Hereditary Disorders + Molecular Diagnosis of Genetic Disorders (P) Flashcards

1
Q

During cell division, what is the form of chromosome?

A

The chromosome during cell division is in its condensed form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is DNA?

A

It is a NA in the form of a double-stranded helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Each strand of DNA is composed of 4 types of what?

A

Nitrogen bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the nitrogen bases that composes each strand of DNA?

A

1) Adenine
2) Guanine
3) Cytosine
4) Thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most energetically favorable state of DNA?

A

The double stranded helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The double stranded helix of DNA is so stable, what are the factors that can lose its conformation?

A

1) Extreme heat
2) Extreme pH
3) By use of destabilizing agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is RNA?

A

It is a NA that has 3 types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 types of RNA?

A

1) Messenger RNA (mRNA)
2) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
3) Transfer RNA (tRNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is mRNA?

A

It is the transcribed copy of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where is rRNA found?

A

It is found in the ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of rRNA?

A

It is involved in the translation of mRNA to protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of tRNA?

A

It carries AAs to ribosome for translation of mRNA to protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In terms of characteristic, what is the comparison bet DNA and RNA?

A

RNA is less stable than DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the reasons why RNA is less stable than DNA?

A

1) Because it is single stranded

2) The hydroxyl grp (-OH) predisposes susceptibility from alkaline hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does DNA contain?

A

It contains our genetic info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the process (or steps) from DNA to proteins?

A

1) DNA is transcribed to RNA

2) Then translated to proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the purpose of reverse transcriptase?

A

It allows reverse transcription of DNA from RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False

Some viruses have reverse transcriptase

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the percentage of the human genome that encodes proteins?

A

< 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the amt of genes that code for proteins?

A

20,000 - 25,000 genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In connection to DNA discovery (or developments w/ regards to DNA), what happened during the ff timelines:

1) 1953
2) 1975
3) 1985
4) 1987

A

1) Double-stranded DNA
- > beginning of molecular medicine
2) DNA can be sequenced
- > “Book of Life” (human genome) can be read base by base
3) DNA can be amplified w/ PCR
- > DNA diagnostics - unlimited potential
4) Automated DNA sequencing becomes available
- > Critical development for Human Genome Project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In connection w/ Human Genome Project, what happened during the ff timelines:

1) 1990
2) 1991
3) 1995
4) 1996

A

1) Human Genome Project starts, and first successful gene therapy
- > Modern molecular medicine era
2) Controversy - NIH pts anonymous DNA sequences
- > Commercialization increasingly prominent
3) DNA sequence for 1st model organism (H. influenzae) published
- > Success w/ model organisms fuels enthusiasm for completing human genome
4) NIH policy that human genome sequences are freely available
- > 2 models: public (free) & commercial (user pay)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In connection w/ omics, what happened during the ff timelines:

1) 2000
2) 2003
3) 2007
4) 2010

A

1) 1st draft of human genome sequence publicly announced
- > complete sequences for fruit fly and a plant are published
2) Annotated final version of human genome sequence are now available
- > beginning of genomics era
3) 1st diploid human genome published
- > beginning of next generation DNA sequencing
4) Alternative fuels & artificial bacterium
- > synthetic biology on the march

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 2 most common forms of DNA variations in the human genome?

A

1) Single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)

