing is instrumental in diagnosing disorders such as diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease.
recommended treatment for the first episode of primary genital herpes?
Acyclovir (Zovirax) 400 mg PO TID x 7 to 10 days is the recommended treatment for the first episode of primary genital herpes.
recommended treatment for primary syphilis (chancre), secondary syphilis, or early latent syphilis (<1 year)?
Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 mU IM in a single dose.
What is the recommended treatment for condylomata acuminata (genital warts)?
Podofilox (Condylox) 0.5% gel or cream BID x 3 consecutive days i
where does ondylomata acuminata (genital warts) appear?
may appear on the vagina, external genitals, urethra, anus, penis, nasal mucosa, oropharynx, or conjunctivae.
Patients taking hydrochlorothiazide and nifedipine (Procardia XL) should be monitored for ?
acquired neutropenia. Hydrochlorothiazide can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to neutropenia. Nifedipine (and other calcium channel blockers) suppress cytokine-induced activation of neutrophils.
Macrocytosis is?
a descriptive term for macrocytes that are larger than normal. It can occur in the presence of anemia, alcoholism, and sickle cell disease.
Primary polycythemia vera is caused by?
acquired or inherited genetic mutations. It causes abnormally high levels of red blood cell precursors.
What causes thrombocythemia?
Excess platelets in the blood cause thrombocythemia.
What causes Secondary thrombocythemia ?
Secondary thrombocythemia can be caused by infection, inflammatory states, hemorrhage, trauma, or splenectomy.
infants taking meds
The infant’s blood–brain barrier is not fully developed for several months; therefore, the infant has an increased risk of central nervous system toxicity and sensitivity to pharmacologic agents that act on the brain. Renal excretion is decreased in an infant. Gastric emptying time in infants is prolonged and irregular. Therefore, enhanced absorption of a pharmacologic agent may occur as a result of delayed gastric emptying. Because of the low level of serum albumin, protein-binding drugs are less able to bind in infants, and endogenous compounds that compete with drugs for binding sites result in a higher concentration of free drug level
Sensorineural hearing loss
Sensorineural hearing loss involves difficulty converting mechanical vibrations to electrical potential in the cochlea or in auditory nerve transmission to the brain. It is mostly caused by permanent damage in the organ of Corti. It can be caused by age-related hearing loss, noise trauma, medications, autoimmune diseases, mechanical trauma, Meniere disease, infection, and neoplasm (acoustic neuroma).
hearing loss in elderly
Approximately one-third of older adults between the ages of 61 and 70 years have hearing loss. More than 90% of adults older than 85 years of age have hearing loss. The most common type of hearing loss is age-related and sensorineural. All adults older than 60 years of age should be screened for hearing loss at periodic health examinations.
Conductive hearing
Conductive hearing is the transition of sound from the external and middle ear to the inner ear. Conductive hearing loss is caused by problems in the external and middle ear that interfere with the transmission of sound and its conversion to mechanical vibration. Causes of conductive hearing loss include obstruction of the external auditory canal by cerumen, foreign bodies, debris from otitis externa, and large exocytosis and osteomas.
tip about hearing loss
key to remember, conductive hearing loss is what you can see on physical assessment and sensorineural is what you can’t see.
conception after oral contraception
Menses return in 30 days for most women after stopping oral contraception. Although it is safe to conceive immediately after taking oral contraceptives for any length of time, it may take the patient up to a year to return to fertility.
CAP
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is pneumonia not acquired in a hospital or long-term care facility. Patients with suspected CAP should receive a chest X-ray for diagnosis. The Pneumonia Severity Index should be used to assist in decisions regarding the need for hospitalization in patients with CAP.
the initial treatment of CAP
the initial treatment of CAP for most patients is amoxicillin or doxycycline.
fwhat treatment for Cap if fail first-line medications, have significant comorbidities, have had recent antibiotic therapy, are allergic to alternative agents, or have a documented infection with highly drug-resistant pneumococci.
Respiratory fluoroquinolones and amoxicillin/clavulanate should be used in patients who fail first-line medications, have significant comorbidities, have had recent antibiotic therapy, are allergic to alternative agents, or have a documented infection with highly drug-resistant pneumococci.
pneumonic for pneumonia treatment
This is correct because in the treatment of CAP the choices are Macrolides, Amoxicillin and Doxycycline or in the presence of complications use Levaquin (acronym M-A-D-Lung). The Amoxicillin was the only viable choice provided in the list of selections.
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Hidradenitis suppurativa is a disorder of the terminal follicular epithelium in apocrine gland-bearing skin. It is a chronic, disabling disorder that progresses, often causing keloids, contractures, and possible immobility. It is characterized by comedone-like follicular occlusion, chronic and relapsing inflammation, mucopurulent discharge, and progressive scarring.
First-line treatment Hidradenitis suppurativa
First-line treatment is a 12‑week course of doxycycline (Vibramycin).
