heme test Flashcards

1
Q

what is the inherited hypercoagulable state he said to know?

A

factor V leiden mutation

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2
Q

what are some causes of venous stasis?

A

immobility, hyerviscosity, increased central venous pressure

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3
Q

venous thromboembolism includes what?

A

dvt and PE

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4
Q

what are the classic VTE hx?

A

cancer, airplane, surgery, long drive, hospital

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5
Q

DVT signs and symptoms?

A

unilateral lower extremity swelling, warmness, erythema, tenderness, cyanotic hue, and decreased pulses

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6
Q

what is post thrombotic syndrome?

A

reflux due to valvular incompetence and venous HTN due to thrombotic obstruction usually 6 months after DVT

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7
Q

acute pe signs and symptoms and MC ecg manifestations?

A

sudden shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, hemoptysis, syncope, sinus tach, non specific ST and T wave changes

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8
Q

what do you order if the well’s criteria is greater than 4?

A

ct pulmonary angiography

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9
Q

what is D-dimer?

A

degredation of fibrin, elevated in thrombus. if <500 low likely hood of VTE

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10
Q

what is the treatment for VTE

A

LMWH (enoxaparin) w/ warfarin. Trx for 5 days and until 24 hrs of INR >2

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11
Q

how long to treat w/ warfarin if unprovoked or provoked VTE?

A

3 months

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12
Q

what is trx for VTE w/ cancer?

A

LMWH 3-6 months/ when cancer is healed

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13
Q

what does the PESI tell you?

A

30 day mortality

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14
Q

when would you screen for inherited thrombophilia?

A

family hx of unprovoked, unprovoked DVT <45, recurrent VTE, recurrent pregnancy loss

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15
Q

explain platelet hematopoiesis

A

myeloid stem cells develop into a megakaryocyte, that splinters, and gets covered by a plasma membrane

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16
Q

3 functions of blood

A

protection, regulation, transportation

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17
Q

when should HgB a be present?

A

6 months after birth

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18
Q

where is the hematopoiesis before the bone marrow?

A

yolk sac then spleen and liver

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19
Q

why does extramedullary hematopoiesis occur?

A

as a result of a clonal disorder crowding out the normal hematopoiesis

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20
Q

what will be elevated in extramedullary hematopiesis?

A

hemoglobin F

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21
Q

what are the two types of stem cells?

A

myeloid and lymphoid

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22
Q

where is erythropoietin made?

A

kidneys

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23
Q

where is thrombopoietin made?

A

liver

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24
Q

how long does a RBC survive?

A

120 days then removed from circulation by the reticuloendothelial system (spleen)

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25
Q

what is HCT?

A

percentage of total blood volume occupied by RBCs

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26
Q

what is globin?

A

4 chains combined, 2 alpha and 2 beta

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27
Q

what is heme broken into?

A

bilirubin and Iron

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28
Q

what is globin broken into?

A

amino acids

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29
Q

what transfers free hemoglobin?

A

haptoglobin

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30
Q

how long do WBCs live?

A

few hours or days, excepty lymphocytes live for months or years

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31
Q

what is th MC form of leukocyte?

A

neutrophil

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32
Q

monocytes mature into what?

A

macrophages

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33
Q

what is the life span of a platelet?

A

5-9 days

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34
Q

Hgb x 3 should equal what?

A

HCT

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35
Q

what can give a falsely elevated HCT?

A

dehydration

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36
Q

what is mean corpuscular volume?

A

acerage sice of RBCs, imporant for anemia!!

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37
Q

what is red cell distribution width?

A

range of sizes of RBCs (anisocytosis)

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38
Q

what is leukocytosis?

A

WBCs above 10,000

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39
Q

what is leukemoid reaction?

A

a benign condition in which a high number of WBC found on a blood test resembles numbers seen in leukemia, but is a result of stress or infection, drugs

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40
Q

what is leukopenia?

A

absolute neutrophil count <500 most frequently caused by chemo

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41
Q

what determines the severity of polycythemia?

