HESI Practice Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse observes that a male client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first?

A

Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack.

Rationale: the first action taken by the nurse should be to assess the skin for any possible thermal injury. If no injury to the skin has occurred, the nurse can take the other actions as needed.

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2
Q

The nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 mL of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

A

124 gtt/ml

Rationale: Convert pounds to kg: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Determine the dosage for this client: 5 mcg x 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Determine how many mcg are contained in 1 ml: 250/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg per ml. The client is to receive 413.65 mcg/min, and there are 200 mcg/ml; so the client is to receive 2.07 ml per minute. With a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, then 60 × 2.07 = 124.28 gtt/min.

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3
Q

Which assessment data pro provides the most accurate determination of proper placement of a nasaogastric tube?

A

Examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tube was inserted.

Rationale: both A (aspirating gastric contents to assure a pH value of four or less) and B (hearing air pass in the stomach after injecting air into the tubing), are methods used to determine proper placement of the NG tubing. However, the answer above is the best indicator that the tubing is properly placed.

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4
Q

Three days, following surgery, a male client observes his colostomy for the first time. He becomes quite upset and tells the nurse that it is much bigger than he expected. What is the best response by the nurse?

A

Instruct the client that the stoma will appear smaller when the initial swelling diminishes.

Rationale: Postoperative swelling causes enlargement of the stoma. The nurse can teach the client that the stoma will become smaller when the swelling is diminished. This will help reduce the clients anxiety and promote acceptance of the colostomy.

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5
Q

A female client with a nasal gastric tub attached to low suction states that she is nauseated. The nurse assesses that there has been no drainage through the nasal gastric tube in the last two hours. What action should the nurse first take?

A

Reposition the client on her side

Rationale: the immediate priority is to determine if the tube is functioning correctly, which would then relieve the client’s nausea. The least invasive intervention (above) should be attempted first, followed by A (irrigate the nasogastric tube with sterile normal saline) and C (advance, the nasal gastric tube, and additional 5 cm), unless either of these interventions is contraindicated. If these measures are unsuccessful, the client may require an antiemetic.

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6
Q

A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric to feedings via a small-bore tubing and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago, but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take?

A

After clearing the tube with 30 mL of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube.

Rationale: coughing, vomiting, and suctioning and precipitate displacement of the tip of the small boar feeding tube upward into the esophagus, placing the client at increased risk for aspiration. Checking the sample of fluid withdrawn from the tube(after clearing the tube with 30 mL of air) acidic acid (stomach) or alkaline (intestine) values is a more sensitive method for these tubes, and the nurse should assess tube placement in this way prior to taking other actions.

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7
Q

A male client tells the nurse that he does not know where he is or what year it is. What data should the nurse document that is most accurate?

A

_________ is disoriented to type in place.

Rationale: the client is exhibiting disorientation.

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8
Q

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) select a scrambled egg for his breakfast. What action should the nurse take?

A

Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein.

Rationale: foods such as eggs and milk are high biologic proteins, which are allowed because they are complete proteins and supply the essential amino acids that are necessary for growth and cell repair.

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9
Q

When assisting an 82-year-old client ambulate, it is important for the nurse to realize that the center of gravity for an elderly person is the

A

Upper torso

Rationale: the center of gravity for adults is the hip. However, as a person grows older, a stooped posture is common because of the changes from osteoporosis and normal bone, degeneration, and the knees, hips, and elbows flex. This stooped posture results in the upper torso, becoming the center of gravity for older persons.

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10
Q

In developing a plan of care for a client with with dementia, the nurse should remember that confusion in the elderly

A

Often follows relocation to new surroundings.

Rationale: relocation often results and confusion among elderly client — moving is stressful for anyone.

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11
Q

A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client’s readiness to manage his wound care after discharge? The client.

A

Demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.

Rationale: a return demonstration of a procedure provides an objective assessment of the client’s ability to perform a task.

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12
Q

A client who is 5’,5” tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is the most important for the nurse to include during the preoperative assessment?

A

What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take?

Rationale: vitamin and mineral supplements, may impact medication use during the operative.

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13
Q

During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria, but reports that his urine appears dark Amber. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

A

Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water.

Rationale: Dark amber, urine is a characteristic of fluid volume deficit, and the client should be encouraged to increase fluid intake. Caffeine is a diuretic, and may worsen the fluid volume deficit.

