Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Hematology 1 > Bone Marrow Evaluation and Lymphoid Organs > Flashcards

Bone Marrow Evaluation and Lymphoid Organs Flashcards

1
Q

the adult hematopoietic tissue is located in what organs?

A

primary and secondary lymphoid organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

these are the primary lymphoid organs

A

bone marrow and thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

these are the secondary lymphoid organs

A

spleen, lymph nodes, and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

two types of bone marrow

A

red marrow and yellow marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

bone marrow

it is made up of adipose tissues

A

yellow marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

bone marrow

it is where the hematopoietically active cells are located

A

red marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

these are the active hematopoietic cells in the red marrow

A

erythroid, myeloid, megakaryocytic, and lymphoid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

it is the location of further differentiation of the lymphocyte into either T-cell, B-cell, or Killer cells

A

thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

these are the sites of lymphocyte activation in response to foreign antigens for functional adaptive immunity

A

secondary lymphoid organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

it is the site of hematopoiesis and it is enclosed within the cavities of the cortical bones and within the projection of calcified bone called the trabeculae

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

it provides structural support to the developing hematopoietic cells

A

trabeculae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

adults

distribution of hematopoietic cells within the red marrow

A

flat bones - such as sternum, pelvis, ribs, scapulae, skull, proximal portions of long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

infancy and early childhood

distribution of red marrow

A

most of the cavity of long bones is composed of entirely red marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

process

it is a process of replacing red marrow to yellow marrow within the long bones from infancy to adult age

it is also known as the process when yellow marrow reverts to red marrow in severe hypoxic event to compensate for the poor oxygenation of the body

A

retrogression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

other components of the bone marrow aside from the hematopoietic cells

A

stromal cells and blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the stromal cells include:

A
  • adipocytes (fat cells)
  • macrophages
  • lymphocytes
  • endothelial cells
  • osteoblasts
  • osteoclasts
  • reticular adventitial cells (fibroblast)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

stromal cell

it is a large cell with fat vacuole that helps in the regulation of the volume of the marrow in active hematopoiesis

A

adipocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

stromal cell

it functions as a phagocyte and it also nurses the developing progenitor red cells with iron

it also releases cytokines that regulate the development of blood cells

A

macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

stromal cell

other cells involved in the release of cytokines

A

endothelial and reticular adventitial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

stromal cell

it forms an incomplete layer of cell that extends to the vascular sinuses within the bone tissue

it also provides support to developing hematopoietic cells

A

reticular adventitial cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

stromal cell

involved in bone matrix formation and remodeling

A

osteoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

stromal cell

involved in bone resorption or destruction

A

osteoclast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

these cells secrete a semifluid extracellular matrix that anchors the hematopoietic cells

A

stromal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

substances in the extracellular matrix secreted by the stromal cells

A
  • fibronectin
  • laminin
  • collagen
  • thrombospondin
  • tenascin
  • proteoglycans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how are red marrow arranged within the bone

A

in cords - known as extravascular cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

two arteries that supplies oxygen and nutrition in the bone marrow and the bone matrix

A

nutrient artery, periosteal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

where does the nutrient and periosteal artery enter the bone

A

bone foramina

an opening in the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

it is the artery that supplies blood to the bone marrow ONLY

A

nutrient artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

it is the artery that supplies blood to both the osseous bone and the bone marrow

A

periosteal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

it is the vein that collects the blood from the tissue to be delivered back to the circulation

A

central longitudinal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

it is the major site of blood production during fetal development

during the second trimester

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

these are the liver cells

A

hepatocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

various functions of the hepatocytes

A
  • protein and clotting factor synthesis
  • carbohydrate and lipid metabolism
  • drugs and toxin removal
  • iron storage
  • recycling
  • hemoglobin degradation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how is liver involved in hemoglobin degradation

A

produces conjugated bilirubin that is eventually excreted out through the intestine and kidney (in the urine or feces)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

this is the liver macrophage

A

Kupffer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

they are responsible for removing senescent or old cells, cellular fragments, or debris from the blood that circulated within the liver tissue

A

Kupffer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

it also helps in protein synthesis regulation within the liver cells by releasing certain mediators