2) Copy number variations (CNVs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the purpose of SNPs?
They represent variation at single nucleotide positions
26
What are CNVs?
These are form of genetic variation consisting of diff #s of large contiguous stretches of DNA
27
Approx 50% of CNVs are involve in what?
Gene-coding sequences
28
Since approx 50% of CNVs involve gene-coding sequences, what is the result of this?
CNVs may underlie a large portion of human phenotypic diversity
29
What are the characteristics of SNPs?
1) Disease-causing mutations 2) Susceptibility variants 3) Disease modifiers 4) Determinants of response to therapy 5) Neutral variants
30
How many SNPs are present across humankind?
30M
31
How many SNPs are present bet any 2 people?
3M
32
What is epigenetics?
It is defined as heritable changes in gene expression that are not caused by alterations in DNA sequence
33
What is proteomics?
It concerns itself w/ the measurement of all proteins expressed in a cell or tissue
34
What is bioinformatics?
It is computer-based techniques that can manage vast collections of data
35
*What is the function of microRNA and gene silencing?
*Modulate the translation of target mRNAs into their corresponding proteins
36
Who discovered microRNA?
Andrew Fire and Craig Mello
37
What is the award of Andrew Fire and Craig Mello?
Nobel prize in Physiology and Medicine
38
When did Andrew Fire and Craig Mello received their prize?
2006
39
True or False A large # of genes do not encode proteins but rather functions in gene regulation
True
40
*What is the function of the most recently discovered genes?
Code for microRNA
41
What is the characteristic (in terms of structure) of microRNA?
It is 21 - 30 nucleotides long
42
What is the function of microRNA?
It do not code for protein but it inhibits gene expression
43
What are hereditary disorders?
These are derived from one's parents and are transmitted in the germ line through the generations therefore are familial
44
What does congenital imply?
It simply implies "born with"
45
True or False Genetic disorders are far more common than is widely appreciated
True
46
What is the estimated frequency of genetic diseases?
670 per 1,000
47
50% of spontaneous abortuses during the early mos of gestation have a what?
Demonstrable chromosomal abnormality
48
What are mutations?
These are defined as a permanent change in the DNA
49
What are the characteristics of mutations?
1) In germ cells, these are transmitted to the progeny 2) In somatic cells, these do not cause hereditary diseases but are important in the genetics of cancers and some congenital malformations
50
Since in the germ cells, mutations are transmitted to the progeny, hence, mutations can give rise to what?
Inherited diseases
51
Mutations can result in what?
In partial or complete deletion of a gene or, more often, affect a single base
52
What are the diff types of mutations?
1) Point mutations within coding sequences 2) Mutations within noncoding sequences 3) Deletions and insertions 4) Trinucleotide-repeat mutations
53
What are the diff types of point mutations within coding sequences?
1) Missense mutations | 2) Nonsense mutations
54
What are the diff types of missense mutations?
1) Concervative missense mutations | 2) Nonconcervative missense mutations
55
Both deletions and insertions can cause what?
Occurrence of frameshift mutations
56
What is the characteristic of trinucleotide-repeat mutations?
These mutations are characterized by amplification of a sequence of 3 nucleotides
57
What are the categories of genetic disorders?
1) Disorders related to mutations in single gene w/ large effects 2) Chromosomal disorders 3) Complex multigenic disorders (polymorphisms)
58
Mutations and their associated disorders are what?
Highly penetrant
59
In connection to disorders w/c are related to mutations in single gene, diseases are caused by what?
Single gene mutations
60
*What is the pattern of inheritance that diseases caused by single gene mutations follow?
The classic Mendelian pattern of inheritance = Mendelian disorders
61
What are the diff transmission patterns of Mendelian disorders?
1) Autosomal dominant 2) Autosomal recessive 3) X-linked disorders
62
What are the autosomal dominant disorders that are present in the nervous system?
1) Huntington disease 2) Neurofibromatosis 3) Myotonic dystrophy 4) Tuberous sclerosis
63
What is the autosomal dominant disorder present in the urinary system?
Polycystic kidney disease
64
*What is the autosomal dominant disorder present in the gastrointestinal system?
Familial polyposis coli
65
What are the autosomal dominant disorders present in the hematopoietic system?
1) Hereditary spherocytosis | 2) von Willebrand disease
66
What are the autosomal dominant disorders present in the skeletal system?
1) Marfan syndrome 2) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (some variants) 3) Osteogenesis imperfecta 4) Achondroplasia