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14
Q

Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for a male client who is experiencing urinary retention?

A

Assessed for bladder distention.

Rationale: Urinary retention is the inability to void. All urine collected in the bladder, which leads to uncomfortable bladder distention.

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15
Q

A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?

A

Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.

Rationale: all interventions should be implemented prior to administering blood, but this has the highest priority. Anytime blood is administered, the nurse should ensure the accuracy of the blood type match in order to prevent a possible hemolytic reaction.

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16
Q

A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he has to take three doses of medication each day. Since, at the time of discharge, timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

A

8 AM, 4 PM, and midnight.

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule, to provide the best bronco dilating effect, and reduce the potential for adverse effects.

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17
Q

When evaluating a client plan of care, the nurse determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action should the nurse implement first?

A

Note which actions were not implemented.

Rationale: First, the nurse should review which actions in the original plan were not implemented in order to determine why the original plan did not produce the desired outcome. Appropriate revisions can then be made, which may include revising the expected outcome, or identifying a new nursing diagnosis.

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18
Q

Which snack food is best for the nurse to provide a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutrition status?

A

Chocolate pudding

Rationale: The client with myasthenia gravis is at high risk for altered nutrition because of fatigue and muscle weakness, resulting in dysphagia. Snacks that are semi-solid, such as pudding, are easy to swallow and require minimal chewing, effort, and provide calories and protein.

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19
Q

The nurses instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and lifestyle modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

A

I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.

Rationale: Living saturated, fat from animal food sources to know more than 4 ounces per week is an important diet modification for low cholesterol. To be effective in reducing cholesterol, the client should exercise 30 minutes per per day, or at at least 4 to 6 times per week. Red meat and all proteins. Do not need to be eliminated to Laura cholesterol, but should be restricted to lien cuts of red meat and smaller portions (2-ounce servings).

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20
Q

An obese male client discusses with the nurses plans to begin a long-term weight loss regimen. In addition to dietary changes, he plans to begin an intensive aerobic exercise program 3 to 4 times a week, and to take stress management classes. After praising the client for his decision, which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide.

A

Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program.

Rationale: the most most important teaching is so that the client will not begin a dangerous level of exercise when he is not sufficiently fit. This might result in chest pain, a heart, attack, or stroke.

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21
Q

The nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. When should the client administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of of the inhaler?

A

During the inhalation.

Rationale: The client should be instructed to deliver the medication during the last part of inhalation. After the medication is delivered, the client should remove the mouthpiece, keeping his/her lips closed, and breath held for several seconds to allow for the distribution of the medication.

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22
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via essential line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take?

A

Infused 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr.

Rationale: TPN is discontinued gradually to allow the client to adjust to decrease the levels of glucose. Administering 10% dextrose in water at the prescribed rate will keep the client from experiencing hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution is available. The client could experience a hypoglycemic reaction if the current level of glucose is not maintained, or if the TPN is discontinued abruptly.

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23
Q

Examination of a client complaining of itching on his right arm reveals a rash made up of multiple flat areas of redness, ranging from pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter. How should the nurse record this finding?

A

Localized red rash comprised of flat areas, pinpoint to 0.5 cm in diameter.

Rationale: macules are localized flat skin discoloration less than 1 cm in diameter. However, when recording such a finding the nurse should describe the appearance rather than simply naming the condition.

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24
Q

At the time of the first dressing change, the client refuses to look at her mastectomy incision. The nurse tells the client that the incision is healing, well, but the client refuses to talk about it. What would an appropriate response to the client’s silence be?

A

“It is OK if you don’t want to talk about your surgery. I will be available when you are ready.”

Rationale: this display sensitivity and understanding without judging the client.

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25
Q

The nurse is evaluating a client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the nurse that the client understands the dietary restrictions?

A

Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream.

Rationale: Skim milk, turkey salad, bread, and ice cream, well, containing some sodium, are considered low-sodium foods.

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26
Q

An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for administration of the bolus tube feedings?

A

Fowler’s

Rationale: The client should be positioned in a semi-sitting (Fowler’s) position during feeding to decrease the occurrence of aspiration. A gastrostomy tube, known as a PEG tube, due to placement by a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy procedure, is inserted directly to the stomach through an incision in the abdomen for long-term, administration of nutrition and hydration in the debilitated client.

