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Heme/Oncology: 4/9-4/12 > Heme- FA > Flashcards

Heme- FA Flashcards

1
Q

Warfarin blocks what enzyme?

A

-

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2
Q

Basophilia- what malignancy?

A

CML

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3
Q

Life span of platelet? what about RBC?

A

platelet

RBC

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4
Q

How eosinophils are associated with parasites?

A

-

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5
Q

7 causes of DIC? (what is mnemonic?)

A

-

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6
Q

What three classes of anticoagulant drug do not require monitoring?

A

-

-

-

  • direct inhibitors don’t require monitoring (LMWH is also specific to Xa)
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7
Q

Conditions for

  • warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (3)
  • cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia (2)
A
  • warm
    1.
    2.
    3.
  • cold
    1.
    2.
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8
Q

Asian vs. African- what kind of deletion in thalassemia?

A

-

  • Asian is the worst (fuck)
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9
Q

Two fates of HMWK (High Molecular Weight Kininogen)?

A

-

-

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10
Q

Exact mechanism of action of 5FU?

A

-

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11
Q

What accumulated substrate causes port-wine color of urine in acute intermittent porphyria? where does this compound come from?

A

-

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12
Q

What can be given to reverse tPA toxicity as a thrombolysis inhibitor?

A

-

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13
Q

compare pattern of lymph nodes in Hodgkin vs. Non-Hodgkin

A

-

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14
Q

Four etiologies for aplastic anemia?

A

-
-

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15
Q

What process is defective in Fanconi anemia?

A

-

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16
Q

Define

  • anisocytosis
  • poikilocyrosis
A
  • anisocytosis

- poikilocytosis

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17
Q

Two hematologic disorders where splenctomy is indicated?

A

-

-

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18
Q

What is RBC, WBC, Platelets level look like in CML?

A
  • RBC
  • WBC
  • Platelets
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19
Q

Level of RBC in myelofibrosis?

A

-

  • level of WBCs and platelets are variable
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20
Q

Three actions of plasmin

A

-

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21
Q

What is the mutation in factor V laiden? what does this mutation do?

A

-

-

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22
Q

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

  • three phenotypes
  • markers
A

-

-

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23
Q

What is reticulocyte?

A

-

- indicates erythroid proliferation

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24
Q

Failure of aggregation of Ristocetin indicates what?

What two diseases?

A

-

-

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25
Q

What is in FFP (fresh frozen plasma)?

A

-

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26
Q

What is in cryoprecipitate (5)?

A 
-
-
-
-
-
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27
Q

Three indications for FFP?

A

-

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28
Q

What mutation on what gene is common in chronic myeloproliferative disorders?

A

-

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29
Q

How does anemia of chronic disease progress in terms of normocytic/microcytic/macrocytic anemia

A

-

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30
Q

How to treat HUS/TTP? why?

A

-

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31
Q

How does RBC membrane get changed in pyruvate kinase deficiency? what is mechanism? inheritance pattern of PK deficiency?

A

-

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32
Q

positive for TdT and CD10. Where two sites you also wanna check?

A

-

-

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33
Q

Heme does negative feedback to what enzyme in heme synthesis?

A

-

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34
Q

Which two hematologic disorders can be treated with IVIG

A
  • ITP (Immune thrombocytopenic purpura)
  • Immune hemolytic anemia
  • Immune mediated RBC or platelet destructions can be treated with IVIG. Whole idea is that Ig is sacrificed against destruction, preventing RBC or platelet from immune mediated destruction
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35
Q

Fatigue, cafe-au-lait sign, odd looking hands: diagnosis?

A

-

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36
Q

What is triad of PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)?

A

-

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37
Q

Why venous thrombosis is happening in PNH?

A

-

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38
Q

What is Diamond-Black fan anemia? three phenotypes?

A

intrinsic defect in erythroid progenitor cells, macrocytic anemia

  • triphalangeal thumbs
  • short stature
  • craniofacial abnormalities

vs. Fanconi anemia, where short stature is also seen, but radial/thumb deviation and no craniofacial abnormalities

39
Q

What alklyating agent is not recommend to patient with liver failure? why?

A

cyclophosphamide, which needs to be bioactivated in liver

40
Q

Antidote to reverse nephrotoxicity by cisplatin?

A

-

41
Q

Name 4 hypercoagulalbe hematologic disease

A
  • anti-thrombin deficiency
  • factor V laiden (most common)
  • protein C/S deficiency
  • prothrombin gene mutation (G20120A, 3’ UTR leading to high expression of prothrombin)
42
Q

What is in dense granules of platelet? (2)

A

-

-

43
Q

What is in alpha granules of platelet? (3)

A

-

44
Q

What is the common cause of acquired antithrombin deficiency?

A

-

45
Q

Multiple myeloma vs. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia: compare what peaks of immunoglobulin will be seen

A

MM: IgG and IgA
Wladenstrom macroglobulinemia: IgM

  • this kinda makes sense: MM is disorder of plasma cells, which produced antibodies (that underwent class switching).IgG and IgA can only be produced after class switching.
46
Q

Cosmetic side effect of bleomycin?

A

-

  • sketchy:
47
Q

Cosmetic side effect of doxorubucin?

A

-

  • sketchy:
48
Q

Effect of tPA in platelet count?

A

-

  • plasmin cleaves fibrin mesh and inhibits platelet aggregation, but it does not alter level of platelet itself.
49
Q

How to differentiate leukocytosis in CML vs. leukomoid reaction?

