Hemodynamic Monitoring Flashcards

1
Q

Minimal Standard Monitors

A

1 .Electrocardiogram (HR and rhythm)

  1. Blood pressure
  2. Precordial stethoscope
  3. Pulse oximetry
  4. Oxygen analyzer
  5. End tidal carbon dioxide

document q5 min minimum

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2
Q

Minimal Standard - On Graphic Display

A
  1. Electrocardiogram
  2. Blood pressure
  3. Heart rate
  4. Ventilation status
  5. Oxygen saturation

continuous display

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3
Q

precordial sthetoscope

A

a stethoscope that is placed on the chest (just the bell part) that is attached to tubing with an ear piece on the other end

used for continuously listen to breath sounds and heart tones throughout the case.

You can quickly pick up on changes in patient condition (loss of breath sounds, loss of heart tones, etc).

used in peds 100% of the time

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4
Q

esophageal sthetoscope

A

used for continuous assessment of a pt’s breath sounds and health sounds

placed inside of the ETT - pt has to be intubated

28-30 cm into the esophagus

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5
Q

EKG

what is it? what it is not?

A

Recording of electrical activity of the heart

does NOT tell you about circulation

NOT a pulse rate monitor

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6
Q

EKG - what do you use it for?

A
  1. – Detect arrhythmias
  2. – Monitor heart rate
  3. – Detect ischemia
  4. – Detect electrolyte changes
  5. – Monitor pacemaker function
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7
Q

5 Principle ECG Indicators of Acute Ischemia

A
  1. ST segment elevation , ≥1mm
  2. T wave inversion
  3. Development of Q waves
  4. ST segment depression, flat or downslope of ≥1mm
  5. Peaked T waves
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8
Q

Lead I, AVL, V1-V4

A

Anterior wall ischemia (left coronary artery)

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9
Q

Lead V1-V4

A

Anterioseptal ischemia

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10
Q

Lead I, AVL, V5-V6

A

Lateral wall ischemia

(circumflex branch of left coronary artery)

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11
Q

Lead II, III, AVF

A

(Posterior)/ Inferior wall ischemia

(right coronary artery)

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12
Q

How far is an esophageal stethoscope inserted into the esophagus?

A

28-30cm.

This allows us to hear heart sounds and BS internally.

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13
Q

What are precordial and esophageal stethoscopes useful for?

A

Continuous assessment of heart and breath sounds.

Very sensitive monitor for bronchospasm and changes in pediatric patients

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14
Q

How often should we have a regular stethoscope available?

A

At all times

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15
Q

What 4 general things are continually evaluated?

A

Oxygenation, ventilation, circulation, and temperature

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16
Q

Considerations in deciding what type of monitoring to use

A

1) Indication
2) Risk/benefit
3) Complications
4) Alternatives
5) Cost
6) Skill level

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17
Q

Types of hemodynamic monitoring used

A

EKG, BP (NIBP and IABP), CVP, PAP, PCWP, TEE, stethoscope

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18
Q

What can the EKG tell you?

A
  1. Heart rate
  2. arrhythmias
  3. Ischemia
  4. electrolyte imbalances
  5. pacemaker function
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19
Q

Aspects of the 3 Lead EKG

A

Electrodes used: RA, LA, LL

Leads: I, II, III

Number of views of the heart: 3

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20
Q

Aspects of the 5 lead EKG

A

Electrodes used: RA, LA, RL, LL, chest

Leads: I, II III, AVL, AVR, AVF, V lead

Number of views of the heart: 7

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21
Q

Value of the length and width of each EKG box

A

0.1mV and 0.04s

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22
Q

How to calculate HR based on EKG lead

A

1500/# boxes between R waves

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23
Q

How should the gain be set in order to accurately assess the ST segment?

A

At standardization (1mV signal gives a rise of 10mm).

This setting also fixes the ratio of the QRS complex to the ST segment size so that a 1mm change in the ST segment can be accurately assessed.

If the wrong gain setting is used, ST changes may be under or over-diagnosed.

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24
Q

What filtering mode should the EKG be on for accurate ST assessment?

A

Diagnostic mode.

