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Med Lab Exam 3 > Hematopoiesis Overview > Flashcards

Hematopoiesis Overview Flashcards

1
Q

BV = _______ + ________ + _______

A

WBC = Plasma Volume (55%) + RBC (44%) + WBC & PLTs (1%)

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2
Q 
What is not a site of Hematopoiesis?
A) spleen
B) kidney
C) liver
D) thymus
E) lymph nodes
A

B) Kidney

Sites of Hematopoeisis: bone marrow, spleen, liver, lymph nodes, thymus

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3
Q

Adult Sites of Hematopoiesis

A 
bone marrow (MEDULLARY HEMATOPOIESIS) 
sites: sternum, pelvic iliac crest
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4
Q

Fetal Site of Hematopoiesis

A

liver

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5
Q

Cell number is adjusted to need and regulated by __________?

A

Growth Factor

stimulation increases with need

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6
Q

What is extra medullary hematopoiesis?

A

hematopoisis outside of the bone marrow i.e. in the spleen or liver
result of abnormal requirements for hematopoiesis

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7
Q

____ cells are derived from a pool of stem cells and are ______.

A

ALL cells are derived from a pool of stem cells SELF-RENEWING

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8
Q

Pluripotential & mutlipotential stem cells give rise to ________ stem cells for each line. _________ stem cells have receptors for specific growth factors. (same word for both blanks)

A

Committed

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9
Q

What is the growth factor for RBC production?
A) Thrombopoietin
B) Erythropoietin
C) GM-CSF

A

B) Erythropoietin

A) Thrombopoietin -regulates PLT production
C) GM-CSF - regulates granulocyte and monocyte production

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10
Q

Thymus gland produces __ lymphs. Bone marrow produces __ lymphs.

A

Thymus - T cells

Bone Marrow - B cells

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11
Q

First recognizable cell in each cell line is:

A

blast

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12
Q

T/F Immature blast cells are small, with small nucleus and lots of cytoplasm.

A

False

Immature blast cell: large cell, large nucleus, fine chromatin, small amount of cytoplasm.

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13
Q

T/F Mature Cells are small, with chromatin clumps, Hgb or granules and have as decrease N/C ratio.

A

True

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14
Q 
Normal RBC and Hgb production requires:
A) amino acids
B) iron
C) folic acid
D) vitamin B12
E) all of the above
A

E) All of the above

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15
Q

RBC production is controlled by _______________?

A

Rate of oxygen delivery to the tissues.

Mainly regulated by erythropoietin produced by the kidneys.

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16
Q

Erythrocyte Maturation: Bone Marrow

A

four nucleated RBC stages

if nucleated RBCs are found in the blood - abnormal

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17
Q

Erythrocyte Maturation: Reticulocyte

A

nucleus is lost
blue-tinged red cells
POLYCHROMASIA on a differential report

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18
Q

Erythrocyte Maturation: Blood

A

mature RBCs

lifespan - 120 days

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19
Q

Normocytic

A 
normal size
normal MCV (volume)
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20
Q

Normochromic

A

normal color

Hgb content

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21
Q

T/F RBC shape doesn’t effect RBC survival.

A

False - Survival depends on maintaining shape.

Biconcave disc shape is best for oxygen transport and essential to deform in micro vessels.

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22
Q

What are the functions of RBCs?

A

O2 transport and CO2 removal

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23
Q

What are the building blocks of hemoglobin?

A

HEME - protoporphyin structure - central iron atom where oxygen binds (transferrin transports iron)

GLOBIN - amino acids in specific order (alpha, beta, gamma delta)

24
Q 
Which is not a normal hemoglobin type?
A) Hgb A 
B) Hgb A2
C) Hgb S
D) Hgb F
A

C) Hgb S - variant type causes sickle formation

3 normal hemoglobin types:
A) Hgb A - main adult type
B) Hgb A2
D) Hgb F - fetal type

25
Q

Defective Hgb synthesis produces (normo/micro/macro) ____ cytic and/or (normo/hypo/hyper) ______ chromic cells?

A

microcytic

hypochromic

26
Q

How are aged or defective red cells removed?

A

Tissue monocytes called macrophages in the liver and spleen

27
Q

RBC Destruction what happens to
A) iron
B) protoporphyrin
C) globulin

A

A) iron is recycled or stored as ferritin
B) protoporphyrin metabolized to bilirubin and urobilinogen - excreted to
C) globin - returned to amino acid pool

28
Q

Granulocyte Maturation: Bone Marrow

A

4 stages, granules appear

if in the blood: myelocytes and metamyelocytes - immature neutrophils this is abnormal

29
Q

Granulocyte Maturation: Marrow and Blood

A

immature band form

30
Q

Granulocyte Maturation: Blood

A

mature segmented form

short lifespan 1-2 days

31
Q

What is the role of neutrophils?

A

Phagocytosis
granules contain - lytic enzymes
defend against bacterial infections

32
Q

Increased numbers of band neutrophils is a left or a right shift?