A

RBC mass

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42
Q

if a retculocyte count is high what is it usually indicating?

A

bleeding/ hemolysis

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43
Q

When is PBS definitively diagnostic?

A

Sickle cell and malaria

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44
Q

What do schistocytes represent?

A

TTP, HUS, DIC

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45
Q

What are shistocytes?

A

Irregular fragmented RBCs that area crescent, bitten, or helmet inappearance

46
Q

What are spherocytes?

A

Round shaped usually present if the there is severe hemolysis

47
Q

When is a hypersegmented neutrophil present?

A

Megaloblast anemias

48
Q

When is a bone marrow biopsy helpful?

A

Diagnosis and staging of lymphomas, plasma cell tumors, and leukemia’s

49
Q

What is the normal amount of hemoglobin A, A2, F?

A

97%, 2.5%, 1%

50
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of anemia?

A

Fatigue, pallor, weakness,tachycardia, dyspnea, angina

51
Q

What is ferritin?

A

Directly related to iron stored in your body, specifically the liver

52
Q

What is transferrin?

A

Directly related to TIBC, used to transport iron in the body

53
Q

What is hepcidin?

A

Acute phase reactant, helps regulate the storage of iron by inhibiting ferroportin, it is decreased in hypoxia or anemia typically.

54
Q

What is hemosiderin?

A

Insoluble form of iron, formed when there is an excess in the body

55
Q

What pathologies are associated w/ microcytic anemia?

A

Anemia or chronic disease, iron deficiency, thalassemia, sideroblastic anemia

56
Q

What is the MC cause of anemia world wide?

A

Iron deficiency?

57
Q

At are some signs of iron deficiency anemia?

A

Gloss it is, cheilosis, koilonychia, nail dystrophy, PICA

58
Q

What is Plummer-Vinson syndrome?

A
  1. Dysphasia, esphageal webs, iron deficiency anemia MC in post menopausal women
59
Q

What is diagnositic for iron deficiency anemia?

A

Decreased ferritin

60
Q

What is the work up for iron deficiency anemia after it has been established?

A

GI blood loss, EGD and colonoscopy, (spruce, gastric bypass, H. Pylori), decreased intake

61
Q

What is the preferred therapy for iron deficiency anemia?

A

Oral replacement w/ a response in 3 weeks and a full return to baseline after 2 months, continue 3-6 months or until ferritin returns to normal

62
Q

Complications of IM iron?

A

Extreme pain and hemosiderin deposition

63
Q

What is the key phrase for describing thalassemias?

A

Significant microcytosis out of proportion to the degree of anemia

64
Q

What thalassemia is not compatible w/ life?

A

Barts-hydrops fetalis

65
Q

What causes alpha thalassemia?

A

Deletion of genes coded to make alpha hemoglobin chains

66
Q

What causes Beta thalassemia??

A

Point mutation

67
Q

How can you tell if there is a beta thalassemia?

A

There will be higher portions of HbF and HbA2

68
Q

Thalassemia affects what groups more commonly?

A

Asians and Africans, its a heterogeneous disorder

69
Q

Target cells are associated w/ what microcytosis?

A

Thalassemia

70
Q

What is the method for detecting a beta thalassemia?

A

Electrophoresis

71
Q

What is the treatment for thalassemia?

A

Mild: avoidance of unnecessary iron replacement

Severe: frequent transfusions, folate supplementation, splenectomy

72
Q

What is the treatment for anemia of chronic disease?

73
Q

What is associated w/ acquired sideroblastic anemia?

A

Drugs ethanol, isoniazid, toxins LEAD,

74
Q

What will the peripheral blood smear show for sideroblastic anemia?

A

Basophils stippling especially w/ lead poisoning

75
Q

What is the treatment for sideroblastic anemia?

A

Discontinue the offending agent and trial of pyridoxine (B6)

76
Q

What is the MC cause of macrocytosis?