Thyroid storm
Thyroid storm is an extreme form of severe thyrotoxicosis that is life-threatening and should be managed in the hospital setting. Its symptoms include marked agitation or delirium, a high fever, severe tachycardia, vomiting, diarrhea, and dehydration. Cardiac arrhythmias, heart failure, and myocardial infarctions are possible complications.
after thyroid storm crisis stabilizes?
After the crisis is stabilized, it is necessary to follow the patient closely in the clinical setting. Strict attention must be paid to TSH and T4 levels, adherence to medication, and appropriately prescribed dosages of medication. The patient should have frequent follow-ups and laboratory studies, because hypercalcemia, osteoporosis, and nephrocalcinosis may occur in hyperthyroidism. They will likely be comanaged with an endocrinologist.
what can occur if males have thyroid storm?
Male patients should be questioned regarding sexual function, because decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, diminished sperm motility, and gynecomastia may occur.
phytophotodermatitis
The patient’s history of sun exposure after exposure to limes points to a diagnosis of phytophotodermatitis. Phytophotodermatitis is an inflammatory skin eruption caused by a combination of contact with ultraviolet rays and light-sensitizing botanical substances. Examples of these botanicals include parsley, celery, carrots, Queen Anne’s lace, and lime.
When exposure to these plants is associated with exposure to ultraviolet rays, skin eruptions may occur. The skin eruption occurs approximately 24 hours after exposure and the eruption may be more severe when the skin is wet, sweating, and with heat at the time of exposure. With this condition, the skin may blister with burning erythema which progresses to peeling and, in some cases, permanent hyper- or hypopigmentation.
phytophotodermatitis treatment
Skin eruptions commonly occur in areas of the body exposed to plants and sunlight, such as the arms and legs. This condition is self-limited with the removal of the offending agent. Some drug agents may be used to relieve the discomfort and lessen the inflammatory response. These include topical corticosteroids and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The patient should be reassured that the condition is self-limited and should be instructed to use sunscreens which may prevent further phototoxic reactions.
Alcohol use during pregnancy
Alcohol use during pregnancy increases the risk of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome, which can cause intellectual disabilities and physical abnormalities.
Endometriosis during pregnancy
Endometriosis may increase the risk of miscarriage, preterm birth, and placental abnormalities. It is not known to increase the risk of aneuploidy.
Being of Ashkenazi Jewish descent in preganancy increases the risk of certain inherited genetic disorders
Being of Ashkenazi Jewish descent increases the risk of certain inherited genetic disorders such as Tay-Sachs and Cystic Fibrosis. Carrier screening is recommended for this population. It is not known to increase the risk of aneuploidy.
Aneuploidy
Aneuploidy occurs when there is an extra or missing chromosome. Most commonly, this is seen as an extra chromosome, referred to as trisomy. Down syndrome is the most common type of trisomy. It occurs when there is extra genetic material that affects chromosome 21. Down syndrome can cause a spectrum of intellectual disabilities and physical abnormalities. The biggest risk factor for Down syndrome is advanced maternal age. At 25 years old the risk of having a child with Down syndrome is 1 in 1200; at 35 years old the risk increases to 1 in 350. When a woman reaches 45 years old, the risk increases substantially to 1 in 30.
the most prevalent cause of blindness in adults.
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is the most prevalent cause of blindness in adults. It is a degenerative disease that affects the macula and results in central field vision loss. It may be present in one or both eyes and is classified as dry (atrophic) or wet (exudative) AMD.
The Amsler grid is?
a diagnostic tool that aids in the detection of visual disturbances caused by changes in the retina, such as macular degeneration.
outpatient therapy for acute uncomplicated diverticulitis?
Starting in 2021, antibiotics are no longer the cornerstone of outpatient therapy for acute uncomplicated diverticulitis; outpatient management includes pain control and a liquid or modified diet for 2-3 days until symptoms improve then advance diet as tolerated.
complicated diverticulitis
Antibiotics are still indicated for patients with complicated diverticulitis being managed in the inpatient setting. The selection of antibiotics in low-risk regions for community-acquired infections should generally provide coverage for streptococci, Enterobacteriaceae, and Escherichia coli
Phytoestrogens
Phytoestrogens are plant-based compounds that have a similar effect to estrogen in the body. Many types of phytoestrogens are found naturally in food. Examples of foods containing phytoestrogens include soy and soy products, soybeans and other types of beans, certain seeds (flaxseed, sesame seeds), some fruits, and whole grains. Because of how phytoestrogens imitate natural estrogen in the body, some theories suggest that it may decrease certain types of estrogen-dependent cancers, like breast cancer, as well as help reduce symptoms of hot flashes during menopause when estrogen levels are low.
The primary management of COPD
includes relaxation of the bronchioles, prevention of bronchoconstriction, decreased inflammation, and enhanced gas exchange. The stimulation of beta receptors in the lungs causes relaxation, therefore, beta-agonists are used. Examples of these include short-acting albuterol and long-acting salmeterol. Stimulation of muscarinic receptors in the lungs causes bronchoconstriction. Muscarinic antagonists, such as ipratropium which is short-acting, and tiotropium which is long-acting are used to decrease this bronchoconstriction. Inflammation of the lung tissue is another component of COPD. Inhaled corticosteroids such as fluticasone and budesonide are used to decrease the inflammatory process. These medications all improve symptoms of COPD, however, have not been shown to improve survival rates.