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27
Q

Which action is most important for the nurse to implement when donning sterile gloves?

A

Keep gloves, hands above the elbows.

Rationale: gloved hands held below waist level are considered un sterile.

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28
Q

The nurse is teaching a client with numerous allergies, how to avoid allergens. Which instructions should be included in this teaching plan?

A

Avoid any types of sprays, powders, and perfumes.

Rationale: The client with allergies should be instructed to reduce any exposure to pollen, dust, fumes, odors, sprays, powders, and perfumes. The client should be encouraged to wear a mask when working around duster pollen. Clients with allergies to avoid any clothing that causes itching; washing clothes will not prevent an allergic reaction to some fabrics. Pollen count is related to allergens, and the client should be instructed to stay indoors when the pollen count is high.

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29
Q

A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday, due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instructions should the nurse include in the clients teaching plan?

A

“Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.”

Rationale: Client affected hip joint falling a hemiarthroplasty (partial hip replacement) is at risk of dislocation for six months to year following the procedure. Hip precautions to prevent dislocation include placing a pillow between the knees to maintain abduction of the hips. (Clients should be instructed to avoid bending at the wrist, to seek assistance for both standing and walking until they are stable on a walker or cain, and to take pain medication 30 minutes prior to a PT session).

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30
Q

The nurse is performing nasaotracheal suctioning. After suctioning the client’s trachea for 15 seconds, large amounts of thick yellow secretions return. What’s action should the nurse implement next?

A

Re-oxygenate the client before attempting to section again.

Rationale: Sectioning should not be continued for longer than 10 to 15 seconds, since the client’s oxygenation is compromised during this time.

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31
Q

A client infusion of normal safely infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 mL of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm, pain and demanding stronger pain medication. What initial action is the most important for the nurse to take?

A

Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration.

Rationale: pain and diminished pulse volume are signs of compartment syndrome, which can progress to complete loss of the peripheral pulse in the extremity. Compartment syndrome occurs when external pressure (usually from a cast), or internal pressure (usually from subcutaneous infused fluid), exceeds capillary perfusion pressure resulting in decreased blood flow to extremity.

32
Q

The nurse assigned a UAP to obtain vital signs from a very anxious client. What instructions should the nurse give the UAP?

A

Report the results of the vital signs to the nurse.

Rationale: interpretation of vital sciences, the responsibility of the nurse, the UAP should report vital sign measurements to the nurse. (Other options require the UAP to interpret the vital science, which is beyond the scope of the UAP’s authority).

33
Q

20 minutes after beginning a heat application, the client states that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the nurse?

A

“The body’s receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat.”

Rationale: this describes thermal adaptation, which occurs 20 to 30 minutes after heat application.

34
Q

When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first?

A

Loosen the right wrist restraint.

Rationale: The priority, nursing action is to restore circulation by loosening the restraint, because blue fingers (cyanosis) indicates decreased circulation.

35
Q

An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring cell and fractured hip. Which nurse is at the greatest risk for malpractice judgment?

A

The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.

Rationale: The four elements of malpractice are: breach of duty, ode, failure to here to the recognized, standard of care, direct causation of injury, and evidence of actual injury. The hip fracture is the actual injury, and the standard of care was “frequent monitoring.“

36
Q

The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client’s blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the usual range. What action is most important for the nurse implement?

A

Reassess the clients blood pressure using a larger cuff.

Rationale: The most important action is to ensure that an accurate blood pressure reading is obtained. The nurse should reassess the blood pressure with the correct size cuff. Reassessment should not be postponed.

37
Q

An elderly client with a fractured left hip is on strict bedrest. Which nursing measure is essential to the client’s nursing care?

A

Gently lift the client when moving into a desired position.

Rationale: to avoid sharing forces when repositioning, the client should be lifted gently across the surface.

38
Q

The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?

A

Move the chair, parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.

Rationale: This uses the client’s stronger side, the right side, for weight-bearing during the transfer, and is the safest approach to take.

39
Q

An elderly resident of a long-term care facility is no longer able to perform self-care and is becoming progressively weaker. The resident previously requested that no resuscitative efforts be performed, and the family request. Hospice care. What action should the nurse implement first?

