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Physical Assessment 1 > HENT > Flashcards

HENT Flashcards

1
Q

List the primary headaches

A
  • w.o an identified underlying disease
  • migraine
  • cluster
  • chronic daily
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2
Q

List secondary headaches

A

-arise from underlying structural, systemic or infectious causes
EX: meningitis, subarachnoid hem

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3
Q

Headache warning signs

A
  • progressive frequent or severe over 3 MO time frame
  • thunderclap headache
  • “worst headache of my life”
  • new onset after age 50
  • precipitated by valsalva or exertion
  • aggrivated or relieved by position
  • assoc s/s of fever, night sweats or wt loss
  • presence of CA, HIV, pregnancy
  • recent head trauma
  • assocc papilledema, neck stiffness or focal neurologic deficits
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4
Q

MC type of headache?

A

Tension

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5
Q

Thunderclap HA

A

subarachnoid hem (SAH)

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6
Q

severe, sudden onset HA

A

SAH or meningitis

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7
Q

Episodic and peaking over several hours—type of HA?

A

Migraine and tension headache

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8
Q

New and persisting, or progressively worse HA?

A

tumor
abscess
mass lesion

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9
Q

Unilateral HA ?

A

migraine and cluster HA

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10
Q

Temporal HA

A

Tension

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11
Q

Retro-orbital-location HA

A

(behind eye)

Cluster

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12
Q

N/V are common with which HA?

A

migraine

can occur with SAH or tumors

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13
Q

Prodrome: visual aura, spark photopsias, fortifications, scotomas

A

Migraine

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14
Q

photopsias

A

flashing lights

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15
Q

Scotomas

A

areas of visual loss with surrounding normal vision

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16
Q

HA worsens when leaning forward or worse with valsalva?

A

sinusitis

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17
Q

fortification

A

zig-zag ars of light

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18
Q

Medication induced headache: time frame

A

is present greater than or equal to 15 days a month for three months and reverts to less than 15days/MO when med discontinued

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19
Q

Enlarged cervical lymph noes in neck?

A

Pharyngitis

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20
Q

Goiter indicates?

A

enlargement of thyroid 2x its normal size

  • thyroid func can be hyper or hypo
  • can be w/ or w.o nodules
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21
Q

Persistent neck mass in an adult >40 should raise suspicion of?

A

malignancy

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22
Q

pulsating “tonsillar node” is?

A

the carotid artery

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23
Q

small hard tender “tonsilar node” high and deep b/w the mandible and SCM is?

A

probably styloid process

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24
Q

slow HR, dry skin, intolerance to cold and wt gain?

A

hypothyroidism

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25
Q

palpitations, wt loss, intolerant to heat?

A

hyperT

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26
Q

Enlarged skull can idicate?

A
  • hydrocephalus

- paget disease of bone “brittle bone disease”

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27
Q

Step-offs or tenderness post trauma?

A

skull fx

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28
Q

enlargement of a supraclavicular node ESP LEFT suggests? Whats the name of this

A

metastasis from a thoracic or abdominal malignancy (BC)

VIRCHOW’S NODE **

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29
Q

tender nodes suggest?

A

inflammation

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30
Q

Hard or fixed nodes suggest?

A

malignancy

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31
Q

If you palpate supraclavicular lymph nodes, what needs to be done?

A

thorough work-up

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32
Q

Things to note when palpating the lymp nodes? (6)

A
  1. size
  2. shape
  3. delimitation (fixed?)
  4. mobility
  5. consistency
  6. tenderness
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33
Q

List of the lymph nodes we palpate?

A
  1. preauricular
  2. posterior auricular
  3. occipital
  4. tonsillar
  5. submandibular
  6. submental
  7. superficial cervical –superficial to SCM
  8. posterior cervical–anterior edge of trapezius
  9. supraclavicular
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34
Q

What can cause tracheal deviation?

A
  • mediastinal masses
  • large pneumotx
  • atelectasis
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35
Q

Position of PTs neck when palpating lymph nodes?

A

slightly flexed

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36
Q

generalized lymphadenopathy seen in

A 
infections
inflammatory or malignant conditions like HIV/AIDS 
infectious mono 
lymphoma 
leukemia
sarcoidosis
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37
Q

Tender thyroid?