A

-

50
Q

How to treat PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)?

A

-

51
Q

What is common cause of ITP (immune thrombocytopenia)?

A

-

52
Q

What is target of antibody in ITP?

A

-

53
Q

How does lead poisoning cause basophilic stippling?

A

-

54
Q

four reactions in coagulation cascade that requires Ca2+ and phospholipid as cofactor?

A

-

55
Q

Factor 13a does what? what else does it need for reaction?

A

-

56
Q

A patient comes in with fever, hallucinations, and altered mental status. Labs show anemia, proteinuria, and thrombocytopenia. Diagnosis?

A

TTP

  • classic pentiad
    1. CNS defect
    2. renal defect
    3. thrombocytopenia (platelet used up for microthrombi)
    4. anemia
    5. fever
  • hallucination: CNS defect
57
Q

non-megaloblastic anemia

  • what is it
  • causes (2)
A

-

-

58
Q

Essential Thrombocytopenia

  • RBC level
  • WBC level
  • platelet level
A
  • RBC
  • WBC
  • platelet
59
Q

Adult T cell lymphoma

  • epidemiology
  • social history
  • what infection
  • clinical findings (3)
A

-
-

60
Q

“coombs negative hemolysis” is buzzword for what disease?

A

-

61
Q

Crew-cut on skull x-ray: what two hematologic disorders should I think?

A

*crew-cut indicates extramedullary hematopoeisis

62
Q

Explain the mechanism of heparin induced thrombocytopenia

A

-

63
Q

List three hematologic disorders that can have aplastic crisis by parvovirus B19 infection

A

-

64
Q

How to treat polycythemia vera?

A

-

65
Q

What is common presentation of AML?

A

-

66
Q

What type of hemolysis is seen in sickle cell?

A

BOTH extra and intravascular hemolysis

67
Q

What is clinical presentation of essential thrombocytopenia?

A

-

68
Q

two findings in blood smear of megaloblastic anemia

A

-

-

69
Q

In what condition is elliptocyte seen in blood smear?

A

-

70
Q

Describe four locations and timing of fetal erythropoeisis

A

-
-

71
Q

Cetuximab

  • MOA
  • use of cetuximab is limited to certain type of colorectal cancer. what type is this? why?
A

-

-

72
Q

One side effect of Rituximab?

A

-

73
Q

Antidote for heparin?

A

-

74
Q

Two phenotypes of Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

-

-

75
Q

Renal cell carcinoma resulting in polycythemia

  • plasma volume
  • O2 saturation
  • RBC mass
  • EPO
A
  • plasma volume: NL
  • O2 saturation: NL
  • RBC mass: increased
  • EPO: increased

cancer cells producing tons of EPO, secondary inappropriate polycythemia

76
Q

By what mechanism is septic shock initiated?

A

-

77
Q

Why heparin is given during initial treatment of warfarin?

A

-

78
Q

What stain is useful for reticulocyte on blood smear? what is it staining for?

A

-

-

79
Q

What is seen on blood smear in DIC?

A

-

80
Q

4 viral infections that cause aplastic anemia

A

-
-

81
Q

Which ABO blood type is used as a universal donor of plasma

A

AB

  • PLASMA- AB type don’t have any antibodies
82
Q

Hemoglobin electrophoresis finding in Diamond-Blackfan anemia?

A

-

83
Q

What is definition of myelodysplastic syndrome? what is serious complication of this disease?

A

blast less than 20% (more than 20% is considered as AML)

  • It can develop to AML
84
Q

What is required cofactor for activation of protein C?

A

-

85
Q

Disadvantage of fondaparinux/ LMWH compared to traditional heparin?

A

longer half-life, not easily reversible.

  • heparin has relatively short half-life and can be reversed by protamine sulfate
86
Q

Bleeding into joint (hemarthroses), what hematologic disease should I think first?

A

-

87
Q

What antibiotic can cause aplastic anemia

A

-

88
Q

G6PD deficiency: inheritance pattern?

A

-

89
Q

Define each and explain under what disease this happens

  • Hb Barts
  • HbH
  • increased HbF
  • increased HbA2
A
  • Hb Barts: gamma 4, 4 alpha gene deletions
  • HbH: beta 4, 3 alpha gene deletions
  • increased HbF: beta thalessemia major
  • increased HbA2: beta thalessemia minor (>3.5%)
90
Q

Which drug may lead to excessive bleeding (and excessive increased in INR) when given with warfarin? by what mechanism?

A

TMP-SMX

This binds to albumin and replaces warfarin bound to albumin, releasing free warfarin. Thus more warfarin activity

  • sketchy: photographer girl is bleeding excessivley
91
Q

Is target cell seen in alpha thalassemia?

A

YES.

generally target cell is seen with all beta globulin problems (sickle cell, HbC) as well as liver disease and asplenia.

I originally thought that only beta thalassemia can show target cell, but no. ALL THALASEMIAS INCLUDING ALPHA can also show target cells.

92
Q

CLL (CD5 and CD 20 positive) can progress to what another type of lymphoma?

A

diffuse large B cell lymphoma

93
Q

How CLL may result in anemia?

A

It can result in autoimmune hemolytic anemia, cold IgM

*think in this way: CLL is naive B cell leukemia (CD 5 and CD 20), so it may somehow produce cold IgM antibody?

94
Q

Asplenia: findings (2) on blood smear?

A
  • Howell-Jolly bodies

- target cell

Heme/Oncology: 4/9-4/12 (6 decks)

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