Hemostasis Flashcards

1
Q

Hermansky Pudlak Syndrome

A

9mutations
1,4 form a complex. associated with pulmonary fibrosis and colitis
3,5,6 associated with ophtho

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2
Q

Emicizumab NEJM paper results

A

Population: Hemophilia A with high titer inhibitors
Dosing: 3mg/kg/week x 4 weeks, then 1.5mg/kg/week
Results:
- 87% decrease in bleeding events compared to no prophylaxis (2.9 vs 23.3 events/yr)
- 79% decrease in events compared to same patients when they were on bypassing agents
- 63% of emi group had no bleeds
- 5 cases of TMA and thrombosis when given with aPCC over 100U/kg/day
- no inhibitors found

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3
Q

Risk factors for Hemophilia A inhibitor development

A
  1. Severity of hemophilia
  2. Mutation type (null mutations)
  3. Intensity of exposure (RODIN study)
  4. Type of product - Sippet study suggesting early exposure to plasma derived is better than recombinant
  5. Family history - genetic variations in immunity
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4
Q

Factor VII deficiency

A

1:500,000 auto recessive.
FVII activity >0.2 rarely bleed, high risk if <0.1
Heterozygotes have activity 0.4-0.6 (INR usually normal when level >0.5)
Recommended replacement is rFVIIa 15-30ug/kg every 4-6 hours. Plasma half-life is estimated 2-3 hours.
**note dose lower than hemophilia

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5
Q

What is the mechanism of action of steroids in ITP?

A

Inhibits phagocytosis of antibody coated platelets

Inhibits antibody production

Suppress activation of t-cells

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6
Q

Name complications of hemophilia apart from bleeding

A
Development of inhibitors 
Synovitis
Arthropathy
Pseudotumors
Infection from plasma derived products
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7
Q

What is the average lifespan of a platelet?

A

9-10 days

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8
Q

How are platelets distributed in the body?

A

1/3-in the spleen

2/3-in circulation

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9
Q

How long does it take for NAIT to resolve?

A

usually 2-4 weeks

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10
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of NAIT

A

When fetal platelets express platelet-specific antigens inherited from the father, are the target of maternal alloantibodies (mother doesn’t possess these platelet specific antigens)

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11
Q

What is the most common platelet specific antigen involved in NAIT?

A

HPA-1a accounts for ~75% cases

Another 10-20% are due to HPA-5b-these cases tend to be milder

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12
Q

neonates affected by NAIT have what rate of developing ICH?

A

10-20%

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13
Q

How is NAIT treated?

A

Random donor platelets usually are fine
If no response can use matched donor platelets or maternal platelets
IVIG 1g/kg/day for 1-3 days
Methylprednisone 1mg IV q8h with IVIG (says Lanzokowsky’s)
Head U/S
Follow-up until platelets recover

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14
Q

For neonatal autoimmune thrombocytopenia what pattern do you expect with the platelets?

A

Are near/normal at birth, then fall to a clinically significant nadir over the next 1-3 days, the platelet count will normalize over the next 3-12 weeks

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15
Q

What is the most common platelet antigen target in neonatal autoimmune thrombocytopenia?

A

GPIIB/IIIA or GPIb/IX

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16
Q

Which mothers are at risk of giving birth to a neonate with autoimmune thrombocytopenia?

A
Hx of previously affected infant
Previously splenectomized for ITP
Currently has thrombocytopenia
Has SLE, hypothyroidism, preeclampsia, HELPP syndrome
Maternal drug ingestion (thiazide)
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17
Q

What platelet characteristics are associated with Bernard-Soulier?

A

Moderate thrombocytopenia

Large platelets-usually the size of a red cell

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18
Q

What causes Bernard Soulier?

A

absence of the GPIb glycoprotein complex

this leads to inability of VWF binding, and significant bleeding (epistaxis)

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19
Q

What triad is associated with WAS?

A

eczema, microthrombocytopenia and immunodeficiency (T-cell function)

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20
Q

What mutation causes CAMT?

A

mutation in c-mpl (the thrombopoietin receptor)

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21
Q

What 4 drugs are most commonly associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

heparin
quinine
penicillin
VPA

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22
Q

What causes HIT?

