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Hematology 1 > Hematopoiesis > Flashcards

Hematopoiesis Flashcards

1
Q

character of blood

normal volume in adult individuals

A

5-6 liters

5L - females, 6L - males

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2
Q

character of blood

percentage of blood in the body weight of adult individuals

A

7%-8%

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3
Q

character of blood

percentage of formed elements

A

45%

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4
Q

character of blood

percentage of the fluid portion

A

55%

two kinds of fluid: plasma (anticoagulated blood), serum (clotted blood)

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5
Q

plasma and serum

clotting factors present in plasma but not in serum

A

CF I, V, VIII, XIII

CF I - fibrinogen

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6
Q

character of blood

normal pH

A

7.35-7.45

slightly alkaline

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7
Q

character of blood

normal volume of oxygen carried by 1 gram of hemoglobin

A

1.34mL

average in adult - 600g of hemoglobin, so a total of about 800mL O2

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8
Q

main function of the blood

A

nutrient and gas transport

it also has a buffering effect in the blood - maintaining pH

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9
Q

it is the continuous, regulated process of renewal, proliferation, differentiation, and maturation of all blood cell lines

A

hematopoiesis

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10
Q

in simple terms, it is the process of blood production

A

hematopoiesis

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11
Q

hematopoiesis

term for red blood cell production

A

erythropoiesis

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12
Q

hematopoiesis

term for white blood cell production

A

leukopoiesis

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13
Q

hematopoiesis

term for platelet production

A

thrombopoiesis

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14
Q

where are functional blood cells released from?

A

bone marrow

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15
Q

life span of a mature red blood cell

A

120 days

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16
Q

this is capable of self-renewal and directed differentiation into all required cell lineages

A

hematopoietic stem cell

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17
Q

hematopoiesis in healthy adults is restricted to this organ

A

bone marrow

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18
Q

3 different periods of hematopoiesis

A

mesoblastic phase, hepatic phase, myeloid phase

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19
Q

period of hematopoiesis

start of mesoblastic phase

A

19th-20th day of gestation

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20
Q

period of hematopoiesis

end of mesoblastic phase

A

before the 3rd month of gestation

yolk sac diminishes - switching source of blood which needs more O2 req

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21
Q

period of hematopoiesis

source of blood for mesoblastic phase

A

yolk sac

type of blood - primitive erythroblasts (RBCs)

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22
Q

period of hematopoiesis

type of hemoglobin during the mesoblastic phase

A

Gower 1 and 2, Portland

embryonic hemoglobin

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23
Q

mesoblastic phase

these are important for the early embryogenesis to produce hemoglobin needed for delivery of oxygen to rapidly developing embryonic tissues

A

primitive but transient yolk sac erythroblasts

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24
Q

mesoblastic phase

difference of yolk sac hematopoiesis from hematopoiesis

A

it occurs intravascularly

within developing blood vessels

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25
Q

period of hematopoiesis

start of hepatic phase

occurs in the liver

A

5th to 6th/7th week of gestation

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26
Q

period of hematopoiesis

end of hepatic phase

A

1st to 2nd week after delivery

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27
Q

period of hematopoiesis

source of blood for the hepatic phase

A

liver, spleen, lymph nodes, thymus

thymus - for the complete maturation of lymphocytes

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28
Q

period of hematopoiesis

type of hemoglobin during the hepatic phase

A

Hgb F or the fetal hemoglobin (concentration should be at 60-90%)

detectable levels of Hgb A (adult hemoglobin) may also be present

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29
Q

hepatic phase

where does hematopoiesis occur during this phase

A

extravascularly - in the liver

hematopoiesis in the AGM region and yolk sac disappears during this time

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30
Q

hepatic phase

it is the first fully developed organ in the fetus and becomes the major site of T cell production

A

thymus

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31
Q

hepatic phase

organs that produce B cells

A

kidney and spleen

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32
Q

hepatic phase

production of these blood cells also start during this phase

A

megakaryocytes

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33
Q

period of hematopoiesis

myeloid phase is also called?