A

Kupffer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

it is a secondary lymphoid orgna that contributes in the development and differentiation of the lymphocytes

A

spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

two functions of the spleen

A

pitting and culling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

it is the function of the spleen when it filters the circulating blood to remove the abnormal inclusions within the red cell and damaged red cell membrane

A

pitting function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

spleen is known as this because it removes red cell remnants, senescent, and abnormal cells

A

graveyard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

these are the three splenic tissues

A
  • white pulp
  • red pulp
  • marginal zone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

splenic tissue

these are scatterred follicles with germinal centers that contains various cells

A

white pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

cells that are contained in the white pulp

A
  • lymphocytes
  • activated B-cells
  • macrophages
  • dendritic cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

this is an artery that passes through the germinal centers of the white pulp where T-lymphocytes aggregates

A

periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

these are located along the periphery of the PALS

A

lymphoid nodules containing B-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

it forms a reticular meshwork that contains blood vessels, macrophages, B-memory cells, and T-helper cells

A

marginal zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

it is made up of vascular sinuses separated by cords of reticular cell meshwork

A

red pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what do you call the reticular cell meshwork that separates the vascular sinuses of the red pulp

A

cords of Billroth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

it comprises of loosely connected special-activated macrophages

it also creates a spongelike matrix that produces tremendous pressure and stress on red cells

A

cords of Billroth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

this is the function of the spleen when senescent red cells are phagocytized with subsequent degradation of cell organelles

it involves depletion of glucose supply or red cells making the red cells unable to withstand harsh environment on the area which eventually leads to its destruction and degradation

A

culling function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

they play an important role in the proliferation of lymphocytes for the activation of the adaptive immunity

A

lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

they are bean-shaped organ that is divided into two regions - cortex and medulla

A

lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

lymph nodes

it is the outer portion of lymph tissue where it is enclosed by a capsule and forms a trabeculae

A

cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

lymph nodes

two types of follicles

A

primary and secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

it is the follicle of lymph nodes that has germinal centers on it which is comprised of activated B-cells

A

secondary follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

lymph nodes

it is composed of cords containing plasma cells and B-cells

A

medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

it is another structure in the lymph nodes that lies between the cortex and medulla where T-cells and macrophage are located

A

paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

these do not have yet a specified CD marker known as double negative cell that goes to the outer cortical region of the thymys and waits for cytokine stimulation

A

prethymic lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

when the prethymic lymphocytes travels inwardly the cortex, they transform into?

A

double positive T-cells with both CD4 and CD8 markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

when the double positive T cells go deeply within the inner part of the thymus (medulla), they transform into?

A

either CD4 positive or CD8 positive cell

depends on nature of cytokine that stimulates their differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

CD markers of B-cells

A

CD19, CD20, CD22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

CD markers of large granular lymphocytes

A

CD16, CD56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

it is the organ where self-antigen recognition by the T-cell occurs

A

thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

these are the T-cells that do not carry self antigen

A

reactive T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

the reactive T-cells are eliminated via?

A

apoptosis or self-destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

this is indicated to support the diagnosis of certain hematological disease such as leukemia and other myeloproliferative disorders

A

bone marrow examination

68
Q

it is used to assess bone marrow function, measure iron storage in the bone marrow samples and rule out or diagnose certain diseases that cannot be detected by using only the peripheral blood smear

A

bone marrow examination

69
Q

this is a situation when it is not advisable to collect bone marrow

these should be corrected first before collection is considered

A

contraindication

70
Q

contraindications of bone marrow collection

A
  • platelet dysfunction diseases (Bernard-Soulier syndrome)
  • platelet storage pool defects
  • blood clotting protein deficiency (Hemophilia A and B)
  • vitamin K deficiency
71
Q

why is vitamin K deficiency a contraindication for bone marrow collection

A

poor activity of vitamin K dependent prothrombin group clotting factors

clotting factors 2, 7, 9, 10

72
Q

they should undergo bridging therapy to prevent the uncontrolled bleeding caused by blood thinners

