Hepatitis C and pancreatitis Flashcards

1
Q

What is hepatitis C?

A

-Inflammation that disrupts hepatocytes and small bile ductules caused by the hepatitis C virus via parenteral transmission

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2
Q

What is the hepatitis C virus?

A

-Single stranded RNA virus from the family of flaviviruses.
-Can cause acute hepatitis or chronic hepatitis

Acute hepatitis
–> Presents with jaundice (mixture of CB and UCB) with dark urine (CB), fever, malaise and elevated enzymes (ALT>AST)
–>Chronic hepatitis characterised by symptoms that last >6 months. Risk of progression to cirrhosis and HCC

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3
Q

What are the leading causes of chronic liver failure worldwide?

A

-Hep B
-Hep C
-NAFLD
-ALD

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4
Q

What is the pathological sequence in HCV?

A
  1. Acute hepatitis
  2. Chronic hepatitis
  3. Cirrhosis
  4. LIver cell failure
  5. HCC
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5
Q

What are the most common risk factors for hepatitis C?

A

IV drug use
Multiple sexual partners
Surgery in last 6 months
Needle stick
Multiple contacts with HCV infected individuals
Working in medical or dental field

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6
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

-End stage liver failure
-Characterised by disruption of normal liver parenchyma with bands of fibrosis and regenerative nodules of hepatocytes

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7
Q

What are the clinical features and pathological sequence of cirrhosis?

A

Portal hypertension
–> Ascites
–> congestive splenomegaly/hypersplenism
–> portosystemic shunt (oesophageal varices, haemorrhoids, caput medusae)
–> hepatorenal syndrome (rapidly developing renal failure secondary to cirrhosis

Decreased detoxification
–> Mental state changes, asterixis and eventual coma (due to rising serum ammonia)
–> Gynaecomastia, spider naevi and palmar erythema due to hyperestrinism
–> jaundice

Decreased protein synthesis
–> Hypoalbuminaemia and oedema
–> Coagulopathy: reduced production of clotting factors

Hepatocellular carcinoma

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of cirrhosis in the UK?

A

Chronic alcoholism

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9
Q

Describe the relationship between alcoholism, hepatic steatosis, hepatitis and cirrhosis

A
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10
Q

Describe the mechanism of fibrosis

A
  1. Persistent tissue injury leads to chronic inflammation and loss of normal tissue architecture
  2. Cytokines produced by macrophages and other leucocytes stimulate migration and proliferation of fibroblasts and myofibroblasts and the deposition of collagen and other extracellular matrix proteins
  3. The net result is the replacement of normal tissue with fibrosis
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11
Q

What causes the different types of necrosis?

A

Coagulative
–> ischaemic infarction of any organ except the brain

Liquefactive
–> brain infarction/abscess/pancreatitis

Caseous
–> TB

Fat necrosis
–> Traumatic breast injury

Fibrinoid necrosis
–> HTN

Gangrenous
–> wet and dry gangrene

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12
Q

What is the type of necrosis in hepatitis?

A

Coagulative

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13
Q

What are the different types of candida?

A

-Oral
-Vaginal
-Cutaneous
-Invasive

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14
Q

Describe candida albicans

A

-Most common disease causing fungus
-Normal inhabitant of GI tract, mouth and vagina in some individuals
-Systemic candidiasis with associated pneumonia is a disease restricted to immunocompromised individuals

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15
Q

Describe candida microscopic appearance and staining

A

-In tissue sections c albicans demonstrates yeast like forms (blastoconidia), pseudohyphae and true hyphae
-Pseudohyphae–> represent budding yeast cells which join end to end at constrictions resembling true hyphae
-May be visible on normal H and E staining but ‘fungal’ staining e.g. gomori methenamine silver, periodic acid-schiff can be used to better highlight the pathogens

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16
Q

What are the stages and classification of venous leg ulcers?

A
17
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for inguinal lymphadenopathy

A

Systemic causes

neoplastic
—> leukaemia
—> lymphoma

Inflammatory
—> sarcoid
—> TB

Local causes

Infective
—> infection in groin or lower limb

Malignant:
—> Metastatic disease from lower limb/external genitalia/perineal/perianal area
—> malignant melanoma

18
Q

Scenario: 55 yr old lady IVDU with left lower limb venous ulcer

What will you see microscopically on a cut inguinal lymph node section in this patient?

A

Chronic non-specific lymphadenopathy (one of 3 patterns depending on the causative agents)
–> Follicular hyperplasia (B cell compartment)
–> Paracortical (interfollicular) hyperplasia (T cell compartment)
–> Sinus histiocytosis (reticular hyperplasia) (macrophage compartment)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lymphoid_hyperplasia

19
Q

Describe follicular hyperplasia

A

Predominantly B cell response with germinal centre hyperplasia which may be associated with marginal zone hyperplasia. Follicles vary in size and shape

Caused by stimuli that activate b cell follicles e.g. sjogren’s, RA, syphilis

-
Germinal centers or germinal centres (GCs) are transiently formed structures within B cell zone (follicles) in secondary lymphoid organs – lymph nodes, ileal Peyer’s patches, and the spleen[1] – where mature B cells are activated, proliferate, differentiate, and mutate their antibody genes (through somatic hypermutation aimed at achieving higher affinity) during a normal immune response; most of the germinal center B cells (BGC) are removed by tingible body macrophages

B lymphocytes, also called B cells, create a type of protein called an antibody. These antibodies bind to pathogens or to foreign substances, such as toxins, to neutralize them.