A

medullary phase (occurs in the medulla of bone cavity)

this is the hematopoiesis in the bone marrow

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34
Q

period of hematopoiesis

start of myeloid phase

A

4th to 5th month of gestation

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35
Q

period of hematopoiesis

end of the myeloid phase

A

until expiry

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36
Q

period of hematopoiesis

source of blood during the myeloid phase

A

red bone marrow

it assumes the responsiblity of the liver

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37
Q

period of hematopoiesis

type of hemoglobin during the myeloid phase

A

Hgb A1 and A2

concentration of A1: 97-98%
concentration of A2: 2-3%

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38
Q

myeloid phase

aside from Hgb A, measurable levels of these substances can also be detected during myeloid phase

A

erythropoietin (EPO), granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF), and granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF)

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39
Q

myeloid phase

this is a type of embryonic tissue that differentiates into structural elements (such as stromal cells , endothelial cells and reticular adventitial cells) that supports development of hematopoietic elements

A

mesenchymal cells

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40
Q

blood disorder

it is a condition when levels of Hgb F and Hgb A2 is increased while Hgb A1 is decreased

A

thalassemia

a type of anemia

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41
Q

period of hematopoiesis

these are the phases known as extramedullary hematopoiesis

the source of blood production is outside the bone marrow

A

mesoblastic and hepatic phase

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42
Q

these are the normal Hgb variants

A
  • Portland (embryonic)
  • Gower I and II (embryonic)
  • Hgb F (newborn and adult)
  • Hgb A1 and A2 (newborn and adult)

Hgb A1 has alpha and beta in the molecular structure

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43
Q

molecular structure: Portland

A

2 zeta 2 gamma

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44
Q

molecular structure: Gower I

A

2 zeta 2 epsilon

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45
Q

molecular structure: Gower II

A

2 gamma 2 epsilon

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46
Q

molecular structure: Hgb F

A

2 alpha 2 gamma

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47
Q

molecular structure: Hgb A1

A

2 alpha 2 beta

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48
Q

molecular structure: Hgb A2

A

2 alpha 2 delta

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49
Q

blood disorder

in this condition, liver is pushed to produce blood, making the liver overworked that may lead to liver abnormality

A

thalassemia

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50
Q

the most common site of bone marrow evaluation

A

pelvic bone

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51
Q

these are cells that can become a new form or other cells

A

stem cells

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52
Q

these cells can become red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets

A

HSCs - hematopoietic stem cells

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53
Q

hematopoietic stem cells

HSCs are directed to three possible fates

A
  • self-renewal (for storage)
  • differentiation (maturing continuously)
  • apoptosis (for balance)
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54
Q

why is apoptosis among the fate of the stem cells

A

not all daughter cells will live, because some has to die for balance in the body

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55
Q

blood disorder

this is a genetic problem when the bone marrow is uncontrolled and there is an overpopulation of red cells in the blood

due to the overpopulation of red cells - it leaks

A

polycythemia vera - may lead to infarction and death

there is too much blood - making it viscous and easier to clot and clog

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56
Q

fate of stem cells

two types of division

A

symmetric division and asymmetric division

symmetric - having the same fate, asymmetric - having different fates

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57
Q

type of division where both daughter cells follow the path of differentiation, leaving the stem cell pool

A

symmetric division

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58
Q

type of division when one daughter cell may return to the stem cell pool while the other daughter cell may follow the path of differentiation or undergo apoptosis

A

asymmetric division

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59
Q

theories of hematopoiesis

3 theories

A
  • monophyletic thoery (most accepted)
  • dualistic theory
  • polyphyletic theory
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60
Q

theories of hematopoiesis

it is a theory that suggests that all blood cells are derved from a single progenitor stem cell

the single progenitor stem cell is called the pluripotent HSC

A

monophyletic theory

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61
Q

theories of hematopoiesis

it is a theory that suggests that each blood cell lineages is derived from a unique stem cell