67
*What are the autosomal dominant disorders present in the metabolic system?
1) Familial hypercholesterolemia | 2) Acute intermittent porphyria
68
*What are the autosomal recessive disorders present in the metabolic system?
1) Cystic fibrosis 2) Phenylketonuria 3) Galactosemia 4) Homocystinuria 5) Lysosomal storage diseases 6) Alpha(sign)1-Antitrypsin deficiency 7) Wilson disease 8) Hemochromatosis 9) Glycogen storage diseases
69
What are the autosomal recessive disorders present in the hematopoietic system?
1) Sickle cell anemia | 2) Thalassemias
70
What is the autosomal recessive disorder present in the endocrine system?
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
71
What are the autosomal recessive disorders present in the skeletal system?
1) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (some variants) | 2) Alkaptonuria
72
What are the autosomal recessive disorders present in the nervous system?
1) Neurogenic muscular atrophies 2) Friedreich ataxia 3) Spinal muscular atrophy
73
What is the X-linked recessive disorder present in the musculoskeletal system?
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
74
What are the X-linked recessive disorders present in the blood system?
1) Hemophilia A and B 2) Chronic granulomatous disease 3) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
75
What are the X-linked recessive disorders present in the immune system?
1) Agammaglobulinemia | 2) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
76
What are the X-linked recessive disorders present in the metabolic system?
1) Diabetes insipidus | 2) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
77
What is the X-linked recessive disorder present in the nervous system?
Fragile-X syndrome
78
What are the categories of Mendelian disorders based on pathogenesis?
1) Enzyme defects 2) Defects in membrane receptors 3) Alterations in structure, function, or quantity of non-enzyme proteins 4) Mutations resulting in unusual rxns to drugs
79
*slide 31: not complete
80
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Enzyme
(all *) 1) Phenylalanine hydroxylase 2) Splice-site mutation: reduced amount 3) Phenylketonuria 1) Hexosaminidase 2) Splice-site mutation or frameshift mutation w/ stop codon: reduced amt 3) Tay-Sachs disease 1) Adenosine deaminase 2) Point mutations: abnormal protein w/ reduced act 3) Severe combined immunodeficiency
81
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Enzyme inhibitor
1) Alpha(sign)1- Antitrypsin 2) Missense mutations: impaired section from liver to serum 3) Emphysema and liver disease
82
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Receptor
1) Low-density lipoprotein receptor 2) Deletions, point mutations: reduction of synthesis, transport to cell surface, or binding to low-density lipoprotein 3) Familial hypercholesterolemia
83
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Transport
1) NA 2) NA 3) NA
84
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Oxygen
1) Hemoglobin 2) Deletions: reduced amt 3) Alpha(sign)-Thalassemia
85
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Oxygen
1) NA 2) Defective mRNA processing: reduced amt 3) Beta(sign)-Thalassemia
86
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Oxygen
1) NA 2) Point mutations: abnormal structure 3) Sickle cell anemia
87
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Ions
1) Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator 2) Deletions and other mutations: nonfunctional or misfolded proteins 3) Cystic fibrosis
88
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Structural
1) NA 2) NA 3) NA
89
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Extracellular
1) Collagen 2) Deletions or point mutations cause reduced amt of normal collagen or normal amts of defective collagen 3) Osteogenesis imperfecta: Ehlers-Danlos syndromes
90
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Extracellular
1) Fibrillin 2) Missense mutations 3) Marfan syndrome
91
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Cell membrane
1) Dystrophin 2) Deletion w/ reduced synthesis 3) Duchenne / Becker muscular dystrophy
92
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Cell membrane
1) Spectrin, ankyrin, or protein 4.1 2) Heterogenous 3) Hereditary spherocytosis
93
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Hemostasis
1) Factor VIII 2) Deletions, insertions, nonsense mutations, and others: reduced synthesis or abnormal factor VIII 3) Hemophilia A
94
Answer the ff regarding the given protein type / function: * 1) What is / are the ex/s * 2) What is / are the molecular lesions * 3) What is / are the disease/s Given protein type / function: Growth regulation
1) Rb protein 2) Deletions 3) Hereditary retinoblastoma
95
What is the principle and connection bet somatic cells, autosomes, and chromosomes in an individual?
