Hematology/Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Causes of ITP

A

1) Idiopathic
2) HIV
3) SLE
4) CLL
5) Hep C
6) H. pyloir

Rule out HIV before starting treatment

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2
Q

Test used to measure acquired platelet dysfunction with a normal platelet count

A

Platelet Function Analyzer-100

A rapid screening test, has replaced bleeding time testing

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3
Q

Treatment for MDS to prevent progression to AML in -5q subtype

A

Lenalidomide

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4
Q

TKIs for treatment of CML (t9:22) can cause what EKG finding?

A

Prolonged QT, monitor with serial EKGs

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5
Q

Nonneoplastic causes of eosinophilia

A
CHINA
C: Collagen vascular disease
H: Helminthic infection
I: Idiopathic
N: Neoplasia (lymphoma, myeloproliferative)
A: Allergy/Atopy/Asthma
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6
Q

Hypereosiniophilic syndrome

A

Moderate eosinophilia and end-organ damage commonly affecting: skin, lungs, GI, CV (restrictive CM )

R/o secondary causes of HES

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7
Q

What population can you not use a d-dimer in reliably to exclude VTE?

A

pregnant patients

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8
Q

Emergent reversal agent for vit K antagonists

A

Four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (4f-PCC)

Contains II, VII, IX, and X as a lyophilized powder, quickly administered and effective >90% of the time

Plasma takes longer and is not indicated in major bleeding episodes 2/2 Vit K antagonists

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9
Q

Timeframe for delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR)

A

7 to 14 days

Usually occurs as anamnestic antibody response to previous erythrocyte (non-ABO) antigen sensitization

Obtain DAT, LDH, Bili, and reticulocyte count to evaluate further

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10
Q

Cause of pure red cell aplasia in SCD?

A

Parvovirus B19

Can cause transient aplastic crisis

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11
Q

Triggers of G6PD

A

1) Chloroquine
2) Sulfonamides
3) Rasburicase
4) Dapsone
5) Phenazopyridine

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12
Q

Features of Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

Indolent B-cell lymphoma

  • elevated M spike (> 3 g/dL M protein)
  • elevated gamma gap (>4)
  • “B symptoms”
  • peripheral neuopathy (antimyelin-associated glycoprotein)
  • hyperviscosity symptoms (blurred vision, HA, vertigo)
  • HSM, lymphadenopathy, anemia
  • Send serum protein electrophoresis
  • BMB with lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate (>10% clonal lymphoplasmacytic cells, differentiating it from MGUS)
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13
Q

Testing indicated after diagnosis of smoldering multiple myeloma

A

Whole-body MRI to look for lytic lesions

Smoldering MM has >10% plasma clonal cells in BM, >3 g/dL of M protein level, with no other MM-related signs or symptoms (normal Ca, renal function).

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14
Q

Reversal agent for dabigatran

A

Idarucizumab

Indicated for reversal for severe/life threatening bleeding, emergency surgery

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15
Q

Pre-operative hemoglobin goal for SCD patients (low to moderate risk surgery)

A

10 g/dL

Simple transfusion is equivalent to exchange transfusion pre-operatively, and is preferred given less risk and cost

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16
Q

Negative PERC, is d-dimer or imaging required?

A

No.

Do not order imaging or d-dimer

PERC criteria
age <50
HR <100
O2 >95% on RA
- No hemoptysis
- No estrogen use
- No previous DVT/PE
- No unilateral leg swelling
- No surgery or trauma requiring hospitalization within the last 4 weeks
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17
Q

Features of PNH

A

Membrane-bound protein loss leads to sensitivity to complement-mediated lysis (defective PIGA gene)

1) Pancytopenia
2) Intravascular hemolysis
3) Hemoglobinuria
4) Nonspecific abdominal pain
5) Thrombotic complications - Portal venous system (budd-chiari), sagittal veins in CNS
6) Increased risk of transformation to MDS or Acute Leukemia

Eval with flow cytometry (CD55/CD59)

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18
Q

ALL survivors (childhood) are at increased risk for what as adults?