A

polyphyletic theory

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62
Q

two major types of hematopoietic progenitor cells

A
  • non committed/undifferentiated
  • committed
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63
Q

undifferentiated HSCs can differentiate into progenitor cells committed to two different lineages

they are uncommitted cells

A

lymphoid or myeloid lineages

common lymphoid progenitor or common myeloid progenitor

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64
Q

uncommitted stem cells

these are the lineage-specific progenitor cells

A

common lymphoid progenitor

proliferates into T, B, and natural killer lymphocyte

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65
Q

uncommitted stem cells

these are the dendritic lineages

A

common myeloid progenitor - proliferates into granulocytic, erythrocytic, monocytic, megakaryocytic lineages

may become RBC, WBC, or platelets

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66
Q

a model that suggestst HSCs randomly commites to self-renewal or differentiation

A

stochastic model of hematopoiesis

Till and McCulloh

67
Q

a model that suggest that the mechanism of stem cell fate is influenced by the hematopoietic inductive microenvironment

there are signals or instructions from intrinsic or extrinsic sources

intrinsic - from the cell itself, extrinsic - a chemical or another cell

A

instructive model

most accepted models

68
Q

these are signals from the inductive microenvironment

A

TPO, KIT ligand, FT3 ligand

69
Q

signals from internal signaling

A

TAL1 genes, GATA2 genes, Notch-1 and Notch-2

70
Q

stem cells have these unique identification markers

A

CD markers - cluster of designation or differentiation

71
Q

these are groups of molecules present in the surface of cells that will differentiate them

A

CD markers

72
Q

CD markers

CD markers in stem cells

immature cell - the primary or mother cell

A

CD 34 and CD 117

stem cell markers

73
Q

CD markers

CD markers of myeloid progenitor cells (MPC)

A

CD 38 and CD 33

CD 33 - myeloid leukemia

74
Q

CD markers

CD markers of lymphoid progenitor cells (LPC)

A

CD 38 and CD 10

CD 10 - lymphoid leukemia

75
Q

CD markers

CD markers of T-cells

A

CD 7

too much - T cell leukemia

76
Q

CD markers

CD markers of B-cells

A

CD 19

too much - B cell leukemia

77
Q

CD markers

CD marker of erythroid progenitor cell

A

CD 71

78
Q

CD markers

CD markers of megakaryocytes

A

CD 41, CD 42, and CD 61

79
Q

this is an analysis used to identify CD markers and help identify blood disorders

A

flow cytometry analysis

80
Q

these are groups of specific glycoproteins that regulate proliferation, differentiation, and maturation of hematopoeitic precursor cells

A

hematopoietic growth factors

81
Q

types of growth factors

A
  • early acting - KIT and FLT ligand
  • intermediate
  • late acting
82
Q

these are diverse groups of soluble proteins that have direct and indirect effects on hematopoietic cells

A

cytokines

cytokines and growth factors are often used synonymously

83
Q

they are responsible for the stimulation or inhibition of production, differentiation, and trafficking mature blood cells and their precursors

A

cytokines

84
Q

cytokines include:

A

interleukins, lymphokines, monokines, interferons, chemokines, and colony-stimulating factor

85
Q

this is the multipotent or pluripotent stem cell tha will grow

A

toti potent hematopoietic stem cell (TPHSC)

it has the potential to produce different types of cells

86
Q

growth factors/cytokines for TPHSC to grow and become a common myeloid progenitor cell

A
  • IL 1, 3, 6
  • stem cell factor
  • colony-stimulating factor - granulocute monocyte
87
Q

the platelet production growth factors

A
  • thrombopoietin (TPO)
  • colony-stimulating factor megakaryoblast (CSF Meg)

TPO, IL 3,7,11

88
Q

the growth factors for red cell formation

A
  • erythropoietin (EPO)

EPO, IL 3

89
Q

the growth factors for granulocyte and monocyte development, or the white blood cells

A
  • colony stimulating factor granulocyte monocyte (CSF-GM)

CSF-G for granulocytes, CSF-M for monocytes

90
Q

cytokines for neutrophils

A

IL 3, 6

91
Q

cytokines for eosinophils

A

IL 3, 5

92
Q

cytokines for basophils

A

IL 3, 6

93
Q

cytokines for monocytes

monocyte is not the end stage cell - it can become macrophages

A

IL 3, 6

with CSF-M

94
Q

growth factors/cytokines for TPHSC to grow and become a common lymphoid progenitor cell

it requires diverse cytokine stimulation to complete differentiation

thymus gland is essential in this process

A
  • IL 1, 3, 6
  • IL 2, 7, 12
  • SDF-1
  • FLT3 ligand
  • TNF a
  • TGF b1
95
Q

cytokines for T cells

A

IL 1, 2, 4, 6, 7

96
Q

cytokines for B cells

B cells produces plasma cells

A

IL 4, 5, 6

97
Q

this is a cytokine that is very vital to the production of blood cells

A

interleukin 3

98
Q

amount of RBC, platelets, and granulocytes that make up the the body weight daily