Human somatic cells contain 46 chromosomes, comprise 22 homologous pairs of autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes, XX in the female and XY in the male
96
What is karyotyping?
It is the study of chromosomes
97
What is the characteristic of karyotyping?
It is the basic tool of the cytogeneticist
98
What are the components of short notation for karyotypes?
1) Total # of chromosomes 2) Sex chromosome complement 3) Description of abnormality
99
What is the short notation (in terms of karyotypes) of male w/ trisomy 21?
47, XY, +21
100
What are the causes of occurrence of cytogenetic disorders?
1) Due to an abnormal # of chromosomes | 2) Due to alterations in the structure of 1 or more chromosomes
101
What is the normal # of chromosomes?
46, XX or 46, XY
102
What is euploid?
It is the exact multiple of a haploid
103
What is aneuploidy?
It not a multiple of 23
104
What are the exs of cytogenetic disorders?
1) Monosomies | 2) Trisomies
105
What are the diff types of alterations in the structure of 1 or more chromosomes?
1) Deletions 2) Ring chromosome 3) Inversion 4) Isochromosome 5) Translocation
106
What are the causes of complex multigenic disorders?
1) Interaction bet variant forms of genes and environmental factors 2) Environmental influences modify the phenotypic expression of complex traits
107
What is polymorphism?
It is a genetic variant that has at least 2 alleles
108
What is the percentage of population where polymorphisms occur?
These occurs in at least 1% of the population
109
True or False DNA-based analysis has become the least powerful tool for the dx of human disease
False, because DNA-based analysis has become a powerful tool for the dx of human disease
110
Due to the principle of molecular dx of genetic disorders, what are the actions that can be done (benefits)?
1) It is now possible to identify mutations at the DNA lvl and offer diagnostic tests for an increasing # of genetic disorders 2) Molecular tools have become extremely important in discovery of the genetic basis of common complex disorders such as DM, atherosclerosis, and cancer
111
What are the advantages of molecular dx of inherited diseases at the NA lvl?
1) Molecular assays are remarkably sensitive | 2) DNA-based tests are not dependent on a gene product that may be produced only in certain specialized cells
112
Provide an ex w/ regards to the concept of molecular assays being remarkably sensitive
The use of PCR allows several million-fold amplification of DNA or RNA, making it possible to use as few as 1 or 100 cells for analysis. 0.1 uL of blood or cells scraped from buccal mucosa can supply sufficient DNA for PCR amplification
113
Provide an ex w/ regards to the concept of DNA-based tests being not dependent on a gene product that may be produced only in certain specialized cells
(E.g. brain) or expression of a gene that may occur late in life. Because the defective gene responsible for inherited genetic disorders is present in germ line sxs, every postzygotic cell carries the mutation
114
What are the situations where pt may request prenatal genetic analysis?
1) A mother of advanced age (35 yrs >) because of greater risk of trisomies 2) A parent who is a carrier of a balanced reciprocal translocation, robertsonian translocation, or inversion (in these cases the gametes may be unbalanced, and hence the progeny would be at risk for chromosomal disorders) 3) A parent w/ a previous child w/ a chromosomal abnormality 4) A fetus w/ ultrasound-detected abnormalities 5) A parent who is a carrier of an X-linked genetic disorder (to determine fetal sex) 6) Abnormal lvls of AFP, beta(sign)HCG, and estriol performed as the triple test
115
What are the situations where the pt may request postnatal genetic analysis?
1) Multiple congenital anomalies 2) Unexplained mental retardation and/or developmental delay 3) Suspected aneuploidy (e.g. features of Down syndrome) 4) Suspected unbalanced autosome (e.g. Prader-Willi syndrome) 5) Suspected sex chromosomal abnormality (e.g. Turner syndrome) 6) Suspected fragile-X syndrome 7) Infertility (to rule out sex chromosomal abnormality) 8) Multiple spontaneous abortions (to rule out the parents as carriers of balanced translocation; both partners should be evaluated)
116
*What are the indications for analysis of germ line genetic alterations (in connection w/ identifying sp molecular genetic signatures for acquired diseases)?
1) Dx and management of cancer | 2) Dx and management of infectious disease
117
What are the mechanisms that are related w/ dx and management of cancer?
1) Detection of tumor-specific acquired mutations and cytogenetic alterations 2) Determination of clonality as an indicator of a neoplastic (e.g. nonreactive) condition 3) Identification of sp genetic alterations that can direct therapeutic choices (e.g. HER2 / Neu in breast cancer or EGFR mutations in lung cancer) 4) Determination of treatment efficacy (e.g. minimal residual disease detection of BCR-ABL1 by PCR in CML) 5) Detection of Gleevec-resistant forms of CML and gastrointestinal stromal tumors