Filtering out the low end of frequency bandwith (which can happen on monitor mode) can lead to ST distortion (either elevation OR depression)

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25
Q

Posterior / inferior wall ischemia is seen in these leads and is due to a blockage in this artery

A

II, III, AVF

Right coronary

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26
Q

Lateral wall ischemia is seen in these leadsand is due to a blockage in this artery

A

I, AVL, V5-6

Left circumflex coronary artery

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27
Q

Anterior wall ischemia is seen in these leadsand is due to a blockage in this artery

A

I, AVL, V1-4

Left coronary artery

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28
Q

Anterioseptal wall ischemia is seen in these leads and is due to a blockage in this artery

A

V1-4

Left anterior descending coronary artery

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29
Q

This part of BP correlates to the point of the most demand on the heart

A

SBP

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30
Q

The pulse pressure changes as you move from where to where

A

From the central arterial system to the periphery.

The pulse pressure widens due to wave reflections in the vasculature.

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31
Q

These factors can cause a falsely high NIBP reading

A
  1. Cuff too small
  2. cuff below the level of the heart
  3. loose cuff
  4. arterial stiffness (HTN, PVD)
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32
Q

These factors can cause a falsely low NIBP reading

A
  1. Cuff too large
  2. cuff above the level of the heart
  3. poor tissue perfusion
  4. deflation is too rapid
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33
Q

Fals NIBP reading can also occur with

A
  1. Cardiac dysrhythmia
  2. tremors/shivering
  3. improper cuff placement
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34
Q

This type of NIBP reading only gives you SBP

A

Palpation.

It measures the return of arterial pulse during deflation.

This is simple, inexpensive, and underestimates the SBP.

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35
Q

This NIBP reading only gives you SBP but measures it fairly reliably

A

Doppler.

Measures it by a shift in frequency of sound waves that is reflected by RBCs moving through an artery.

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36
Q

This NIBP method estimates both SBP and DBP

A

Auscultation with a sphygmomanometer.

Measures BP by auscultation Karotkoff sounds created by turbulent blood flow though the artery created by the mechanical deformation from the BP cuff.

This method is unreliable in patients with HTN.

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37
Q

Changes in SBP correlate with changes in ____

A

Myocardial O2 demand.

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38
Q

Automated cuffs work by this mechanism

A

Oscillometry

39
Q

Complications of NIBP measurement

A
  1. Ulnar nerve damage
  2. compartment syndrome
  3. edema of the extremity
  4. bruising / petechiae
  5. pain
  6. interference of IV flow
  7. altered timing of IV drug administration
40
Q

Indications for IABP monitoring (invasive)

A
  1. Deliberate hypotension
  2. Risk of rapid BP changes
  3. Wide swings in BP intra-op
  4. Rapid fluid shifts
  5. Titration of vasoactive drugs
  6. End organ disease
  7. Repeated blood sampling
  8. NIBP measurement failure
41
Q

What test has to be done before radial a-line placement?

A

Allen’s test

42
Q

Rate that NS moves through the a-line system to prevent clot formation

A

1-3mL/hr

43
Q

How can a-line dynamics and accuracy be improved?

A
  1. Remove bubbles
  2. calibrate at the level of the heart
  3. minimize tube length
  4. limit the number of stop-cocks
  5. use non-compliant stiff tubing
  6. make sure the mass of the fluid used is small
44
Q

Where should the a-line be calibrated?

A

Supine patients- midaxillary line (right atrium)

Sitting patients- level of the ear (circle of willis) because we are concerned about CBF

45
Q

Exaggerated variations in a-line tracing size with respirations indicates

A

Hypovolemia

46
Q

The area under the a-line curve tells you

A

MAP

47
Q

The dicrotic notch indicates the closure of this valve

A

Aortic valve

48
Q

What happens to IABP readings as they move further into the periphery?

A

Distal pulse amplification!

This causes increased SBP, decreased DBP, and increased pulse pressure.

MAP remains unchanged.

The dicrotic notch becomes less and less apparent and appears later in the tracing (takes longer for the pressure wave to reach the transducer).

49
Q

Complications of IABP measurement

A
  1. Nerve damage
  2. hemorrhage/hematoma
  3. retained guidewire
  4. infection
  5. thrombosis
  6. air embolus
  7. arterial aneurysm
  8. vasospasm (usually self-limiting)
  9. skin necrosis
  10. loss of digits
50
Q

Are fluids able to be given faster through a PIV or central line?