A
  • 2.5 billion RBCs
  • 2.5 billion platelets
  • 1.0 billion granulocytes
99
Q

what is erythropoiesis

A

red blood cell production

100
Q

erythropoiesis

this is the main growth factor in erythropoiesis

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

it is released by kidney and stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs

101
Q

erythropoiesis

characteristics of erythropoietin

A
  • Janus acting Tyrosinase Kinase (JAK2)
  • glycoprotein
  • 34 Daltons
  • reacts with RBCs terminal sialic acid
102
Q

erythropoiesis

functions of EPO

A
  • stimulates bone marrow
  • early release of RBC in the circulation (in cases of severe hypoxia)
  • prevents apoptosis (when RBC is still needed)
  • reduce marrow transit time (skips the stage of RBC development)
103
Q

this is the most important inducer of EPO release by the kidney

A

hypoxia

104
Q

what is hypoxia

A

it is a state when the human body experiences low oxygen pressure in the blood - it prompts the bone marrow to immediately release red cells in the circulation

105
Q

two types of hypoxia

A

pathologic and physiologic
(pathologic - diseases, physiologic - environment/immediate response of body)

106
Q

EPO

anti-apoptosis

A
  • prevents continuous contact of FasL-Fas on developing RBC
  • activates JAK2 promoting STAT (signal transduction of activator transcription) pathway

anti-apoptotic molecule - BcL-XL/BcL 2

107
Q

RBC stages of development

RBC nomenclature types

A
  • Rubri nomenclature
  • Erlich nomenclature
  • Normo nomenclature

rubri means red, erlich - erythro

108
Q

in the stages of development of erythropoiesis, it is the first cell developed

A

burst forming unit erythroblast (BFU-E)

109
Q

it follows the BFU-E

A

colony forming unit erythroblast (CFU-E)

then the progenitor red cell eventually divides and mature further

110
Q

six stages of development of RBC in the rubri nomenclature

occurs after the BFU-E and CFU-E is developed

A
  • rubriblast
  • prorubricyte
  • rubricyte
  • metarubricyte
  • reticulocyte
  • mature red blood cell

blast - with nucleus, cyte - no nucleus

111
Q

stages of development of RBC in the erlich nomenclature

A
  • proerythroblast
  • basophilic erythroblast
  • polychromatophilic erythroblast
  • orthochromatophilic erythroblast
  • diffusely basophilic erythrocyte/polychromatophilic erythrocyte
  • erythrocyte

blast - with nucleus, cyte - no nucleus

112
Q

stages of development of RBC in the erlich nomenclature

A
  • pronormoblast
  • basophilic normoblast
  • polychromatophilic normoblast
  • orthochromatophilic normoblast
  • diffusely basophilic normocyte/polychromatophilic normocyte
  • normocyte

blast - with nucleus, cyte - no nucleus

113
Q

how many mature red cells does a rubriblast form

A

16

114
Q

two organelles that are capable of synthesizing hemoglobin

A

mitochondria - heme
ribosomes - globin

115
Q

these should be removed from the RBCs in order to mature

A

reticulocyte remnants

the spleen removes them within 24 hours

116
Q

this is the last stage of red cell development that has a nucleus

A

metarubricyte

117
Q

as red cell matures, what happens to the nucleus

A

the nucleus dies and it is ejected

the free nucleus is then eaten by the macrophages

118
Q

characteristics of red blood cells

A

disc-shape with a central palor
- central palor size should be 30-45% of the entire RBC diameter

119
Q

reference value of reticulocyte in adults

it should be low

A

0.5-1.5% / 2.0%

in the entire red cell

120
Q

abnormal RBC

RBC that has no central palor or is decreased in size

A

hyperchromic RBC

121
Q

abnormal RBC

RBC that has a larger size

A

hypochromic RBC

122
Q

term for abnormal or deviation from the normal shape of RBCs

A

poikilocytes

123
Q

term for the change in normal size of RBCs

A

anisocytosis

124
Q

what is leukocytopoiesis?