A

thyroiditis

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38
Q

Soft thyroid suggests

A

Graves disease

+/- nodules present

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39
Q

Firm thyroid suggests

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

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40
Q

Pemberton sign

A

when arm is elevated, there is flushing from compression of the thoracic inlet from the thyroid gland or clavicular movement

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41
Q

Systolic or continous bruits head in neck suggest?

A

hyperthyroidism fram Graves

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42
Q

JVD hallmark sign of?

A

HF

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43
Q

Unusual forward eye protrusion?

A

Exophthalmos–Graves disease

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44
Q

Diplopia, tearing, grittiness, pain from corneal exposure, extraocular muscle dysfunction, eyelid retraction, all are s/s of?

A

Graves ophthalmopathy

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45
Q

Discharge of mucopurulent fluid from the puncta suggests?

A

Obstructed nasolacrimal duct

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46
Q

Bloodshot injected eyes suggest? (3)

A

infection
inflammation
injury

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47
Q

Two components to conjunctiva?

A
  1. bulbar conjunctiva-covers most of the eye–meets cornea at the limbus
  2. palpebral conjunctiva–lines eyelids
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48
Q

Which conjunctiva lines the eyelids?

A

palpebral

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49
Q

which conjunctiva covers most of the eye–meets cornea at the limbus

A

bulbar

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50
Q

Which CN innervates levator palpebrae?

role of this muscle?

A

CN III–occular motor nerve

raises the upper eyelid

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51
Q

Hyperopia

A

farsightedness

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52
Q

Presbyopia

A

aging vision

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53
Q

Myopia

A

nearsightedness

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54
Q

difficulty with close work suggests?

A

hyperopia or presbyopia (PT age dependent)

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55
Q

Difficulty with distant objects suggest?

A

myopia

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56
Q

sudden, unilateral visual loss that is PAINLESS, consider? (5)

A
  • vitreous hem
  • macular degeneration
  • retinal detachement
  • retinal vein occlusion
  • central retinal artery occlusion
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57
Q

sudden, unilateral visual loss that is PAINFUL? consider? (5)

A

cornea or anterior chamber involvement

  • corneal ulcer
  • uveitis
  • traumatic hyphema
  • acute angle closure glaucoma
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58
Q

Where to tears come from?

A

meibomian glands, conjunctival and lacrimal** glands

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59
Q

Lacrimal puncta

A

tiny holes where tears drain into

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60
Q

iris muscle control?

A

controls pupillary size

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61
Q

ciliary body muscles control?

A

control thickness of lens/allows for focusing

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62
Q

ciliary body produces????

A

clear liquid–aqueous humor

  • *controls pressure!!!!
  • *drains out of canal of schlemm
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63
Q

posterior part of eye seen through ophthalmoscpoe?

A

optic fundus

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64
Q

enters eyeball posteriorly at the optic disc

A

optic nerve

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65
Q

Darkened circular area that surrounds the point of central vision–looks like a small depression in retinal surface

A

fovea

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66
Q

optic nerve is CN____

A

II

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67
Q

light shining in eye causes pupillary____

A

constriction–direct reaction to light

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68
Q

consensual reaction to light?

A

when contralateral eye constricts (not the eye with the light directly shining in)

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69
Q

Pupils will _____ during near reaction

A

constrict

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70
Q

Superior tarsal muscle does?

A

raises upper eyelid

controlled by symp NS

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71
Q

EOM

A

4 rectus, 2 oblique

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72
Q

paralyzed eye movement will appear how?

A

eye will deviate from normal position….in the direction of the gaze… so right inferior rectus muscle paralyzed.. the gaze will be to the right

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73
Q

Sudden vision loss, bilateral and painful..can be? (2)

A
  • giant-cell arteritis

- non-physiological causes—like chemical or radiation exposure

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74
Q

Gradual bilateral vision loss?

A

cataracts or macular degeneration

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75
Q

Slow central field loss indicates?

A

macular degeneration or nuclear cataract

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76
Q

Peripheral loss tunnel vision suggests?

A

open-angle glaucoma (advanced)

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77
Q

Hemianopsia

A

blindness in half of one eye

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78
Q

unilateral headache suggests?

A

migrane

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79
Q

Steady, pressing or tightening, non-throbbing pain, mild to moderate intensity suggests which HA?

A

tension

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80
Q

Throbbing or aching, pain, mod-sever in intensity and preceded by an aura suggests which HA?

A

migraine

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81
Q

Sharp continuous intense and severe in intensity can be unilateral or around/behind the eyes suggests which HA?