A

antibodies develop that are directed against complexes of heparin and platelet factor 4

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23
Q

What is pots-transfusion purpura

A

MIddle aged women with hx of pregnancy. Allo-antibody results in destruction of endogenous and transfused plt. Severe thrombocytopenia 7-10d post with bronchospasm and hemorrhage

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24
Q

MYH-9 features

A

renal failure
sensorineural hearing loss
cataracts

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25
Q

Abnormal radius with normal thumbs

A

TAR

  • high TPO
  • spontaneously recover at 12-24 m

Mutation: RBM8A

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26
Q

CAMT gene

A

c-MPL

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27
Q

Grey Platelet syndrome

A

AR
macrothrombocytopenia
absent alpha granule
assoc. with myelofibrosis

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28
Q

Hermansky-Pudlak

A
  • AR
  • absent dense granules - so no ATP secretion or second wave of aggregation with ADP and epi
  • occulocutaneous albinism
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29
Q

What genetic defect causes Familial platelet syndrome with predisposition to AML? (FPS/AML)

A

RUNX1-a transcription factor

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30
Q

what are the 4 T’s of HIT?

A

thrombocytopenia
thrombosis
timing-usually 5-10 days after 1st heparin exposure, 3-5 days after subsequent
oTher-no other reason for thrombocytopenia

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31
Q

What is the pentad of TTP?

A
thromobcytopenia
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
renal dysfunction
neuro symptoms
fever
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32
Q

What is the cause of both acquired and congenital TTP?

A

ADAMTS-13 deficiency mediated thrombotic microangiopathy

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33
Q

What is the treatment for congenital TTP?

A

because patients don’t have antibodies but instead very low levels of ADAMTS-13, plasma infusion is the treament

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34
Q

what is the treatment of acquired TTP?

A

start plasmapheresis right away! removes the antibodies

platelets don’t help, can worsen the coagulopathy

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35
Q

What test will diagnose acquired TTP?

A

ADAMTS13 assay which shows low ADAMTS13 activity (<10%) and also documents the presence of ADAMTS13 IgG autoantibodies
shouldn’t wait for results before starting plasmapheresis

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36
Q

What is the pathophys behind aHUS?

A

dysregulated alternative complement system
there’s an increase in formation of C5b-9 MAC attack complex
there’s also inhibition of the regulatory proteins

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37
Q

how does eculizumab work?

A

its a recombinant humanized monoclonal immunoglobulin targeting C5 to prevent cleavage of C5-C5a and preventing formation of the MAC complex

38
Q

What is a major side effect of eculizumab?

A

increased risk of infection with encapsulated organisms, N.meningitidis (use the complement system)
Be sure are vaccinated ahead of time if possible

39
Q

Why does thrombocytopenia occur in patients with severe cyanotic heart disease?

A

if there’s a high hematocrit (>65%) platelets get stuck in the small vessels. Platelets have difficulty aggregating in hypoxic situations

40
Q

Give a differential dx of thrombocytosis

A

Nutritional-iron deficiency, Vit E def, megaloblastic anemia
Infectious
Trauma-surgery, fractures, burns, hemorrhage
Splenectomy
Autoimmune-Kawasaki, RA, HSP, IBD
Drug induced-epi, corticosteroids, vinca alkaloids
Neoplastic- CML, PV, ET, lymphoma, leukemia
Myelodysplastic states- 5q syndrome, Sideroblastic anemia

41
Q

what are the diagnostic criteria for primary ET?

A
  • persistent thrombocytosis (>450)
  • bone marrow with megakaryocyte proliferation without increased neutrophil granulopoiesis or erythropoiesis
  • Absence of criteria for PV, PMF, CML, MDS or myeloid neoplasm
  • Presence of JAK2V617F or clonal marker
  • No known cause for reactive thrombocytosis
42
Q

What is the treatment for ET?

A

asymptomatic patient-observe
low risk patients with thrombophilia risk factors-anti-platelet agents such as ASA
high risk patients with extreme thrombocytosis or symptoms of thrombosis/bleeding-hydroxyurea or anegrelide hydrochloride

43
Q

Which coag factors are normal/high at birth

A

FVIII
vWF
Fibrinogen is normal

44
Q

Which coag factors are made outside of the liver?