A

Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency

77
Q

What are hyper segmented neutrophils associated w/?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

78
Q

What deficiencies will have both macro and microcytosis?

A

Thalassemia and iron deficiency

79
Q

What are the MC causes of megaloblastic anemia?

A

B12 and folic acid deficiency

80
Q

Megaloblastic anemia is associated w/ what when caused by b12 deficiency?

A

Neuropsychiatric symptoms, first peripheral then posterior and lateral columns of the spinal cord and cortex w/ neuropsychiatric s s

81
Q

What will be found sooner folate or B12 deficiency?

A

Folate because it’s used more

82
Q

What is myelodysplastic syndromes?

A

Pre leukemia, heterogenous bone marrow disorders characerized by ineffective blood cell production and dysphasia due to mutation in a hematopoietic stem cell. >60 and children, BIG BIG CELL >105, incrrreased risk for AML

83
Q

Evidence of hemolysis?

A

Jaundice, icterus, inc. reticulocytes, decreased haptoglobin

84
Q

The increased inflammatory process in anemia of chronic disease causes what release?

A

Hepcidin the thing that’s responsible for helping iron get absorbed

85
Q

For a patient that has anemia of chronic disease that’s symptomatic and Hb <10 what is the treatment?

A

EPO if they have cancer w/ chemo, CKD <30, HIV w/ myelosuppresion

86
Q

Who are the weird acute blood loss patients?

A

Post surgical or retroperitoneal hemorrhage

87
Q

What is the difference between aplastic and myelodyplastic bone marrow?

A

Myelodyplastic is hypercellular and aplastic is hypocellullar

88
Q

What are causes of secondary inherited and acquired aplastic anemia?

A

Fanconi, drugs like NSAIDs

89
Q

What causes dark colored urine?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

90
Q

What is the best screening test and treatment for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

A

Flow cytometry, eculizumab

91
Q

What is the MC hemolytic anemia due to RBC membrane defect?

A

Hereditary spherocytosiis

92
Q

What cells are associated w/ G6pd deficiency?

A

Heinz’s bodies and bite cells

93
Q

What cells are associated w/ sickle cell?

A

Howell jollie bodies and target cell

94
Q

When are transfusions indicated?

A

HgB <7 or active significant hemorrhage

95
Q

For one pack of RBCs what is the HCT and HB increase?

A

3-4% and 1 g/dL

96
Q

What contains all the coal factors?

A

Fresh frozen plasma, cryoprecipitate doesn’t have all, but is good for vWd and hypofribrinogenemia

97
Q

What is a leukoagglutination reaction?

A

Febrile non-hemolytic reaction, w/in 12 hrs, treat w/ diphenhydramine, Tylenol, corticosteroids

98
Q

What is a true hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Mismatched ABO/RH, MC clerical error, fever rigors, hypotension, if surgery Liguria

99
Q

What is delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

From low allocation day levels not detected in screen, it’s occurring extravascularly, 5-10 days

100
Q

What infections are associated with fucked up transfusions?

A

Hep B and C, HIV, and HTLV

101
Q

What are the things that are infused together for a massive transfusion?

A

PRBC, platelets, FFP

102
Q

What does Coumadin initially inhibit that causes hyper coaguability?

A

Vitamin k and that fucks protein C

103
Q

What is depleted in DIC?

A

Fibrinogen

104
Q

What measures the extrinsic pathway?

A

Prothrombin time

105
Q

What does the partial thromboplasin time measure?

106
Q

INR has a direct correlation to what?

107
Q

If a mixing study corrects what is the problem?

A

Factor deficiency

108
Q

If a mixing study does not correct what is the problem?

A

Inhibitor (antibody) to a coagulation factor

109
Q

What does bleeding time measure?

A

Platelet function

110
Q

What is the thing that effects all the pathways?

A

Liver disease

111
Q

What does heparin bind to?

A

Antithrombin III

112
Q

How do you rule out pseudo thrombocytopenia?

A

Repeat the plt count in non-EDTA containing tube like sodium citrate tube