A

Notify the healthcare provider of the family’s request.

Rationale: The nurse should first communicate with the healthcare provider. Hospice care is provided for clients with a limited life expectancy, which must be identified by the healthcare provider. Once the healthcare provider supports the transfer to hospice care, the nurse can collaborate with the hospice staff and healthcare provider to determine what to do next.

40
Q

After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, which action should the nurse perform next?

A

Determine the etiology of the problem.

Rationale: Before planning care, the nurse should determine the etiology, or cause, of the problem, because this will help determine what to do next.

41
Q

What is the most important reason for starting intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?

A

A decreased flow rate could result in the form of a thrombosis.

Rationale: Venus return is usually better in the upper extremities. Cannulation of the veins in the lower extremities increases the risk of thrombus formation, which, if the lodged, could be life-threatening.

42
Q

The nurses administering medication’s through nasaogastric tube (NGT) which is connected to section. After ensuring correct to placement, what action should the nurse take next?

A

Flush the tube with water.

Rationale: the NGT should be flushed before, after, and in between each medication administration. Once all medication’s are administered, the NGT should be clamped for 20 minutes.

43
Q

A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administrated. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

A

Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Rationale: to ensure that a therapeutic level of medication is maintained, the nurse administer the misos as soon as possible, and revise the administration schedule accordingly to prevent dangerously increasing the level of the medication in the bloodstream. The nurse should document the reason for the late dose.

44
Q

Well instructing a male client’s wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the nurse implement?

A

Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly.

Rationale: the wife is performing the passive ROM correctly, therefore, the nurse should acknowledge this fact. The joint that is being exercised should be uncovered, while the rest of the body should remain covered for warmth and privacy.

45
Q

An adult male client with a history of hypertension, tells the nurse that he is tired of taking anti-hypertensive medication’s and is going to try spiritual meditation instead. What should the nurse’s first response be?

A

“ it is important that you continue your medication while learning to meditate.”

Rationale: The prolonged practice of meditation may lead to a reduced need for anti-hypertensive medication. However, the medication must be continued while the physiological response to medication is monitored.

46
Q

The nurses assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein?

A

A lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant.

Rationale: a lactating woman has the greatest need for additional protein intake.

47
Q

A client who is a Jehovah’s Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the nurse have before putting care in terms of the client’s beliefs?

A

Blood transfusions are forbidden.

Rationale: blood transfusions are forbidden in the Jehovah’s Witness religion.

(Judaism prohibits autopsy of the body. Buddhism forbids the use of alcohol and drugs. Many of these sects are vegetarian, but the direct impact on nursing care is B).

48
Q

When conducting an admission assessment, the nurse should ask the client about the use of complementary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices?

A

Many complementary healing practices can be used into conjunction with conventional practices.

Rationale: Conventional approaches to healthcare can be depersonalizing and often failed to take into consideration all aspects of an individual, including body, mind, and spirit. Often complementary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional medical practices, rather than interfering with conventional practices, causing adverse effects, or replacing conventional medical care.

49
Q

A client who is in hospice care complaints of increasing amount amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes analgesic every four hours is needed. Which action should the nurse implement?

A

Give an around-the-clock schedule for the administration of analgesics.

Rationale: The most effective management of pain is achieved, using an around-the-clock schedule that provides analgesic medication on a regular basis, and in a timely manner. Analgesics are less effective if pain persists until it is severe, so an analgesic medication should be administered before the clients pain peaks. Providing comfort is a priority for the client who is dying.

50
Q

A client with pneumonia hasn’t decreased an oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

A

Assist the ambulating client back to bed.

Rationale: an oxygen saturation below 90% indicates inadequate oxygenation. First, the client should be assisted to return to bed to minimize oxygen demands. Ambulation increases aeration of the lungs to prevent pooling of respiratory secretions, but the client activity at the time is depleting oxygen saturation of the blood.

51
Q

A female client asks the nurse to find someone who can can translate into her native language. Her concerns about a treatment. Which action should the nurse take?

A

Request and document the name of a certified translator.

Rationale: a certified translator should be requested to ensure the exchange information is reliable and unaltered. To adhere to legal requirements in some states, the name of the translator should be documented.

52
Q

The nurse notices that the mother of a 9-year-old Vietnamese child always looks at the fore when she talks to the nurse. What action should the nurse take?