In the periphery of a lymph node is the paracortical region where lymphoid follicles are located. A follicle is a loosely arranged structure with an outer mantle of small T lymphocytes and a germinal center composed of B lymphocytes, follicular dendritic cells, and macrophages.

20
Q

Describe paracortical (interfollicular) hyperplasia

A

Reactive changes in the T cell region of the lymph node with paracortical expansion caused by:
–> EBV
–> certain vaccinations (e.g. smallpox)

-

T cells
-CD4 cells (helper cells: recruit other inflammatory cells)
-CD 8 cells: cytotoxic cells. Kill virus infected/cancer cells

21
Q

What is sinus histiocytosis (reticular hyperplasia)? When would it occur?

A

-Distension and prominence of lymphatic sinusoids, due to marked hypertrophy of lining endothelial cells and an infiltrate of macrophages (histiocytes). Non specific but often encountered in lymph node draining cancers

22
Q

What is amylase and what is its function?

A

-Group of proteins (digestive enzymes) found in saliva and pancreatic juice
-All are glycoside hydrolases and act on alpha 1,4 glycoside bond to convert starch into smaller carbohydrate molecules (oligosaccharides and disaccharides)

23
Q

What is CRP and from where is it produced?

A

-Protein produced by the liver in response to inflammation (acute phase protein)
-Non specific
-Can be used to monitor disease progress and flares

24
Q

What blood tests would you do in pancreatitis?

A

-FBC
-U + E
-CRP
-Amylase/lipase (higher sensitivity)

For glasgow score:
-ABG
-Calcium
-Albumin
-LDH
-Blood glucose

25
Q

Scenario: patient complaining of epigastric pain. Recent hospitalisation for acute pancreatitis 3 weeks ago.

Patient is having compression on his stomach. What is the cause?

A

Pseudocyst

26
Q

What organisms can cause pancreatitis?

A

VIrus: mumps, cocksackie b, hepatitis
Parasites: hydatid
Bacteria: mycoplasma pneumoniae, leptospirosis

27
Q

Scenario: patient complaining of epigastric pain. Recent hospitalisation for acute pancreatitis 3 weeks ago.

Patients haemoglobin drops, what is the cause?

A

-Rupture of splenic artery/PDA/GDA pseudoaneurysm

28
Q

Scenario: patient complaining of epigastric pain. Recent hospitalisation for acute pancreatitis 3 weeks ago.

What non surgical option is available to stop the bleeding of the pseudoaneurysm?

A

Interventional radiology

29
Q

How does interventional radiology work for embolysation?

A

Using real time imaging, catheter is inserted into the artery and clotting agents are released (coils, particles, gel or foam) into the blood vessel slowing the blood flow and causing an internal injury to activate the coagulation cascade

30
Q

Which part of the coagulation cascade will be activated in IR?

A

Intrinsic pathway

31
Q

Which clotting factors are involved in the intrinsic pathway?

A

12,11,9,8

32
Q

Describe the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade

A
  1. Damage to endothelium means that factor 7 escapes from circulation into the surrounding tissue
  2. Activated by tissue factor (3) which is released by damaged cells–> TFVIIa complex
  3. TFVIIa activates factor X
  4. With factor Va this triggers production of thrombin

Note extrinsic pathway is responsible for initial production of Xa, whereas intrinsic pathway amplifies its production

33
Q

Describe the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade

A

factor 12 (damaged collagen)–> factor 11–>factor 9–>8 (released by platelets)–> 10–>5 –> thrombin

-Factor XII activated when it comes into contact with damaged collagen on damaged endothelium–> activates factor XI–> activates factor IX
-Along with clotting factors, platelets form a cellular ‘plug’ at the site of injury. These platelets also release mediators that facilitate further clotting, including Factor VIII.
-Factor IX combines with Factor VIII to form an enzyme complex that activates factor X, which along with factor Va, stimulates the production of thrombin.

34
Q

Describe common pathway clotting

A

1 X 2 X 5 =10

Factor10 –> (prothrombin to thrombin by prothrombinase-5 and 10) –> (fibrinogen to fibrin). FIbrin stabilised by factor 13

The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge to give rise to the common pathway. The activated factor X causes a set of reactions resulting in the inactive enzyme prothrombin (also called factor II) being converted to its active form thrombin (factor IIa) by Prothrombinase (factor 5 and factor 10).

The thrombin then converts soluble fibrinogen (also referred to as factor I) into insoluble fibrin strands. The fibrin strands which comprise the clot are stabilised by factor XIII.

35
Q

Describe regulation of clotting

A

Protein s, protein c and antithrombin provide negative feedback

To prevent excessive clotting and subsequent disease, mediators including Protein C and Protein S provide negative feedback on the clotting cascade.

Protein C is activated following contact by thrombomodulin, which is itself activated by thrombin. Along with co-factors including protein S, activated protein C degrades factor Va and factor VIIIa, thus slowing the rate of clotting.

Calcium ions play a role through their interaction with the activation of several clotting factors. Low levels of calcium are therefore inhibitory to the clotting cascade.

Antithrombin is a protease inhibitor that degrades thrombin, factor IXa, factor Xa, factor XIa and factor XIIa. It is constantly active but can be activated further by a group of common anticoagulants known as heparins.

36
Q

How to remember clotting cascade

A

Common pathway:
–> 1 X 2 X 5 = 10

Extrinsic:
–> Extrinsic starts with 7: 7 has two e’s
–> factor 7 (activated by tissue factor) makes up extrinsic pathway and helps activate factor 10

Intrinsic:
–> count back from 12 but skip 10 because we already have it