A

Metabolic Syndrome

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19
Q

Folate vs. cobalamin deficiency

A

Folate - short lifespan (poorly stored), associated with diets low in green, leafy vegetables. Associate with alcoholism.

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20
Q

Features of cobalamin deficiency

A

Cobalamin - long lifespan (efficiently stored). Not usually associated with dietary inadequacy and NOT associated with alcoholism.

Pancytopenia, macrocytic erythrocytes, hypersegmented neutrophils

Can see intramedullary hemolysis

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21
Q

Features of MDS

A

Older patient with progressive fatigue, 2+ cytopenias (including macrocytic anema)
- Peripheral smear showing dysplastic hypogranular neutrophils and nucleated erythrocytes

Obtain bone marrow to diagnose

22
Q

Treatment for atypical HUS

A

Eculizumab (monoclonal Ab against terminal component of complement cascade)

Features of atypical HUS:

  • congenital syndrome 2/2 overwhelming complement activation
  • not preceded by diarrheal illness
23
Q

Features of cold agglutinin disease

A

Profound anemia
Intravascular and extravascular hemolysis
Positive direct antiglobulin (IgM) to C3 with agglutinated erythrovytes on PVS
Profoundly Elevated MCV

Associations

  • waldenstrom
  • MDS
  • non-hodkin lymphoma
  • MGUS
  • mycoplasma, EBV

Tx

  • keep warm (transfusions at body temp)
  • rituximab
24
Q

Warm vs cold hemolytic anemia

A

Warm

  • RBCs agglutinate at body temp
  • IgG
  • Causes: Viral, connective tissue disease, CLL
  • DAT positive IgG or C3
  • Tx: steroids (first line), ritux/splenectomy

Cold

  • RBCs agglutinate at room temp
  • IgM
  • Causes: EBV, Mycoplasma, CLL, lymphoma
  • DAT positive C3, negative for IgG
  • Tx: Keep warm, rituximab
  • peripheral blood smear will show erythrocyte agglutination with marked elevation in MCV
25
Q

Features of acquired hemophilia A

A

aPTT that does not correct with mixing

  • low factor VIII levels
  • Association with hematologic malignancies (CLL)
  • Usually >60 y/o, women > men

Tx: recombinant activated factor VIII
- consider desmopressin for mild hemophilia A with bleeding or for minor procedures

26
Q

Treatment for high risk prostate cancer

A

GNRH agonist and radiation therapy

High risk: Gleason of 8-10, extraprostratic extension

27
Q

Treatment for locally advanced head and neck cancer

A

Radiation plus cisplatin or cetuximab

Avoid cisplatin if concern for renal toxicity

28
Q

What marker does a seminoma NEVER produce?

A

AFP

If biopsy is c/w seminoma, but AFP elevated, consider the tumor to be nonseminomatous

29
Q

What are the 4 major categories of lung cancer?

A

Central lesions: Squamous (hypercalcemia and cavitary) and small cell (aggressive, Lambert-Eaton, SIADH)
Peripheral: Adenocarcinoma and Large cell

30
Q

Advanced ovarian cancer with germline BRCA1/BCRA2 mutation(s) can be treated with what new therapy?

A

Olaparib (adenosine diphosphate [ADP]-ribose polymerase (PARP) inhibitor)

PARP inhibition leads to ds-DNA breaks that are repaired in BRCA-compentent tumors using recombination, which is not possible in BRCA-mutated cancers, thus leading to cell death (synthetic lethality)

31
Q

Postmenopausal LCIS treatment options for prevention of breast CA

A

Exemestane/Anastrozole if postmenopausal nd history of VTE

Tamoxifen or raloxifene (SERMs) can be used pre or postmenopausal

32
Q

Adjuvant therapy for DCIS following lumpectomry and radiation in postmenopausal women

A

Anastrozole

Chemotherapy is not used in this population, as the risk for distant metastasis in DCIS is ~1%