A

PIV

51
Q

Indications for getting central access

A
  1. Need more vascular access (unable to get enough PIVs) and need to rapidly give fluids - vascular access
  2. give vasoactive meds
  3. monitor CVP - measuring right heart filling pressure
  4. assess fluid status/blood volume
  5. sample venous blood
  6. remove air emboli
  7. pulmonary artery access
  8. insertion of transvenous pacing leads
52
Q

Why is the right IJ preferred to the left

A
  1. It provides a more direct route to the heart
  2. the dome of the lung is higher on the left
  3. has the least aount of complications
  4. left IJ takes a little turn - more challenging placement
53
Q

Typical central venous catheter size

A

7 french

20cm

54
Q

If anesthesia places a central line, is placement confirmed with an x-ray?

A

if placed in the IJ:

  • No, it is confirmed with blood aspiration from all 3 ports. X-ray is taken after surgery if decided to be kept in

if placed in the subclavian:

  • YES
55
Q

Where should the tip of the central line be located?

A

Tip in the SVC, just above the junction of the vena cavae and RA and parallel to the vessel walls.

  • bellow the inferior border of the clavicle at the level and above the 3rd rib
  • the T4/5 interspace or the level of the carina or R mainstem bronchus.
56
Q

When is a central line contraindicated?

A

R atrial tumor

Infection at site

57
Q

Central line risks

A

usually d/t poor technique

  1. Thrombo-embolism
  2. air embolism
  3. guidewire embolism
  4. carotid puncture
  5. hematoma
  6. dysrhythmia - watch your EKG
  7. pneumo/hemothorax
  8. vascular damage
  9. cardiac tamponade
  10. infection
58
Q

What does CVP measure?

A

right sided pressures

CVP measures the RAP (because it’s right at the RA junction), which is a measure of right ventricle preload

results from ebbs and flows of blood in the right atrium

59
Q

Normal mean RA pressure in a spontaneously breathing patient is ______

and it rises about _______ during mechanical ventilation

A

1-7mmHg

3-5mmHg

60
Q

Size of pulmonary artery catheters and number of lumels

A
  1. 7-9 french
  2. 110cm
  3. 4 lumens
    • distal is for PAP
    • second is 30cm more proximal for CVP
    • third is for balloon
    • fourth is for the thermistor wires)
61
Q

Indications for PAP monitoring

A
  1. Unstable cardiac patients
  2. LV dysfunction
  3. Pulmonary HTN
  4. ARDS/resp failure
  5. Shock/sepsis
  6. ARF
  7. CAD
  8. Valvular disease
  9. Surgical procedures, such as cardiac, aortic, or OB
  10. big cases that have lots of fluid shifts
62
Q

Complications of pulmonary artery catheters

A
  1. Arrhythmias (v-fib, RBBB, complete heart block)***
  2. PA rupture****
  3. Balloon rupture
  4. Pulmonary infarction
  5. Thromboembolism/air embolism
  6. Pneumothorax
  7. Catheter knotting
  8. Damage to cardiac structures (valves)
  9. Infection (endocarditis)
63
Q

Relative contraindications to a PA catheter

A

WPW syndrome

Complete LBBB

64
Q

Distance from right IJ to various structures

vena cava/RA junction, RA, RV, PA, PA wedge

A

SVC/RA junction- 15cm

RA- 15-25cm

RV- 25-35cm

PA- 35-45

PA Wedge 45-50

If you go beyond these measurements and don’t see the proper waveform, you may be coiling the catheter

65
Q

When might the a wave be larger than normal

A

Mitral/tricuspid stenosis

66
Q

When might the v wave be larger than normal?

A

Mitral/tricuspid insufficiency, causing blood to reflux into the atrium during systole.

Remember that the v wave reflects atrial filling during late systole

67
Q

Ways that we can measure CO

A
  1. Thermodilution
  2. continuous thermodilution
  3. ultrasound
  4. TEE
  5. pulse contour
  6. mixed venous oximetry
68
Q

“a” waves may be lost with

A

a-fib

ventricular pacing

69
Q

Giant a waves (“Cannon” a waves) may be caused by

A
  1. Junctional rhythms
  2. complete HB
  3. mitral stenosis
  4. diastolic dysfunction
  5. myocardial ischemia
  6. ventricular hypertrophy
70
Q

Large V waves may be caused by

A

Mitral/tricuspid regurgitation

Acute increase in intravascular volume

71
Q

7 things you can observe with TEE (cardiac parameters)

A
  1. CO
  2. Ventricular wall characteristics and motion
  3. Valve structure and function
  4. Measurement of EDV and ESV
  5. Blood blow characteristics
  6. Intracardiac masses
  7. Intracardiac air
72
Q

When is the use of TEE indicated?