A

FVIII - endothelium (and liver)
vWF - endothelium, macrophage
Factor V - liver, macrophage
Factor XIII - liver, macrophage

45
Q

Name contact factors and which one is associated with bleeding.

Bonus: which ethnic group has this genetic deficiency

A
  • HMWK
  • prekallikrein
  • Factor XII
  • Factor XI

Factor XI deficiency can have bleeding
- Ashkenazi Jewish population

46
Q

Name effects of Thrombin

A
  • activated FV, VIII, XI, converts fibrinogen to fibrin (pro-coag)
  • activated FXIII, TAFI (anti-fibrinolytic)
  • binds to thrombomodulin on intact endothelium and activates protein C to inhibit coagulation downstream of injury
47
Q

What receptor is involved in fibrinogen-mediated platelet aggregation?

A

GPIIb/IIIa

- defect gives Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

48
Q

Baby with umbilical stump bleeding and ICH. Normal PT/PTT

  • Diagnosis?
  • Lab testing
A

FXIII deficiency

  • clot solubility test (qualitative test) and chromogenic assay (gold standard)
49
Q

what is results is seen on platelet aggregation for a patient with Bernard Soulier?

A

platelets fail to aggregate with ristocetin, but have normal aggregation with ADP, epi, thrombin and collagen

50
Q

what is the platelet aggregation pattern for Glanzmann’s?

A

Glanzman’s is global!
No aggregation with ADP, epi, collagen
only aggregate with ristocetin

51
Q

What is found inside the alpha granules of a platelet?

A

Large proteins: VWF, fibrinogen, PF4, PDGF

52
Q

What is found inside the dense granules of a platelet?

A

small molecules-ADP, ATP, serotonin, calcium

53
Q

What disorders have a dense granule deficiency?

A

Hermansky-pudlak, Chediak Higashi, WAS, TAR

54
Q

What is the platelet aggregation result for patients with Hermansky Pudlak?

A

Absent second wave to ADP, Epi and ristocetin

abnormal aggregation to collagen

55
Q

Why do you need to bridge with LMWH when starting warfarin

A

To avoid warfarin induced skin necrosis (drop in Protein C and S)

56
Q

DDAVP effect

A

VWF release
FVIII increase (more protection from VWF)
tPA release

57
Q

Most common mutation in Hemophilia A

A

Intron 22 inversion

58
Q

what are the 3 components of primary hemostasis?

A

subendothelium
platelets
VWF

59
Q

What receptor on the platelet surface allows for binding to VWF?

A

GP1b

60
Q

what occurs during the activation phase of primary hemostasis ?

A

platelets change shape to fill the hole in the endothelium. Platelets release ADP, serotonin, thromboxane A2 that cause vasoconstriction

61
Q

which factor has the shortest half life?

the longest half life?

A

shortest FVII-3-6hrs

longest FXIII 10 days

62
Q

which factor levels are not low at birth?

A

fibrinogen is normal
VIII is normal to high
VWF is normal to high
rest are all low

63
Q

which factors are made in other places than the liver?

A

Factor V-also in Megs
Factor VIII-also in endothelial cells
FActor XIII-also in macrophages
VWF-in endothelial cells and megs, NOT in the liver

64
Q

what are the inhibitors of the fibrinolytic system?

A

PAI-1 inhibits tPA

alpha2antiplasmin inhibits plasmin

65
Q

what do protein C and S inhibit?

A

VIIIa and Va

66
Q

what issues can happen to a blood sample drawn for PT/PTT before the sample is processed? (pre-analytical)

A

sample not processed quickly-temp artifact
difficult blood draw-milking the vessel leads to the sample starting to clot and consumes factors
heparin in the sample

67
Q

What is the PFA-100 test?

A

assesses flow through a membrane, membrane closure time is measured in response to ADP/collagen and Epi/collagen

collagen/epi is run first, only run ADP if epi is prolonged
if both prolonged suggests possible plt defect or VWD

68
Q

PT/PTT relies on 9:1 ratio of plasma to citrate
What happens if there’s too little plasma?
Too much plasma?