33
Q

Testing in nonsquamous metastatic NSCLC

A

Molecular alterations: EGFR, ALK, ROS1

EGFR benefits from erlotinib
ALK/ROS1 benefit from crizotinib

EGFR mutation is rarely seen in squamous cell carcinoma associated with a smoking history, do not test for this routinely

34
Q

Treatment option for progressive, metastatic mismatch repair-deficient CRC (MLH1 aka Lynch Syndrome)

A

Immune checkpoint inhibitor (pembrolizumab)

Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor inhibitors (panitumumab or cetuximab) can be considered if patients do not have KRAS or RAS gene mutations

35
Q

Genetic markers for CRC

A

Molecular analysis for KRAS, NRAS and BRAF genes

If metastatic disease limited to the liver: consider surgical resection (three or less lesions)

Limited role for hepatic arterial embolization, as CRC metastases are not vascular-dependent

36
Q

Treatment for metastatic NSCLC

A

First line: platinum-based chemotherapy

Patients who respond should continue pemetrexed maintenance chemotherapy or switch to docetaxel maintenance chemotherapy. This assumes no driver mutations were found

Radiation does not have a curative/treatment role in metastatic disease aside from palliation

37
Q

Treatment for early-stage laryngeal cancer

A

Radiation therapy alone

Early-stage laryngeal cancer is most appropriately treated with radiation alone because it is highly effective in that area, has low morbidity, and is associated with superior voice quality compared with patients who are treated with surgery.

38
Q

Treatment for GIST

A

High-risk GISTs (high % of mitotic features, tumor size, stomach/proximal intestinal location) should be treated with surgery and oral imatinib for 3 years

GISTs often carry a c-KIT proto-oncogene activating mutation. Imatinib blocks c-KIT tyrosine kinase phosphorylation.

GISTs are not responsive to radiation therapy

39
Q

Treatment for stage II and III NSCLC with negative margins

A

Adjuvant cisplatin-based chemotherapy

40
Q

Treatment for hormone-receptor positive breast cancer in a young woman who is premenopausal after surgery, radiation and adjuvant chemotherapy

A

Ovarian suppression plus aromatase inhibitor

Shown to be superior to tamoxifen (which is used for low risk cancers in young, premenopausal women)

41
Q

Treatment for ovarian cancer grades IC to IV

A

Surgery, platinum-based adjuvant chemotherapy

Maintenance intravenous and intraperitoneal chemotherapy is indicated if small (<1 cm) residual disease is present after initial round of adjuvant chemotherapy

42
Q

Treatment for hairy cell leukemia

A

Cladribine or pentostatin

Flow cytometry will show positivity to CD20, CD11c, CD25, and CD103. Despite this, hairy cell leukemia does not respond to rituximab

Hairy “Clar-Ri”
“Clar” = claridibine
“Ri” = Ritximab

43
Q

Follicular lymphoma can transform to what disease?

A

Agressive non-hodgkin lymphoma (DLBCL)

Look for change in disease pattern, newly elevated LDH, or new areas on PET

Obtain biopsy to rule out transformation

44
Q

Recommendations for BRCA1/2 management with regard to BSO

A

BRCA1: BSO between 35-40 and after childbearing completed
BRCA2: BSO between 40 and 45 (risk of ovarian cancer before age 50 is <1%)

45
Q

Diagnosis of CLL

A

Smudge cells on peripheral smear

Flow cytometry makes diagnosis, BMB not necessary

46
Q

Treatment strategy for GE disease`

A

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and radiation followed by surgical resection

47
Q

Treatment for metastatic prostate cancer that is castrate-sensitive

A

Antiandrogen therapy: Leuprolide + flutamide/bicalutamide (androgen receptor blocker)

Followed by continuation of antiandrogen therapy with docetaxel

48
Q

Complication of essential thrombocytosis

A

Acquired von Willebrand Disease

49
Q

Treatment for recurrence-prevention in early-stage, HR positive, high-risk breast cancer in women who remain premenopausal after chemotherapy

A

Leuprolide (ovarian suppression) plus an aromatase inhibitor

50
Q

Tests to stage colorectal cancer

A

CT C/A/P with contrast
CEA level

Do NOT pick PET/CT