A

Continue asking the other questions about the child.

Rationale: Eye contact is a culturally-influenced form of non-verbal communication. And some non-western cultures, such as the Vietnamese culture, client or family member may avoid eye contact as a form of respect, so the nurse should continue to ask the mother questions about the child.

53
Q

The nurse notices that the Hispanic parents of a toddler who heard from surgery, offered child only the broth that comes on the clear liquid tray. Other liquids, including gelatin, popsicles, and juices, remain and touched. What explanation is most appropriate for this behavior?

A

“Hot“ remedies, restore, balance, after surgery, which is considered a “cold“ condition.

Rationale: common parental practices and health belief among Hispanic, Chinese, Filipino, common Arab cultures, classified diseases, areas of the body, and illnesses as “hot “or “cold “and must be balanced to maintain health and prevent illness. The perception that surgery is an “cold “condition implies that “hot “remedies, such as soup, should be used to restore the healthy balance within the body.

(“Chi” is a Chinese belief that an energy enters and leaves the body via certain locations and pathways and maintains health. The “evil eye,” or “map ojo,” is believed by many cultures to be related to the balance of health and illness, but is unrelated to dietary practice).

54
Q

Which nutritional assessment data should the nurse collect to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent?

A

Upper arms circumference

Rationale: upper arm circumference is an indirect measure of muscle mass.

55
Q

A client is receiving a cephalosporin, antibiotic, IV and complaints of pain and irritation at the infusion site. The nurse, observes, erythema, swelling, and a red streak along the vessel above the IV site. Which action should the nurse take at this time?

A

Initiate an alternative site for the IV infusion of the medication.

Rationale: a cephalosporin antibiotic that is administered ivy may cause vessel irritation. Rotating the infusion site minimizes the risk of the thrombophlebitis, so an alternate infusion site should be initiated before administering the next dose.

56
Q

On admission, a client presents assigned living will the indicates a do not resuscitate (DNR) prescription. When the client stops breathing, the nurse performs cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and successfully revives the client. What legal issues could be brought against the nurse?

A

Battery

Rationale: civil law protects, individual rights and includes intentional torts, such as assault (unintentional threat to engage in harmful contact with another) or battery (unwanted touching). Performing any procedure against the clients wishes can potentially poise, a legal issue, such as battery, even if the procedure is of questionable benefit to the client.

57
Q

I resident in a skilled nursing facility for short-term rehabilitation after hip replacement, tells the nurse, “I don’t want any more blood taken for those useless tests.” Which narrative documentation should the nurse enter in the clients medical record?

A

Healthcare provider, notified of clients refusal to have blood specimens collected for testing.

Rationale: when a client refuses a treatment, the exact exact words of the client regarding the clients refusal of care should be documented in an narrative format.

58
Q

At the beginning of the shift, the nurse assesses a client who has admitted from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). When should the nurse document the client’s findings?

A

Immediately after the assessments are completed.

Documentation should occur immediately after any component of the nursing process, so assessments should be entered in the client’s medical record as readily as findings are obtained.

59
Q

Which response by client with a nurse diagnosis of “spiritual distress” indicates to the nurse that the desired outcome measure has been met?

A

Accepts that punishment from God is not related to illness.

Rationale: acceptance that she is not being punished by God, indicates the desired outcome for some degree of resolution of spiritual distress.

60
Q

During shift change report, the nurse receives report that a client has abnormal heart sounds. Which placement of the stethoscope of the nurse used to hear the client’s heart sounds?

A

Use the stethoscope bell over the valvular areas of the anterior chest.

Rationale: abnormal heart sounds, are best heard with the be of the stethoscope, which picks up, lower-pitched sounds, that is placed at points on the interior chest.

61
Q

A nurse is preparing to give medication through an nasogastric feeding tube. Which nursing action should prevent complications during administration?

A

Mix each medication individually.

Rationale: medication should be mixed separately to prevent clumping.

62
Q

During the Administration interview, which technique is the most efficient for the nurse to use when obtaining information about science and symptoms of a client’s primary health problem?

A

Close-ended questions.

Rationale: lay descriptors of health problems can be vague and nonspecific. To efficiently, obtain specific information, the nurse should use closed-and did that focus on common signs and symptoms about a client health problem.