A

person who undergoes Coumadin and heparin treatment

Coumadin and heparin - blood thinners

73
Q

equipment used for bone marrow collection

A
  • no. 11 scalpel blade
  • surgical gloves
  • shaving equipment
  • 10 or 20 mL syringes
  • drape materials
  • disposable Jamshidi or Waserman-Jensen biopsy needle
  • 14-18 gauge aspiration needles

trephine needle

74
Q

materials for bone marrow examination

A
  • microscopic slides and coverslip washed with 70% alcohol
  • petri dish
  • vials
  • test tubes with stoppers
  • Wintrobe-hematocrit tubes
  • Dipotassium EDTA anticoagulant
  • Zenker’s fixative or B5 fixative
  • gauzes
75
Q

two different specimens collected in bone marrow sampling

A

core biopsy and aspirated bone marrow fluid

76
Q

it is collected first to preserve the architectural structure of the bone marrow

A

core biopsy

77
Q

it is the common site for adult bone marrow collection

A

anterior or posterior iliac crest

78
Q

site for bone marrow collection of patient under 2 years of age

A

tibia

79
Q

other sites used for bone marrow collection

A
  • sternum
  • spinous processes of lumbar vertebrae
  • distal and proximal ends of long bones
80
Q

three different fixatives ideally used for bone marrow biopsy

A

Zenker’s, B5 fixative, aand 5-10% buffered neutral formalin

81
Q

T or F:

the aspirated bone marrow fluid that follows core biopsy is collected on a separate location

A

true

82
Q

how much bone marrow fluid is aspirated

using 14-18 gauge needle

A

1-1.15 mL

83
Q

2 kinds of preparation of bone marrow slides or films

A
  • direct aspirate marrow film
  • crush bone marrow film
84
Q

it is a bone marrow film prepared by immediately transferring drops of the marrow specimen into around six to eight ethanol washed microscopic slides and spread by using a spreader slide to create a wedge-shaped smear

A

direct aspirate marrow film

85
Q

this is a bone marrow film prepared from the bone marrow aspirate containing spicules expelled to a petri dish with dipotassium EDTA anticoagulant

spicules are collected and placed on several ethanol washed slides and then gently pressed to crush it using another glass slide

A

crush bone marrow film

86
Q

it is directly added to the crush bone marrow film if prolymphocytes or lymphoblast is suspected

A

drop of 22% albumin

87
Q

albumin will reduce the occurence of smudge or basket cell often seen in what condition

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

88
Q

purpose of bone marrow slides

A
  • evaluating morphology of hematopoietic cells
  • detection of cancer cells or tumors
  • differential count of bone marrow cells
  • cellularity studies
  • myeloid erythroid ratio
89
Q

it is the difficulty in obtaining bone marrow fluid

in this case, biopsy is necessary

A

dry tap

90
Q

dry tap usually occurs in what bone marrow disorders

A
  • myelofibrosis
  • severe aplastic anemia
  • leukemia packed with abnormal cells
91
Q

observation of cell morphology is done using a?

A

slide imprint or touch preparation

92
Q

if a special examination is requested, another syringe is with aspirated marrow fluid containing this is used

A

heparin

93
Q

aspirated bone marrow fluid

special examinations

A
  • cytogenic studies
  • molecular diagnosis
  • immunophenotyping - flow cytometry
94
Q

this is prepared in a suspected case of aplastic anemia or bone marrow failure where small numbers of nucleated cells are expected

A

buffy coat

95
Q

it is used to concentrate cells by transferring the fluid into a Wintrobe hematocrit tube and centrifuge at 2,500 gravitational force for 10 minutes

A

buffy coat preparation

96
Q

buffy coat preparation

four different layers after centrifugation

A
  • uppermost layer - fat layer (1-3%)
  • plasma layer
  • M/E layer or buffy coat layer (5-8%)
  • packed red cell layer
97
Q

routine stains used for bone marrow films for morphological and cytological examination

A

Wright’s and Giemsa stain

98
Q

initially, at what magnification are the bone marrow slides observed

A

low power objective (LPO)

99
Q

under LPO the marrow films are observed for?