A

LEFT

33
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

defend against parasitic infections

modify allergic reactions

34
Q

What is the function of basophils?

A

immediate hypersensitivity reactions

granules contain histamine

35
Q

Monocyte Maturation: Bone Marrow & Blood

A

Monocyte - largest normal cell in the blood

36
Q

What does a monocyte become when it enters the tissue (bone marrow, liver, lymph nodes, kidney, lungs)?

A

macrophages

37
Q

Monocyte Functions

A

phagocytic cell - doesn’t die - cleans up cells
granules contain lytic enzymes
immune response: APC

38
Q

T/F Antigen independent differentiation occurs in the primary lymphoid tissue.

A

True

39
Q

Lymphocytes defend against bacterial or viral infections?

A

Viral

40
Q

T lymphs regulate the ________ immunity.

B lymphs regulate the ________ immunity.

A

T lymphs: cellular immunity

B lymphs: humoral immunity

41
Q

Platelet Maturation and Function: Bone Marrow

A

platelet producing megakaryocyte - sheds cytoplasm and fragments are released into the blood

42
Q

Platelet Maturation and Function: Blood

A

act upon first injury - form a platelet plug
smallest cells
lifespan 10 days

43
Q

What test reflects iron stores w/o doing a biopsy?

A

Serum ferritin

44
Q

Ina normal adult, the major site of hematopoiesis occurs in the _______ and is termed __________ hematopoiesis.

A

Bone marrow, medullary

45
Q

Erythropoietin regulates erythropoiesis and is released by the ______ in response to ______________.

A

Kidney, tissue hypoxia

46
Q

Which of the following statements regarding reticulocytes is FALSE?
a. On a Wright’s stained blood smear, reticulocytes will have a blue appearance
described as polychromasia on the CBC with Differential report.
b. The number of reticulocytes in the blood is a good indicator of the rate of red cell
production by the bone marrow and normally is about 1%.
c. With normal conditions, about 10% of red cells in the blood are newly
released reticulocytes that replace a daily red cell loss of 10%.

A

c. With normal conditions, about 10% of red cells in the blood are newly
released reticulocytes that replace a daily red cell loss of 10%.
Daily red cell loss of 1% is replaced by release of retics by the bone marrow into the
blood.

47
Q

TRUE or FALSE. Normal erythrocyte and hemoglobin production requires intact
bone marrow function, sufficient erythropoietin stimulation and adequate supplies (e.g. iron).

A

True

48
Q

TRUE or FALSE. Red cell survival may be shortened by rigid, abnormally shaped red
cells with membrane defects or a variant hemoglobin type (e.g., Hgb S).

A

TRUE

49
Q

The main hemoglobin type found in normal adult red cells is:

a. Hemoglobin A composed of alpha and beta globin chains
b. Hemoglobin A2 composed of alpha and delta globin chains
c. Hemoglobin F composed of alpha and gamma globin chains

A

a. Hemoglobin A composed of alpha and beta globin chains ~97%

50
Q

The most numerous white cells in the blood of normal adults are:

a. band neutrophils and monocytes
b. monocytes and lymphocytes
c. segmented neutrophils and lymphocytes
d. eosinophils and basophils
e. blast cells and nucleated red cells

A

c. segmented neutrophils and lymphocytes

51
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of the neutrophil?
a. Becomes a macrophage of the reticuloendothelial system (RES); clears debris
and old or damaged cells.
b. Major role is phagocytosis; defense against bacteria.
c. Acts in humoral immunity; end-stage is an antibody producing plasma cell.
d. Active in allergic states; controls parasites.

A

b

52
Q 
A decreased number of white cells, red cells and platelets in the peripheral blood is
called:
a. pancytosis
b. pancytopenia
c. hyperplasia
d. thrombocytopenia
A

b. pancytopenia

53
Q

EDTA works by to prevent blood coagulation and is
the preferred anticoagulant for performing .
a. inhibiting thrombin, cell counts
b. binding calcium, coagulation tests
c. inhibiting thrombin, coagulation tests
d. binding calcium, cell counts

A

d. binding calcium, cell counts
Sodium citrate works by binding calcium and is the preferred anticoagulant for
performing coagulation tests.

54
Q

Control samples are run to monitor the testing process and can detect:
a. Pre-analytical errors such as wrong patient identification.
b. Specimen collection errors that affect sample integrity. = pre-analytical
c. Analytical errors caused by improper function of equipment or ‘bad’
reagents.

A

c

55
Q

Match the blood collection error with the best description or result listed on the right: Hemoconcentration- what causes it?

A

Prolonged stasis causes falsely high results.

56
Q

Match the blood collection error with the best description or result listed on the right: Hemolysis- What causes it?

A

Ruptured blood cells cause invalid results.

57
Q

Match the blood collection error with the best description or result listed on the right: Partially clotted blood- what does it cause?

A

Cells trapped in fibrin cause falsely low results.

Med Lab Exam 3 (7 decks)

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