A

white blood cell production

granulocytopoiesis/monocytopoiesis

125
Q

term used for granulocyte formation

A

granulocytopoiesis

126
Q

granulocytopoiesis

how many nuclear divisions does it take to become a granulocyte

A

5-6 nuclear divisions

127
Q

leukocytopoiesis

2 parts of granulocytopoiesis

A
  • mitotic pool - myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte
  • maturing pool - metamyelocyte, band cell, granulocyte
128
Q

stages of granulocyte development

A
  • myeloblast
  • promyelocyte
  • myelocyte
  • metamyelocyte
  • band/stab cell
  • granulocyte - neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
129
Q

this stage is called the dawn of neutrophilia

A

myelocyte

130
Q

granulocytopoiesis

often know as the juvenile cell

A

metamyelocyte

131
Q

difference of granulocytes to band cells

A

no filament (in band cells) and different lobes

132
Q

3 different types of granulocytes

A
  • neutrophil - bacterial
  • eosinophil - parasitic/allergic
  • basophil
133
Q

development of non granulocytes

A

monocytopoiesis

134
Q

stages of development of monocytes

A
  • monoblast
  • promonocyte
  • monocyte
135
Q

T or F

monocyte is not the end stage cell in monocytopoiesis

A

True
- they become macrophages/histiocytes when it travels to certain organs

136
Q

macrophage in the skin

A

Langerhaans cell

137
Q

macrophage in the brain

A

microglia

138
Q

macrophage in the lungs

A

alveolar macrophages

139
Q

macrophage in the liver

A

von Kuppfer cells

140
Q

macrophage in the kidneys

A

mesangial cells

141
Q

macrophage in the lymph nodes

A

dendritic cells

142
Q

macrophage in the joints

A

synovial A cells

143
Q

formation of lymphocytes

A

lymphopoiesis

it has 3 stages of development

144
Q

three different stages of lymphocyte progenitor cells

A
  • lymphoblast
  • prolymphocyte
  • lymphocyte
145
Q

two types of lymphocytes

A
  • LGL - large granular lymphocyte
  • small lymphocyte
146
Q

it is our first line of defense against cancer cells and it can destroy cirally infected cell within our body

A

LGL - large granular lymphocytes

147
Q

different names given on LGLs

A
  • natural killer/ NK cells
  • lymphokine activated cell/ LAK
  • killer / K cell
148
Q

this lymphocyte goes to the thymus to identify own antigen or for self antigen recognition so it does not attack the body

A

pre-thymic lymphocyte

lymphoblast (ig?)

149
Q

what do you call diseases wherein your own cells attack your body

A

autoimmune diseases

150
Q

this is the organ that designates the function of a lymphocyte; it will teach the lymphocyte their job

A

thymus

they can become T cell, B cell or NK cell

151
Q

T-helper cells have this CD marker

A

CD 4

152
Q

T-cytotoxic cells have this CD marker

A

CD 8

153
Q

what is megakaryopoiesis?

A

platelet production

cytokines involved: IL 7, 11

154
Q

4 stages of megakaryopoiesis

A
  • megakaryoblast
  • promegakaryocyte
  • megakaryocyte
  • metamegakaryocyte
155
Q

this is when the cytoplasm is not divided when progenitor cells mature or develop - but the nucleus divides

A

endomitotic division

because nuclei increases in both megakaryocyte and metamegakaryocyte

156
Q

two theories of platelet release

A
  • platelet shedding theory
  • platelet fragmentation theory
157
Q

theory where platelets are released from the protrusion of sinusoid (opening of bone connected to blood vessels) -

leading to the degradation and release of platelets

A

platelet shedding theory

158
Q

theory where platelets are fragmented from the formation of demarcation membrane

there is budding and then fragmentation

A

platelet fragmentation theory

159
Q

how long do platelets last in the circulation

A

7-10 days

160
Q

growth factor for platelet production

A

thrombopoietin

161
Q

T or F

not all platelets are in the blood

A

True
- some are in the spleen (30%)

to balance the platelet number in the circulation

162
Q

what happens to the platelet count when the spleen is removed

A

the platelet count increases

since the spleen will not be able to store them

163
Q

what happens to the platelet count when the spleen is enlarged

A

the platelet count decreases

since a lot of platelets will be stored in the spleen

Hematology 1 (3 decks)

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