A
  • megakaryocyte estimation
  • assessment of bony spicules
  • detection of tumor cells
  • detection of fat to marrow ratio
  • cellularity studies
100
Q

other evaluations made using the high power objective or HPO

A
  • differential counting
  • M:E ratio computation
  • identifying abnormal distribution and maturation gaps of hematopoietic cells
  • observation of myelocytic and erythrocytic maturation
101
Q

special stains used for bone marrow films to differentiate AML from ALL

AML - acute myelogenous leukemia, ALL - acute lymphoblastic leukemia

A
  • myeloperoxidase stain
  • Sudan Black B stain
  • tdT stain
102
Q

results for the special stains if leukemia is AML

A
  • positive for myeloperoxidase
  • positive for Sudan Black B
  • negative for tdT
103
Q

results for special stains if leukemia is ALL

A
  • negative for both myeloperoxidase and Sudan Black B
  • positive for tdT
104
Q

special stain

used to differentiate granulocytic from non-granulocytic leukemia

A

esterase stain

specific

105
Q

2 types of esterase stain

A

non-specific and specific

106
Q

these chemicals are used for non-specific esterase stain

for monocyte, monoblast, promonocyte, megakaryocyte

A
  • alphanaphtylbutyrate
  • alphanaphtyl acetate
107
Q

chemical used for specific esterase stain

A

ASD chloroacetate esterase

108
Q

how many types of AML are there

A

8

numbered from 0-7

109
Q

esterase is used to differentiate what types of AML

A

M1 to M5

M1, 2, 3 - purely granulocytic, M4 - combined, M5 - non granulocytic

110
Q

this type of AML is positive for non specific esterase stain

A

M5

111
Q

special stain

it is used to diagnose chronic granulomatous disease

A

nitro-blue tetrazolium stain

112
Q

special stain

it is used to differentiate leukemoid reaction from chronic myelogenous leukemia or CML

A

LAP stain - leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

113
Q

special stain

it is used to diagnose hairy cell leukemia

A

TRAP stain - tartrate resistance acid phosphatase

114
Q

special stain

it is used to stain ferritin granules or stored iron in th ebone marrow

sideroblastic anemia

A

Pearl’s or Prussian blue stain

115
Q

these are RBCs with aggregated granules

A

Pappenheimer bodies

116
Q

special stain

it is used to diagnose erythroleukemia or AML M6

A

PAS stain - periodic acid shift

117
Q

special stain

used to confirm diagnosis of megakaryoblastic leukemia or AML M7

A

factor 8 stain

118
Q

dyes used for evaluating bone marrow condition

A
  • Hematoxylin and Eosin dye
  • reticulin and trichrome dye
  • gram stain or acid fast stain
  • immunocytochemical dyes
119
Q

dye

used to evaluate cellularity and hematoppoietic cell distribution and locate abnormal cell clusters

A

hematoxylin and eosin dyes

120
Q

dye

used to examine bone marrow fibrosis

A

reticulin and trichrome dye

121
Q

dye

used to identify acid fast bacilli, fungi, and bacteria in granulomatous disease

A

gram stain or acid fast stain

122
Q

dye

used to establish the identity of malignant cell with dye tagged monoclonal antibodies specific for tumor surface markers

A

immunocytochemical dye

123
Q

it is one of the important parts of a bone marrow report

A

bone marrow cellularity examination

124
Q

it is executed to identify the amount or percent volume that the different layers of centrifuged bone marrow fluid have

A

macroscopic cellularity

125
Q

reference value for fat layer

A

1-3%

126
Q

reference value for M/E layer

A

5-8%

127
Q

these are the variable in macroscopic cellularity studies

A

plasma and packed red cell layer

128
Q

it is when the result has a normal distribution of fat and hematopoietic cell

A

normocellular bone marrow

129
Q

it is when the result has a fat layer that is high and a buffy coat layer that is below the reference value

A

hypocellular bone marrow

130
Q

it is when the result has a fat layer that is low and the buffy coat layer that is above the reference value

A

hypercellular bone marrow

131
Q

blood disorders that exhibit hypocellular bone marrow

A
  • aplastic anemia
  • Fanconi’s syndrome
  • myelofibrosis
  • bone marrow failure
132
Q

blood disorders that exhibit a hypercellular bone marrow

A
  • polycythemia vera
  • leukemoid reaction
  • leukemia (all types)
  • megaloblastic anemia
  • diff types of myeloproliferative disorders
133
Q

microscopic cellularity study

this is reported if the ratio of the fat to marrow cells is 1:1o or 2:1

equal distribution

A

normocellular bone marrow

134
Q

formula for computing bone marrow cellularity

A

100-age = cellularity % plus or minus 10%

135
Q

microscopic cellularity study

this is reported if the bone marrow exhibits more fat over bone marrow cell or high fat to marrow ratio