118
What are the hallmarks of sp tumors?
*Cytogenetic alterations
119
Provide an ex of hallmark of sp tumors
BCR-ABL1 in chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
120
What is the official name of HER2 / Neu?
ERBB2
121
What are the mechanisms that are related w/ dx and management of infectious disease?
1) Detection of microorganism-specific genetic mat for definitive dx (e.g. HIV, mycobacteria, HPV, herpes virus in CNS) 2) Identification of sp genetic alterations in the genomes of microbes that are associated w/ drug resistance 3) Determination of treatment efficacy (e.g. assessment of viral loads in HIV and hepatitis C virus infection)
122
True or False Though DNA replication is conceptually simple, the process is also simple and involves a # of accessory proteins and enzymes
False, because though DNA replication is conceptually simple, the process is complex and involves a # of accessory proteins and enzymes
123
What are the components that can unwind the DNA?
1) Extreme heat 2) Hydrogen bond disrupters 3) pH outside 4 - 9
124
What is often used to unwind DNA?
Temp
125
What is melting?
It is the process of unwinding DNA via the use of temp
126
What is melting point?
It is the temp at w/c 50% of dsDNA is converted into single stranded DNA
127
The melting point depends on the amt of what?
Adenine-to-thymine (AT) pair vs the cytosine-to-guanine (CG) pair in the DNA strand
128
What is the comparison bet AT pair and CG pair?
The AT pair has a weaker bond compared to the CG pair
129
Since the AT pair has a weaker bond compared to the CG pair, more CG pairs means what?
Higher melting point
130
What is the function of thermocycler?
It is an equipment that raises and lowers the temp of the sx in cycles w/c is very important in the process of unwinding the DNA
131
What are the 3 main steps of PCR?
1) Denaturation 2) Annealing 3) Extension
132
What is denaturation?
It is the unwinding of strands through heat
133
What is annealing?
It is the attachment of primer to the target segment through a cooler temp
134
What is extension?
It is the addition of nucleotides to the primer w/ a warm temp
135
What are the time durations w/ corresponding temp used for each step in PCR?
1) Denaturation: 1 min at 94 DC 2) Annealing: 45 secs at 54 DC - > forward and reverse primers are used 3) Extension: 2 mins at 72 DC - > only deoxynucleotide triphosphates (dNTPs) are used
136
*What are the indirect methods that can be utilized for the detection of DNA mutations?
1) Via the use of restriction enzymes 2) Via the use of fluorescently-labeled nucleotides 3) PCR analysis for short gene segments 4) Via the use of southern blot w/c is used for mutations involving large segments of genetic mat
137
*What are the molecular methods that can be used for the molecular analysis of genomic alterations?
1) Southern Blotting 2) FISH 3) Array-based Comparative Genomic Hybridization (Array CGH)
138
What is sickle cell anemia?
It is an inherited RBC disorder
139
What is the principle of sickle cell anemia?
Normal RBCs are round like doughnuts, and they move through small blood tubes in the body to deliver O2. If these normal RBCs become sickle, these become hard, sticky, and shaped like sickles used to cut wheat. When these hard and pointed RCs go through the small blood tube, they clog the flow and break apart. This can cause pain, damage, and a low blood ct, or anemia
140
What is the characteristic of sickle cell anemia?
It is a common hereditary hemoglobinopathy that occurs primarily in individuals of African descent
141
What is the cause of sickle cell disease (or sickle cell anemia)?
It is caused by a point mutation in the 6th codon of beta(sign)-globin that leads to the replacement of a glutamate residue w/ a valine residue
142
What is the change that is the cause of sickle cell anemia?
The abnormal physiochemical properties of the resulting sickle hgb (HbS)
143
What are the major pathologic manifestations that underlies the presence of HbS?
1) Chronic hemolysis 2) Microvascular occlusions 3) Tissue damage
144
In connection to dx, what are the lab findings that are present in CBC and PBS if a pt has sickle cell anemia ?
1) Irreversible sickled cell 2) Reticulocytosis 3) Target-cells 4) Howel-jolly bodies
145
In connection to dx, what are the other lab findings that are present if a pt has sickle cell anemia?
1) Bone marrow hyperplasia 2) Bone marrow resorption leads to new bone formation 3) Hyperbilirubinemia / pigmented gallstones formation
146
In connection to dx, what are the lab findings that are present in hgb electrophoresis if a pt has sickle cell anemia?
Presence of HbS
147
*What are the characteristics of bone resorption leading to new bone formation?
1) "Crew cut" lesions in X-ray of skull | 2) Prominent cheek bones