A
  1. Pericardial tamponade (for trauma)
  2. Unusual causes of acute hypotension
  3. PE
  4. Aortic dissection
  5. Myocardial ischemia
  6. Valvular dysfunction

Overall, if someone is still very unstable and unresponsive to our treatments, we can use TEE to get a better overall picture of our patients- checking to see what the actual structural problem might be

73
Q

Complications of TEE

A
  1. Esophageal trauma
  2. Dysphagia
  3. Hoarseness (upper airway issues)
  4. Dysrhythmias

Most complications are reported in awake patients

74
Q

Invasive IABP measurement - what is it

A

Involves percutaneous insertion of catheter into an artery, which is then transduced to convert the generated pressure into an electrical signal to provide a waveform

75
Q

Invasive IABP measurement - advantages

A

– Generates real-time beat to beat BP

– Allows access for arterial blood samples

– Measurement of CO/ CI/ SVR

76
Q

how do you do an Allen’s test?

A

occlude ulnar and radial artery

release ulnar artery

check for collateral flow

77
Q

what do you use Pulmonary Artery Pressure Monitoring for?

A

Direct assessment of:

  1. Intracardiac pressures (CVP, PAP, PCWP)
  2. Estimate LV filling pressures
  3. Assess LV function
  4. CO
  5. Mixed venous oxygen saturation
  6. PVR and SVR

measures the left side of the heart

78
Q

PA catheter “a” wave (PCWP) - what is it?

A

contraction of the left atrium

Normally it is a small deflection unless there is resistance in moving blood into the left ventricle as in mitral stenosis

79
Q

PA catheter (PWCP) v wave - what is it?

A

blood enters the left atrium during late systole

rapid rise in the left ventricular pressure in early systole, causing the mitral valve to bulge backward into the left atrium, so that the atrial pressure increases momentarily

80
Q

Rate of a-line upstroke tells you about

A

Contractility

81
Q

Rate of a-line downstroke tells you about

A

SVR

82
Q

How is RVEDP measured with CVP tracing?

A

The a wave (end diastole) correlates with maximal filling of the right ventricle

83
Q

What is the a wave?

A

Contraction of the right atrium, which results in increased RAP (since there is no pressure difference between the vena cava and the atrium)

84
Q

The a wave follows this on the EKG

A

The p wave.

85
Q

This CVP wave is the atrial kick (atrial contraction)

A

The a wave

results in the filling of the right ventricle

86
Q

What is the c wave a reflection of?

A

Isovolumetric contraction of the right ventricle, resulting in the bulging back of the tricuspid valve into the RA

atrial pressure decreases after “a” wave d/t to relaxation - the little blip in pressure is related to the tricuspid valve bulging back

87
Q

The c waves follows this waveform on the EKG

A

The QRS complex.

The c wave occurs in early systole

88
Q

The x descent occurs during

A

Mid-systole. The x descent follows the c wave.

atrial pressure continues to decline cause atria relaxes (while the ventricle is contracting)

aka “systolic collapse in atrial pressure

89
Q

The v wave reflects what?

A

Venous return into the RA against a closed tricuspid valve

return of blood into the right atrium from vena cava

(encompasses a portion of the RV systole)

90
Q

When does the V wave occur during the cardiac cycle and EKG?

A

At the end of systole with the tricuspid valve still closed, and it occurs just after the T wave.

91
Q

What does the y descent reflect?

A

Passive ventricular filling after ventricular relaxation - tricuspid valve opens and blood flows from atrium into the ventricle

The y descent reflects a fall in RAP due to this.

This is referred to the “diastolic collapse in atrial pressure” - occurs in early diastole

92
Q
A
  1. Systolic upstroke
  2. systolic peak pressure
  3. systolic decline
  4. dicrotic notch aortic valve closure)
  5. diastolic runoff
  6. end-diastolic pressure
93
Q

match the waves with appropriate location

A
  1. aorta
  2. brachial artery
  3. radial artery
  4. femoral artery
  5. dorsalis pedis
94
Q

identify the waveform’s location

A