A

too little=elevated levels
occurs if tube not filled or polycythemia
too much=falsely normal levels
happens in severe anemia

69
Q

PT tests which pathway?
aPTT?
PT and aPTT?

A

PT-extrinsic
PTT-intrinsic
both-common pathway

70
Q

what 3 clinical scenarios occur when a patient is Vit K deficient?

A

Early-first 24hrs, because of maternal use of warfarin AEDs
Classical-2-7d of life because of low stores
Late- day 7-6 months due to disorders that interefere with Vit k-CF, liver disease

71
Q

What is the best way to test for a hemophilia carrier?

A

genetic testing

Factor levels can rise and fall

72
Q

what is the definition of mild, mod, severe hemophilia?

A

severe <1% factor, spontaneous bleeds
moderate 1-5%, bleeding after mild-mod trauma, seldom spontaneous
mild 5-40%, bleeding after mod-severe trauma

73
Q

what is the risk of developing inhibitors in hemophilia A and B?

A

Severe hemophilia A-25%
severe hemophilia B-5%
Moderate hemophilia 1-2%

74
Q

What is the definition of a target joint?

A

In the same joint:
3 bleeds in 6mths
4 bleeds in one year

75
Q

what is primary prophylaxis?

A

treatment with factor before the second joint bleed, before any joint disease

76
Q

what doses of factor rise the factor activity?

A

FVIII-1 IU/kg increases by 2%

FIX- 1IU/kg rises by 1%

77
Q

what factor dosing is required in the following situations:

  • intracranial bleeds
  • joint bleeds
  • muscle bleed
  • surgery
A
  • intracranial bleeds-correct to 100% for 14days
  • joint bleeds-correct to 40-60%, for 1-3 days
  • muscle bleed-40-60% until can move without pain
  • surgery- to 100% preop then keep >50% until risk of bleeding is over
78
Q

what are the side-effects of DDAVP therapy?

which hemophilia patients can it be used in?

A

facial flushing
hyponatremia, seizures have been reported in kids under 2yrs, contraindicated in this age
thrombosis is a rare complication

can be used in mild hemophilia A patients

79
Q

what are the types of inhibitors?

A

low titre:
<5BU
low responders-if given FVIII they won’t make antibodies
can be treated with factor at higher than usual doses
High titre:
>5BU
always high responders- will always make antibodies when exposed
must use a bypassing agent

80
Q

1 bethesda unit neutralizes how much factor activity?

A

50%

81
Q

where is VWF stored?

A

in weibel-palade body in endothelial cells

in alpha granules in platelets

82
Q

which blood type has the lowest VWF levels?

A

type O

83
Q

What is type 2A VWD?

A

lack of large HMW multimers

84
Q

what test results for VWD make you suspicious for type 2?

A

when there’s a much lower level of ristocetin cofactor activity as compared to the vWF antigen (RCo:Ag ratio <0.6)

85
Q

what is type 2B VWD?

A

gain of function mutation that makes VWF too adherent to platelets
low dose RIPA is increased

86
Q

what is type 2N VWD?

A

when VWF cannot bind to FVIII
often confused with hemophilia
see low FVIII level

87
Q

what is type 2M VWD?

A

loss of function mutation causes VWF unable to bind well to platelets (at GP1b)
this is shown by low R:Co activity

88
Q

what oncology diagnosis causes acquired VWD?

A

wilms tumour

89
Q

what clinical scenarios can occur with fibrinogen deficiency?

A

post trauma/surgery bleeds
soft tissue bleeding
splenic rupture can occur
pregnancy loss

90
Q

what clinical scenarios can occur with FX deficiency?

A

intracranial hemorrhages are more common

91
Q

what clinical scenarios can occur with FXIII deficiency?

A

umbilical stump bleeding

ICH

92
Q

define dysfibrinogenemia

A

dysfunctional fibrinogen that can either lead to bleeding or clotting
bleeding due to loss of proper clot formation
thromobosis due to dysfibrinogens that resist fibrinolysis
See prolonged TT