63
Q

The nurse witnesses the signature of a client who has signed an informed consent. Which statement best explains this nursing responsibility?

A

The client voluntarily signed the form.

Rationale: the nurse signs the consent form to witness that the client voluntarily signs the consent, that the client’s signature is authentic, and that the client is otherwise competent to give consent.

64
Q

An older client who is a resident in a long-term care facility has been bedridden for a week. Which findings should the nurse identify as a client risk factor for pressure ulcers?

A

Rash is in the auxiliary, groin, and skinfold regions.

Rationale: inability, constant, contact with bed, clothing, and excessive heat and moisture in areas where airflow is limited contributes to bacterial and fungal growth, which increases the risk for rashes, skin breakdown, and the development of pressure ulcers.

65
Q

During a visit to the outpatient clinic, the nurse assesses a client with severe osteoarthritis using a goniometer. Which findings should the nurse expect to measure?

A

Degree of flexion and extension of the client’s knee joint.

Rationale: the goniometer is a two-piece ruler that is joined in the middle with a projector-type measuring device that is placed over a joint as the individual extensor flexes the joint to measure the degrees of flexion extension of the protractor.

66
Q

The nurse is completing a mental assessment for a client who is demonstrating slow, thought processes, personality, changes, and emotional liability. Which area of the brain controls these neurocognitive functions?

A

The frontal lobe.

Rationale: the frontal lobe of the three room controls, mental activities, such as memory, intellect, language, emotions, and personality.

(The parietal lobe is location of sensory and motor functions. The hypothalamus, regulates, body temperature, appetite, maintains awful state, and links higher centers with the autonomic, nervous and endocrine systems, such as the pituitary. Thalamus is a relay center in the brain that direct impulses to the cerebral cortex).

67
Q

An unlicensed assistive personnel places a client in the left lateral position prior to administering a soaped enema. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

A

Reposition client in a Sim’s position with a client’s weight on the anterior ilium.

Rationale: the left sided Sim’s position allows the enema solution to follow the anatomical course of the intestines and allows the best overall results, the UAP should reposition the clients in the Sim’s position, which distributes client clients weight to the anterior ilium.

68
Q

A young mother of three children complaints of increasing anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the nurse obtain first?

A

Nutritional history.

Rationale: caffeine, sugars, alcohol can lead to increase level levels of anxiety, so a nutritional history should be attained first, so that health teaching can be initiated if indicated.

69
Q

A client who has been NPO for 3 days is receiving an infusion of D5W 0.45 normal saline (NS) with potassium chloride (KCL) 20 mEq at 83 ml/hr. The client’s eight-hour urine output is 400 mL, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is 15 mg/dL, lungs are clear bilaterally, serum glucose is 120 mg/dL, and the serum potassium is 3.7 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

A

Document in the medical record that these normal findings are expected outcomes.

Rationale: the results are all within normal range.

70
Q

Secobarbital (Seconal) 150 mg is prescribed at bedtime for a male client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The scored tablets are labeled 0.1 g per tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

A

1.5

71
Q

What action should the nurse implement when accessing an implanted infusion port for a client who receives long-term IV medications?

A

Insert a Huber-point needle into the port.

Rationale: unplanted infusion, port, needs to be accessed using a Huber-point needle (non-coring) to prevent damage to the self-sealing septum of the port.

72
Q

During the daily nursing assessment, client begins to cry and states that the majority of family and friends have stopped calling and visiting. What action should the nurse take?

A

Listen and show interest is the client expresses these feelings.

Rationale: when a client begins to cry and express feelings, therapeutic nursing and intervention is to listen and show interest as the client expresses feelings.

73
Q

The nurse plans to obtain health assessment information from a primary source. Which option is a primary source for the completion of the health assessment?

A

Client

Rationale: a primary source of information for a health assessment is the client.

74
Q

The nurse is using a genogram while conducting a client’s health assessment and past medical history. What information should the genogram provide?

A

Genetic and familial health disorders.

Rationale: a diagram that is used during the health assessment process identifies genetic and familial health disorders. It may not identify the clients chronic health problems, so it is not a reason to seek healthcare. A genogram is not a diagnostic tool to detect disorders, such as those based on pathological findings or DNA.

75
Q

124 gtt/min
83 gtt/min
63 ml/hr
180
21

A