A

hypocellular bone marrow

136
Q

microscopic cellularity study

this is reported if the bone marrow cell is abundant over the fat cells

A

hypercellular bone marrow

137
Q

another part of the bone marrow report where around 300-1000 cells are observed using bone marrow films prepared

A

differential count

138
Q

what is included in the report of differential count

A

all immature cells or progenitor cells of all blood cell lineage and mature white blood cell

139
Q

it determines the relative number of cell between myeloid and erythroid precursor cells in the marrow

A

myeloid: erythroid ratio

140
Q

in the M:E ratio, it is used to represent all progenitor cells of granulocyte and mature granulocyte

A

myeloid

141
Q

in the M:E ratio, it is used to represent the progenitors or immature red cells

A

erythroid

142
Q

normal M:E ratio

A
  • 4:1
  • 2:1
  • 3:1
  • 1.3:1
  • 1.2:1
  • 1.5:1
  • 5:1
143
Q

ratios within an incresased M:E report

A
  • 6:1
  • 10:1
  • 11:4
144
Q

what does an increased M:E report indicate

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia, granulocytic anemia

145
Q

ratio within a reverse M:E ratio

A

1:4

146
Q

what does a reverse M:E ratio indicate

A
  • normoblastic hyperplasia suggestive of erythroleukemia or AMLM6
147
Q

this is a non-hematological cell that can be mistaken as metamegakaryocyte or megakaryocyte

A

osteoclast

similar in size and has multiple number of nuclei

148
Q

how to differentiate metamegakaryocyte from osteoclast

A

cytoplasmic granulation only in metamegakaryocyte

mutiple nucleus of megakaryocyte is fused together

149
Q

this is a non-hematological cell mistaken as plasma cell

A

osteoblast

similar appearance - eccentrically located nucleus

150
Q

how to differentiate osteoblast from plasma cell

A

plasma cells have a presence of nuclear halo

151
Q

what do you call the nuclear halo of plasma cells

A

zone of hof

152
Q

diseases where there is an increased number of macrophages

A
  • hemolytic anemia
  • idiopathic thrombocytophenic purpura
  • solid tumors
153
Q

diseases associated with morphologically abnormal macrophages in the bone marrow

A
  • Gaucher disease
  • Nieman-Pick disorder
154
Q

increased number of mast cells in the bone marrow may be associated to what diseases

A
  • refractory anemia
  • chronic renal failure
  • Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
  • systemic mastocytosis
155
Q

how many metamegakaryocyte normally found in every LPO?

A

2-10

156
Q

condition wherein the macrophage will eat bacteria but engulfed organism will not die - the killing capability of macrophage is impaired as there is a problem with an enzyme

A

chronic granulomatous disease

157
Q

the enzyme that is deficient in chronic granulomatous disease

A

NADPH oxidase enzyme

158
Q

this is a type of anemia resulting from an overstimulation or prolonged infection in the body

the macrophages become busy releasing cytokines to fight off infection and is prevented from transferring iron from its cytoplasm to the red cell (its other function)

A

anemia of chronic infection/inflammation/disease

159
Q

cytokines usually released by the macrophages that are associated to blood disorders

A
  • IL-1
  • gamma interferons
  • alpha tissue necrotic factor
160
Q

main objective of fat cells in the bone marrow

A

for check and balance - prevents overpopulation of blood cells

161
Q

to reclot bone marrow fluid that is already put in an anticoagulated tube, what chemical should be added

A

0.015M calcium chloride

162
Q

LAP stain reaction in a leukemoid reaction

A

positive - stain cells

163
Q

LAP stain reaction to leukemia

A

zero to negative

164
Q

what is a leukemoid reaction

A

it is a response of the body against invading pathogens that cause severe infection

165
Q

what is leukemia

A

cancer of blood cells that begin in the bone marrow

166
Q
A

Hematology 1 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions