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FLASHYPASSYRMT > Hematopoiesis > Flashcards

Hematopoiesis Flashcards

1
Q

The process of formation and development of blood cells is

termed:

A

Hematopoiesis

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2
Q

During the second trimester of fetal development, the primary
site of blood cell production is the:

A

Liver

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3
Q

Which one of the following organs is responsible for the
maturation of T lymphocytes and regulation of their expression
of CD4 and CD8?
a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Thymus
d. Bone marrow

A

c. Thymus

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4
Q 
The best source of active bone marrow from a 20 year old
would be:
a. Iliac crest
b. Femur
c. Distal radius
d. Tibia
A

A. Iliac crest

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5
Q

Physiologic programmed cell death is termed:

a. Angiogenesis
b. Apoptosis
c. Aneurysm
d. Apohematics

A

B. Apoptosis

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6
Q

Which organ is the site of sequestration of platelets?

a. Liver
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. Bone marrow

A

C. Spleen

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7
Q 
Which one of the following morphologic changes occurs
during normal blood cell maturation?
a. Increase in cell diameter
b. Development of cytoplasm basophilia
c. Condensation of nuclear chromatin
d. Appearance of nucleoli
A

C

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8
Q 
Which one of the following cells is a product of the common
lymphoid progenitor?
a. Megakaryocyte
b. T lymphocyte
c. Erythrocyte
d. Granulocyte
A

B. T lymphocyte

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9
Q

What growth factor is produced in the kidneys and is used
to treat anemia associated with kidney disease?
a. EPO
b. TPO
c. G-CSF
d. KIT ligand

A

a. EPO

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10
Q

Which one of the following cytokines is required very early
in the differentiation of a hematopoietic stem cell?
a. IL-2
b. IL-8
c. EPO
d. FLT3 ligand

A

FLT3 ligand

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11
Q

When a patient has a severe anemia and the bone marrow is unable to effectively produce red blood cells to meet the increased demand, one of the body’s response is:
a. Extramedullary hematopoiesis in the liver and spleen
b. Decreased production of erythropoietin by the kidney
c. Increased apoptosis of erythrocyte progenitor cells
d. Increased proportion of yellow marrow in the long
bones

A

a. Extramedullary hematopoiesis in the liver and spleen

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12
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells produce all lineages of blood cells
in sufficient quantities over the lifetime of an individual
because they:
a. Are unipotent
b. Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division
c. Are present in large numbers in the bone marrow
niches
d. Have a low mitotic potential in response to growth
factors

A

b. Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division

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13
Q

Characteristics

shared by interleukins

A
  1. They are proteins that exhibit multiple biologic activities,
    such as the regulation of autoimmune and inflammatory
    reactions and hematopoiesis.
  2. They have synergistic interactions with other cytokines.
  3. They are part of interacting systems with amplification
    potential.
  4. They are effective at very low concentrations.
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14
Q

Colony-stimulating factors

A

produced by many different cells. They have a high

specificity for their target cells and are active at low concentrations.

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15
Q

The names of the individual factors indicate the predominant

cell lines that respond to their presence. T or F?

A

T

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16
Q

GM-CSF stimulates the proliferation of granulocyte and monocyte
progenitors.
It does not synergistically work with IL-3 to enhance
megakaryocyte colony formation.
a. Both statements are false
b. Both are true
C. first statement is false and 2nd is true.
d. first statement is true and 2nd is false.

A

d.

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17
Q

regulate the proliferation, differentiation,

and maturation of hematopoietic precursor cells.

A

hematopoietic growth

factors or cytokines

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18
Q

interleukins
(ILs), lymphokines, monokines, interferons, chemokines, and
colony-stimulating factors (CSFs).5

A

All are cytokines

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19
Q

hematopoiesis is a random process whereby the HSC randomly

commits to self-renewal or differentiation.

A

stochastic model

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20
Q

bone marrow determines

whether the HSC will self-renew or differentiate

A

instructive model

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21
Q

A theory suggests that all blood
cells are derived from a single progenitor stem cell called a pluripotent
hematopoietic stem cell.

A

monophyletic theory

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22
Q

A theory suggests
that each of the blood cell lineages is derived from its own
unique stem cell.

A

polyphyletic theory

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23
Q

The monophyletic theory is the most widely

accepted theory among experimental hematologists. T or F?

A

T

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24
Q

T, B, and natural killer lymphocyte and dendritic lineages

A

common

lymphoid progenitor

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25
Q

granulocytic, erythrocytic, monocytic,

and megakaryocytic lineages

A

common myeloid progenitor

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26
Q

A division that states both daughter cells may

follow the path of differentiation, leaving the stem cell pool

A

symmetric division

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27
Q

one daughter cell may return to the stem

cell pool and the other daughter cell may follow the path of differentiation

A

asymmetric division

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28
Q

“waiting zone”

A

cortex of thymus

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29
Q

Progenitor t cells with no identifiable CD4 and

CD8 surface markers are called?

A

double negative T cells

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30
Q

When progenitor cells enter cortex and express both CD4 and CD8, they are called?

A

double positive

T cells

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31
Q

-increased hematopoiesis due increase in
cellular demand as well as hematopoietic stress
Enlargement of the bone
-Typical chipmunk facies is also observed
-X-ray shows hair on end appearance which signifies
spaces in the trabecula which does not exist in a normal
child

A

beta-thalassemia

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32
Q

site for hematopoiesis

A
  • Skull
  • Proximal end of large bones
  • Sternum
  • Vertebrae
  • Axial Skeleton
  • Iliac Crest
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33
Q

M;E ratio

A

3:1

34
Q

G-CSF

A

Granulocyte-Colony Stimulating Factor

35
Q

GM-CSF

A

Granulocyte Megakaryocyte Colony

Stimulating Factor

36
Q

When an erythroblast releases its core and
becomes an RBC, The nucleus is gradually engulfed by the
macrophage

A

Enucleation

37
Q

Macrophage capture the iron in the plasma,

stores it and then gives it to the erythroblast

A

Suckling Phenomenon

38
Q

2 year old, male, was brought by his parents to your clinic due to
abdominal swelling and slow growth. History reveals no prenatal
check-ups, delivery was unremarkable as claimed and was attended by
traditional birth attendant in their home, newborn screening was done.
On physical examination, patient was noted to have “chipmunk” facies,
hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly. Which of the following bones will
likely to expand due increased erythropoiesis?
• A. Skull
• B. Femur
• C. Distal humerus
• D. All choices

A

d. All choice
During childhood, all bones contains active bone (red bone marrow) marrow. As we become adult, red bone marrow will only be limited on axial bones and proximal ends of long bones.

39
Q

Hemoglobin chain for A1

A

2 alpha- 2-beta (bata)

40
Q

Hemoglobin chain for A2

A

2 alpha- 2-delta (data)

41
Q

hbF

A

2-alpha-2-gamma (gaga)

42
Q

What hemoglobin chain is absent in BETA-thallasemia?

A

A1 (2-alpha-2-BETA)

43
Q

A 27 year old G1P0 3 months AOG came in for prenatal check up.
Examination was unremarkable. What is the predominant
hemoglobin in utero during this time?
• A. Gower 1
• B. Fetal
• C. Portland
• D. Gower 2

A

B. Fetal

44
Q

65 year old, male, embalmer, sought admission at SPMC due to
weakness and shortness of breath. Physical Examination was
unremarkable. CBC noted anemia and increased WBC count.
Which of the following specimen/s will be collected for
examination?
• A. BM Biopsy
• B. BM Aspirate
• C. Both
• D. Neither

A

C. Both

45
Q

60 year old female, entrepreneur, came in for check up due to1
month headache, fatigue, & dizziness. On physical exam,
patient was noted to be plethoric with mild hepatosplenomegaly.
CBC showed polycythemia. Which of the following is
characteristic of growth factors?
• A. JAK-STAT is the usual receptor
• B. Effective only in very high concentrations
• C. Most growth factor act alone to manifest their effects
• D. All Growth factors have systemic effects

A

A.

46
Q

are growth factors effective only in low concentrations? t or f?

A

t

47
Q

Most growth factor act alone to manifest their effects. t or f?

A

f

48
Q

All Growth factors have systemic effects

A

f. (local)

49
Q

Only growth factor with true endocrine function.

A

EPO

50
Q

JAk-STAT

A

Janus Kinase - Signal Transduction

and Activator of Transcription

51
Q

increased interleukin concentrations, Initiation of immune response and inflammation
○ Most accepted pathophysiology for COVID 19
or severe COVID

A

cytokine storm

52
Q

Polycythemia vera

A

mutation of jak-stat receptor (always open) leading to increased rbc count, wbc count, platelet count, and increased viscousity of rbc.

53
Q

8 year old, female, Elementary student, parents sought
admission due to scheduled chemotherapy. She was apparently
well with unremarkable PE findings. Patient is on her last cycle
of chemotherapy. How will you differentiate leukemic cells from
normal cells?
• A. WBCs with 3-4 lobes
• B. Neutrophil with few vacuolation
• C. Cytoplasmic basophilia
• D. Monocytes with pseudopods

A

c.

54
Q

Features:

  1. Chromatin Pattern
  2. Nuclear Shape
  3. Nuclear Size
  4. Presence of Nucleoli
A

Nuclear Characteristics

55
Q

Features:

  1. Cytoplasmic Basophilia
  2. Granulation
  3. Shape
  4. Quantity of Cytoplasm
  5. Vacuolization
  6. Inclusion Bodies
A

Cytoplasmic Characteristics

56
Q

Extramedullary Hematopoiesis in adult hood is normal.

A

F (pathologic)

57
Q

Gaucher Disease, deficiency in what enzyme?

A

glucocerebrosidase

58
Q

phony cells

A

Niemann- Pick Disease

59
Q

enlargement of

lymph nodes.

A

Lymphadenopathy

60
Q

Possible in patients with Sickle Cell Anemia

A

Autosplenectomy

61
Q

Leads to pancytopenia despite of the presence of normal

bone marrow

A

Hypersplenism

62
Q

Nucleus’ size DECREASES as it matures; N:C

ratio also DECREASES. t or f?

A

t

63
Q

main stimulator of erythropoiesis

A

erythropoietin

and hypoxia

64
Q

For leukopoiesis, its main control are?

A

colony stimulating

factors and Interleukin-(IL3)

65
Q

Megakaryocytopoiesis, main controls are?

A

thrombopoietin and

Megakaryocyte Colony Stimulating Factor (Meg-CSF)

66
Q

CFU-E is very sensitive to erythropoietin. T or F?

A

T

67
Q

CFU-GEMM gives rise to earliest identifiable colony of

RBC, CFU-E. T or F?

A

F

68
Q

BFU-E will become CFU-E that has less EPO receptors . T or F?

A

F

69
Q

In Chromatin Pattern, Immature Cells
has a Smooth, homogenous, fine, delicate, lacy or
thready. T or F?

A

t

70
Q

In chromatin pattern, mature Cells has Smudgy, clumped or pyknotic (dense or
compact). t or f?

A

t

71
Q 
Nuclear Shape
● Immature Cells:
○ WBCs: More segmented or lobed
● Mature Cells:
○ Round or oval; except Monocytes (folded
nuclear shape)
A

F (baliktad)

72
Q 
Nuclear size
● Immature Cells:
○ Large-sized nucleus
○ nucleus occupies 80% of the cell, however it
decreases to 60-75%
● Mature Cells:
○ size of the nucleus decreases
○ Decrease in NC ratio
A

T

73
Q

As the erythrocyte matures, they extrude their nucleus
and won’t need it since they are full of hemoglobin
● The extrusion is responsible for the disc shape of RBCs
● The extruded nucleus is called pyrenocyte and will be
devoured by macrophages

A

T

74
Q

reticulocyte, what stain?

A

Supravital (New methylene blue or brilliant cresyl blue)

75
Q

polychromatophilic erythrocytes, what stain?

A

wright stain

76
Q

○ Neutrophils - ____ granules
○ Eosinophils - ______ granules
○ Basophiles - ____ granules

A

lilac
red-orange
blue

77
Q 
Presence Of Nucleoli
● Immature Cells:
Presence of nucleoli
● Mature Cells:
 Nucleoli not visible
Or absent
A

T

78
Q

Rule for granulation: first granule that will be produced (primary
granules) will be the last to be degranulated.

A

T

79
Q

Pseudopods may be observed in mature monocytes

and in some leukocyte blast forms.

A

T

80
Q

ENDOMITOSIS, done by what cell?

A

Megakaryocytes

FLASHYPASSYRMT (4 decks)

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