A

cluster

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82
Q

Timing for cluster HA?

A

abrupt, peaks within minutes and lasts shorter period of time. EPISODIC

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83
Q

Timing for migraines

A

fairly rapid onset, reaching peak in 1-2 hrs, lasts anywhere from 4 hrs to 3 days, RECURRENT

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84
Q

Gradual onset of HA?

A

tension

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85
Q

unilateral autonomic symptoms with ____ HA: lacrimation, rhinorrhea, miosis, ptosis, eyelid edema, conjunctival injection

A

cluster

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86
Q

Moving specks or strands suggests?

A

vitreous floaters

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87
Q

Fixed defects or scotomas suggests?

A

Scotoma=blind spot

suggests—lesions in retina or visual pathway

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88
Q

red, painless eye is seen in?

A

subconjuncitval hemorrahge

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89
Q

Red eye with gritty sensation seen in?

A

viral conjunctivitis

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90
Q

Red, painful eye is seen in? (7)

A
  • hyphema
  • episcleritis
  • acute angle closure glaucoma
  • herpes keratitis
  • FB
  • fungal keratitis
  • sarcoid uveitis
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91
Q

diplopia is seen with?

A
  • lesions in brainstem or cerebellum

- corneal or lens problem

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92
Q

flashing lights with new vitreous floaters suggest?

A

detachment of the vitreous body from the retina

EMERGENCY

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93
Q

variations in retinal pigmentation, subretinal hemms, and exudates are seen in?

A

macular degeneration

94
Q

change in color and size of optic disc suggests?

A

glaucoma

95
Q

Damage to which CN causes diplopia? What muscle is affected

A

CN IV–trochlear nerve

-dysfunction of superior oblique muscle–diplopia

96
Q

What does 20/200 vision mean?

A

at 20 feet, the PT can read print that a person with normal vision could read at 200 feet.
*larger the second number..the worse the vision

97
Q

Myopia causes focusing problems on near or distant objects?

A

nearsightedness

distant

98
Q

what does 20/40 corrected mean?

A

PT can read the 20/40 line with glasses

99
Q

Older PTs are at risk for what three eye conditions?

How often should they get eye exams?

A
  1. glaucoma
  2. cataracts
  3. mac degen
    * every 1-2 years*
100
Q

OD?

A

right eye

101
Q

OS

A

left eye

102
Q

OU

A

both eyes

103
Q

20/20

  • first number means?
  • second number means ?
A

first number: indicates PT’s distance

second number: distance at which normal eye can read the numbers

104
Q

What is legally blind?

A

20/200 in better eye

105
Q

Presbyopia

-which vision is impaired?

A

causes focusing problems for near vision

*will see better when card is AWAY from them

106
Q

PE finds Left homonymous hemianopsia during static finger wiggle test, what does this mean?

A

PTs left eye does not see the fingers until they have crossed line of gaze

107
Q

Static finger tests tests for?

A

lesions in visual pathway

108
Q

If gross visual field tests are abnormal, what is the next test to do ?

A

check fields by confrontation

109
Q

Papilledema on exam suggests?

A

ICP

110
Q

Cotton wool patches suggset?

A

HTN retinopathy

111
Q

Findings you will see on HTN retinopathy?

A
  • cotton wool patches
  • flame hemorrhages
  • Hard exudates
112
Q

Flamed-shaped linear hemorrhages suggest?

A

flame hemorrhages

-HTN RETINOPATHY

113
Q

Irregular white patches suggest?

A

cotton wool spots aka HTN retinopathy

114
Q

Tiny round microaneruyrms are seen with?

A

diabetic retinopathy

115
Q

Formation of new vessels that appear round and tortuous are seen with?

A

diabetic retinopathy (neovascularization)

116
Q

Hard exudates are seen in?

A

HTN and DM retinopathy

117
Q

well defined, yellowish shiny lesions?

A

hard exudates

118
Q

EYE: multiple areas of hemorrhages with white centers?

Suggests?

A

roth spots

seen in: leukemia and endocarditis

119
Q

Yellowish, triangular nodule on bulbar conjunctiva

-does NOT cross the limbus

A

Pinguecla

120
Q

Triangular thickening, grows acorss cornea and can interfere with vision

A

pterygium

121
Q

Painful, tender, red infection. Nodule on the margin of the lid?

A

Hordeolum

122
Q

Nontender nodule on lid

A

Chalazion

meibomian gland involved

123
Q

Painful, tender lacrimal sac and swelling of lacrimal sac

A

dacrocystitis

124
Q

yellowish plaques on skin.. nasally located.

Associated with what?

A

Xanthelasma

Assoc with hypercholesteremia

125
Q

opacities and clouding of cornea

A

cataracts

126
Q

White circle around the edge of cornea

occurs with aging

A

arcus senilis

127
Q

Green-yellow ring near limbus
assoc with?
what kind of disorder

A

Kayser-Fleischer rings
Assoc with Wilson’s disease
copper disorder

128
Q

Findings for DM retinopathy

A
  • hard exudates
  • neovasc
  • microaneurysms
129
Q

enlarged blind spot occurs in?

A
  • conditions affecting optic nerve
  • glaucoma
  • optic neuritis
  • papilloedema
130
Q

Esotropia

A

inward deviation

131
Q

Exotropia

A

outward deviation

132
Q

Scaliness of eyebrows suggest?

A

seborrheic dermatitis

133
Q

lateral sparsness of eyebrows sugges?

A

hypothyroidism

134
Q

red inflammed lid margins with crusting?

A

blepharitis

135
Q

Excessive tearing can be caused by?

A
  • conjunctival inflammatino
  • corneal irritation
  • impaired drainage
136
Q

really dry eyes (impaired tear drainaged) seen in?

A

Sjogren syndrome

137
Q

Miosis

A

pupil constriction

138
Q

mydriasis

A

pupil dilation

139
Q

Eyes are conjugate in right lateral gaze but not in left lateral gaze.. indicates paralysis of CN____

A

CN VI–abducens

140
Q

convergence is poor in____?

A

hyperthyroidism

141
Q

absence of red reflex is seen with?

A

cataracts

142
Q

enlarged physiologic cup (eye) suggests??

A

chronic open-angle glaucoma

143
Q

MCC of poor central vision in elderly pt

A

mac degen

144
Q

diffuse dilation of conjunctival vessels with redness that tends to be maximally periphereal describe??? and is suggestive of waht eye condition?

A

CONJUNCTIVAL INJECTION

*conjunctivitis

145
Q

EYE: Leakage of blood outside the vessels–producing a homogenous sharply demarcated red area is describing?

A

subconjunctival hemm

146
Q

Conjunctival injection, mild discomfort, vision not affected, w/ watery OR mucoid OR mucopurulent dx +/- itching?

A

CONJUNCTIVITIS:

  • watery dx–viral
  • mucoid–bacterial
147
Q

sharply demarcated red area, no pain, vision not affected, and resulted either post trauma or severe coughing

A

Subconjunctival hemm

148
Q

Deeper vessels coming off liimbus are dilated–creating reddish violet flush–what is this?
-can cause diffuse redness

A

Ciliary flush

149
Q

What conditions can cause ciliary flush?

A
  • corneal inj or inf
  • acute iritis
  • acute angle close glaucoma
150
Q

diffuse red ciliary flush, severe deep aching pain, decrease vision, fixed and dilated pupil, and a steamy and cloudy cornea?

A

acute angle closure glaucoma

151
Q

Mod aching deep pain with decreased vision and photophobia. Small and irregular pupils and a clear or slightly cloudy cornea with injection confined to corneal limbus?

A

Acute iritis
-assoc with herpes zoster
TB

152
Q

Mod-severe superficial pain with decrease vision, watery discharge, pupils normal, cornea usualy normal, and diffuse red ciliary flush?
post bac or viral infection or post injury

A

Corneal injury/abrasion or infection

153
Q

bitemporal hemianopsia on exam suggests?

A

lesion in optic chiasm

154
Q

Horizontal defect suggests?

A

occlusion of a branch of central retinal artery

155
Q

Blind right eye suggests>

A

lesion in right optic nerve

156
Q

left homonymous hemianopsia suggests?

A

lesion in the right optic tract

157
Q

drooping of upper lid

causes?

A 
ptosis 
CAUSES
-myasthenia gravis 
-damage to CN III 
-Horner syndrome.. damamge to symp ns
158
Q

Inward turning of lid margin

causes?

A

Entropion
CAUSES:
-aging
eyelashes are touching the conjunctivia and lower cornea

159
Q

Lower lid margin turns outward

-causes

A

ectropion
-excessive tearing
CAUSES: aging

160
Q

general term for unequal pupils

A

anisocoria

161
Q

affected pupil is small, unilateral, reacts briskly to light and near effort BUT dilates slowly.. esp in dim light. +ptosis and less sweating is seen on the forehead.

A

HORNER SYNDROME

triad=miosis, ptosis and anhydrosis

162
Q

the following triad is seen with???

  1. miosis
  2. ptosis
  3. anhydrosis
A

horner syndrome

163
Q

Entry point for retinal vessels?

A

physiologic cup–small white depression in optic disc

can be absent=normal and grayish spots can be seen at the base=normal

164
Q

Hallmark of DM retinopathy? (eye exam findnig)

A

microaneuryisms

165
Q

common feature of proliferative stage of DM retinopathy?

A

neovascularization

166
Q

soft exudates are also called

A

cotton-wool patches

167
Q

Soft exudates seen with?

Hard exudates seen with?

A

Soft=HTN retinopathy

Hard=DM retinopathy

168
Q

Drusen indicate?

A

normal finding in older PTs

-can point to macular degeneration

169
Q

Hearing disorders of ____ and ____ cause conduction disorders

A

External and middle ear

170
Q

external ear disorder causing conduction disorder

A
  • cerum impaction
  • infection (OE)
  • trauma
  • SCC
  • bening bony growths–exostoses or osteomas
171
Q

middle ear disorder causing conduction disorder

A
  • OM
  • congenital conditions
  • cholestatomas
  • otosclerosis
  • tumors
  • TM perf
172
Q

Noisy or quiet environments help PTs hear better with conduction hearing loss?

A

Noisy envi

173
Q

disorders of ____ ear cause sensorineural disorders

A

inner ear–cochlear nerve, central connection in brain

174
Q

disorders of inner ear causing sensorineural disorders (7)

A
  • congenital and hereditary conditions
  • presbycusis
  • viral infections like rubella or CMV
  • Meniere disease
  • noise exposure
  • ototoxic drugs
  • acoustic neruoma
175
Q

List of ototoxic drugs (5)

A
  1. aminoglucosides*****
  2. ASA
  3. NSAIDS
  4. Quinine (malaria med)
  5. lasix/furosemide
176
Q

trouble understanding speech, noisy environments make hearing worse— suggests what type of hearing loss?

A

sensorineural

177
Q

+tug test or pain with movement of tragus suggest?

A

acute Otitis externa

178
Q

-tug test is seen with?

A

OM

179
Q

Tenderness behind the ear occurs in

A

OM

180
Q

nontender nodular swellings covered by normal skin deep in ear canal?

A

exostoses-nonmalignant growths

181
Q

green yellow discharge in the ear suggests?

A

OE or OM w/ perf

182
Q

ringing in the ear

A

tinnitus

can increase normaly with age

183
Q

vertigo can suggest CN____ lesion

A

CNVIII–vestibochochlear

184
Q

Tinnitus+vertigo+ hearing loss=?

A

Meniere disease

185
Q

Ear canal appears swollen, narrowed moist pale and tender? +/- red

A

OE

186
Q

skin of the canal is thick red and itchy?

A

CHRONIC OE

187
Q

red bulging ear drum w/ loss of bony landmarks suggests?

A

purulent OM

188
Q

amber fluid behind ear drum with air bubbles and decreased mobility?
MCC?

A

serious effusion

MCC is viral infection

189
Q

No TM mobility suggests?

A

perforation

190
Q

Reduced TM mobility is seen with?

A
  • serious effusion
  • OM
  • thickened drum
191
Q

Overgrowth of epithelium from middle ear with debris accumulation and erosion of ossicles?
MCC?

A

Cholesteatoma

MCC recurrent OM

192
Q

Hemorrhagic vesicles on TM?

A

Bullous Myringitis

MCC virus

193
Q

Weber tests for?

A

lateralization

194
Q

Weber test: sound lateralizes to affected ear means?

Causes??

A

Conductive hearing loss
CAUSES:
-cerumen
-OM

195
Q

Weber test: sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear means?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

196
Q

Rinne test compares?

A 
air conduction(normal pathway of hearing) to bone (stimulates cochlea directly)  
*AC>>BC**
197
Q

Bone conduction> air conduction means?

A

conductive hearing loss

198
Q

Air conduction > bone conduction means? (2)

A

-normal
OR
-sensorineural hering loss

199
Q

Hard nodules of uric acid crystals –found on helix

A

Tophi

-GOUT

200
Q

raised nodule with lustrous surface and telangiectatic vessels found on outter ear. SLow growing… which carcinoma?

A

BCC

201
Q

Scarring of TM from chronic reccurent OM infections

A

tympanosclerosis–deposites of hyaline and calcium in eardrum and middle ear

202
Q

large chalky white patch with irregular margings of the eardrum?

A

tympanosclerosis

203
Q

earache, blood-tinged dx from ear and conductive hearing loss? PE: two large bullae on drum with erythematous drum and obscured landmarks.

A

bullous myringitis

204
Q

localized, subcutaneous or submucosal swelling around or on lips

A

angioedema

205
Q

Which CNs can you assess by having the PT open mouth and say “ahhhh”

A

CN X vagus

CNIX glossopharyngeal

206
Q

tenderness of nasal tip? esp w/ small red swolen area

A

local infection–furnucle

207
Q

deviation of lower septum is…?

A

common! rarely causes obstruction

208
Q

nasal mucosa is red and swollen…indicates what type of rhinitis?

A

Viral rhinitis

209
Q

nasal mucosa is pale and bluish or red and swollen.. indicates what type of rhinitis?

A

allergic

210
Q

Septal perforation and/or ulceration caused by?

A

-cocaine or amphetamine use
-trauma
-surgery
-

211
Q

Pale, saclike growths–appear inflammed and can obstruct air passages and sinuses

A

polyps

CF

212
Q

Triad for CF?

A

ASA allergy
allergic rhinitis
polyps nasal

213
Q

Local tenderness with facial pain, pressure or fullnes, purulent nasal dx, nasal obstructions and smell disorder >7 days

A

acute bacterial rhonosinusitis

*maxillary sinuses MC

214
Q

Black line in the gingiva can indicate?

A

lead poisoning

215
Q 
men >50 Yo 
smokers 
heavy tobacco chewers 
ETOH 
are at risk for what kind of tongue/oral cavity disorder?
A

Oral leukoplakia—can develop into SCC

216
Q

Asymmetric protrusion of tongue suggests

tongue points____?

A

lesion of CN XII–hypoglossal

tongue points towards side of lesion

217
Q

Soft palate fails to rise and uvula deviates to the side.. indicates?

A

CN X paralysis

*uvula points away from lesion

218
Q

CONTINUOUS vertigo—-?

EPISODIC vertigo—–?

A

continuous=labrynthitis
episodic=menieres

**how to differentiate bc they both present with
-vertigo
-hearing loss
-tinnitus
and acute onset

219
Q

deep purple oral lesions ..flat or raised

A

Kaposi sarcoma–HSV 8

220
Q

thick white plaques that are adherent to oral mucosa–can be scrapped off but causes bleeding

A

Thrush

221
Q

Throat appears dull red, and a gray exudate present on uvula, pharynx and tongue.

A

Diptheria–emergent

222
Q

What is an early sign of measles

A

koplik spots

223
Q

small white specks that resemble grains of salt on a red background on buccal mucosa near the first and second molars **

A

koplik spots–early signs of measles

224
Q

thick white patch in oral cavity that is painless
-PT wil have hx of chewing tobacco/ smoker
-ETOH abuse
and/ OR hx of HPV

A

Leukoplakia

–may lead to CA

225
Q

gums appear enlarged, inflammed, swollen and red. can cover the teeth sometimes

A

gingival hyperplasia

226
Q

Teeth apepar notched on their biting surfaces

A

Hutchinson teeth in congenital syphilis

227
Q

Thick white coating–some patches of raw mucosa exposed after white was scrapped off

  • PTs usually immunosuppressed
  • or on prednisone tx
A

Candidiasis

228
Q

White, raised asympto plaques with a feather or corrugated pattern occuring mainly on the side of the tongue that cannot be scrapped off
PT may have hx of HIV/AIDS or Epstein barr virus infection

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia

229
Q

painful shallow white/gray oval ulceration surrounded by a halo of reddened mucosa
single or multiple

A

Aphthous ulcer or canker sore

230
Q

Oral hairy leuokoplakia vs oral leukoplakia

A

ORAL leuko–possibly pre-malignant

oral hairy–not premalignant and caused by epstein barr virus or HIV/AIDS

231
Q

oral leukoplakia can be a precursor to ??

A

SCC

Physical Assessment 1 (7 decks)

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