Of all the treatments available for COPD, what has been shown to improve survival rates?
When the SaO2 is < 89%, low O2 supplementation should be initiated. Of all the treatments available for COPD, only oxygen supplementation and stopping smoking has been shown to improve survival rates. When stopping cigarette smoking, although the lung function will never return to normal, the FEV1 decline stops, thereby improving survival rates.
beta blockers for chf
Beta-blockers reduce circulating catecholamines and prevent some of the damage caused by long-term exposure to these neurotransmitters. These effects can include cardiac remodeling, myocyte hypertrophy, increased heart rate, and increased demand for energy by the myocardium. Treatment with beta-blockers can help prevent these problems and reduce the morbidity and mortality of HFrEF.
Shoulder impingement syndrome
Shoulder impingement syndrome is a condition that causes pain and impaired mobility in the shoulder. Shoulder impingement is not an injury to a specific glenohumeral structure, but rather a spectrum of clinical findings. Impingement happens when a glenohumeral structure is compressed between the underside of the acromion, acromioclavicular joint, or coracoacromial arch, and the humeral head. The compressed structure may be part of the rotator cuff, subacromial bursa, or other soft tissues of the joint.
The Neer test
The Neer test (passive painful arc maneuver) is used to gauge the severity of the impingement based on the angle at which the arc elicits pain. The maneuver is conducted by the provider passively flexing the glenohumeral joint while preventing the shoulder from shrugging. Shoulder shrugging by the patient is guarding, which the provider should aim to prevent.
Bone mineral density testing
Bone mineral density testing is an important screening step, especially for older adult females. Identifying reduced bone density early can prevent complications such as fractures and slow progression to osteoporosis. One of the most common imaging options for bone density screening is the dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan. This imaging can provide the patient with a T-score to identify their level of bone density. A normal result is between +1 and -1, -1 to -2.5 is osteopenia, and -2.5 is osteoporosis.
management of osteopenia and osteoporosis
Lifestyle interventions are typically the first step in the management of osteopenia and osteoporosis, including dietary supplements, a healthy diet, exercise, and smoking cessation. Repeating DEXA scanning at appropriate intervals can identify further loss of bone density and the need for additional treatment such as medication implementation.
If normal Q 3-5 years
The diaphragm
The diaphragm is a nonhormonal contraception method that provides barrier protection. It is not as commonly used because of the development of newer contraceptive methods but is still available.
Good candidates for diaphragm
Good candidates for diaphragm use are those who cannot take hormonal contraception, such as older women, smokers, and those with other comorbid conditions. Diaphragms are usually not ideal for an adolescent because of reduced compliance rates and spontaneity reduction. The ideal candidate is an older woman who is willing to comply with the correct usage and who exhibits skill in proper placement. Education is important before diaphragm use because a diaphragm’s effective insertion and removal require some skill.
Fit of the diaphragm
The diaphragm should be refitted if one experiences a weight gain or loss of greater than 10 pounds. Proper fit is important for effective usage. Diaphragms should be inserted within an hour of sexual intercourse with spermicide, which may cause pH changes and increase urinary tract infection frequency and vaginal irritation.
vaginal ring releases
estrogen and progestin.
common side effect of metformin
GI discomfort is a common side effect, especially when starting the medication or after a dose change. Metformin may disturb vitamin B12 absorption in the GI tract. Patients with vitamin B12 deficiency often present with peripheral neuropathy, and a serum level should be drawn. The addition of a multivitamin and routine serum B12 monitoring is indicated for many patients taking metformin daily.
The most concerning adverse effect of metformin is
lactic acidosis. This condition is rare but has a high risk of fatality. Signs of lactic acidosis may include nausea, vomiting, changes in mental status, and hypotension.
long term use of metformin has been associated with ?
long term use of metformin has been associated with vitamin B12 deficiency and anemia.
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis A virus is an infection transmitted primarily through the fecal-oral route. It is often self-limiting and does not progress to a chronic infection. This infection is vaccine-preventable.
pneumonic IgG IgM
IgM= IMMediate “M’s” IgG= Gone “G’s”
IgG = Gone IgM = Miserable
During an acute HAV infection what about IgG and IgM?
During an acute HAV infection, IgM is elevated in the serum and detectable at the time of symptom onset. This antibody can be detected several months after recovery. IgM elevation without symptoms may be caused by an infection in the past, asymptomatic infection, or incorrect result. During the convalescent phase, IgG may be elevated and can persist in the serum for many years after infection. If the patient has IgG but not IgM, it may indicate past infection or immunity via vaccination. IgM is elevated in the serum and detectable at the time of symptom onset. This antibody can be detected several months after recovery. IgM elevation without symptoms may be caused by an infection in the past, asymptomatic infection, or incorrect result. During the convalescent phase, IgG may be elevated and can persist in the serum for many years after infection. If the patient has IgG but not IgM, it may indicate past infection or immunity via vaccination.
