Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

First Aid/Pathoma > Hematology/Oncology > Flashcards

Hematology/Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Anisocytosis

A

RBCs of varying sized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Poikilocytosis

A

RBCs of varying shapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bluish color on Wright-Giemsa stain of reticulocytes represents what?

A

Residual ribosomal RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

vWF receptor

A

Gp1b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fibrinogen receptor

A

Gp2b/3a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neutrophil chemotactic factors

A

C5a

IL-8

LTB4

Kallikrein

Platelet-activating Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What cell differentiates into macrophages?

A

Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Macrophages are activated by what?

A

Gamma-interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What binds to macrophages to initiate septic shock? Where does it bind?

A

Lipid A from bacterial LPS

Binds to CD14 ON macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of eosinophilia

A

NAACP

Neoplasia

Asthma

Allergic process

Chronic adrenal insufficiency

Parasites (invasive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What 2 substances are produced by Eosinophils?

A

Histaminase

Major basic protein (helminthotoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Basophils contain/release what 3 substances?

A

Heparin

Histamine

Leukotrienes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Basophilia is uncommon, but can be a sign of what?

A

CML

(myeloproliferative disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mast cells are involved in what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mast cells bind IgE how?

A

Via Fc portion of IgE membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mast cells release what 4 things?

A

Histamine

Heparin

Tryptase

Eosinophil chemotactic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What prevents mast cells degranulation?

A

Cromolyn Sodium

(used for asthma prophylaxis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Langerhans cells are what?

A

Dendritic cells in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Plasma cell cancer

A

Multiple Myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Clock-face chromatin

Eccentric nucleus

Abundant RER

Well-developed Golgi Apparatus

Found in Bone Marrow

A

Plasma Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Location of Fetal Erythropoiesis

A

Yolk Sac (3-8 weeks)

Liver (6 wks - birth)

Spleen (10-28 weeks)

BM (18 weeks - adult)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the benefit of HbF?

A

HbF has a higher affinity for oxygen because of less avid binding of 2,3-BPG.

This allows HbF to extract oxygen from maternal hemoglobin across the placenta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Blood type = universal recipient of RBCs

A

AB

24
Q

Blood type = universal recipient of plasma

A

O

25
Q

Blood type = universal donor of plasma

A

AB

26
Q

Blood type = universal donor of RBCs

A

O

27
Q

What is given to an Rh (-) mother? When? Why?

A

Anti-D IgG (RhoGAM)

During 3rd trimester

Prevents maternal anti-D IgG production

28
Q

Presentation of ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Mild jaundice in the neonate within 24 hours of birth

Treat with phototherapy or exchange transfusion

29
Q

Distance of migration of hemoglobin types on gel electrophoresis (farthest –> shortest)

A

HbA = glutamic acid (-)

HbS = Valine (neutral)

HbC = Lysine (+)

30
Q

What enzyme uses Vitamin K to activate coag factors?

A

gamma-glutamyl transferase

31
Q

Factor 5 resistant to inhibition by activated protein C

A

Factor 5 Leiden Mutation

32
Q

What changes Vitamin K from it’s oxidized form to it’s reduced form?

A

Epoxide Reductase

33
Q

Pro-aggregation factors

A

TXA2

Decreased blood flow

Increased platelet aggregation

34
Q

Anti-aggregation factors

A

PGi2

NO

Increased blood flow

Decreased platelet aggregation

35
Q

Source of vWF

A

Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells and alpha granules of platelets

36
Q

Failure of agglutination with Ristocetin assay occurs in what 2 disorders?

A

von Willenbrand disease

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

37
Q

Deficiency of Gp2b3a

A

Glanzmann Thombasthenia

38
Q

Deficiency of Gp1b

A

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

39
Q

Acanthocyte

“Spur cell”

A

Liver disease

Abetalipoproteinemia (cholesterol deregulation)

40
Q

Basophilic Stippling

A

Lead poisoning

Sideroblastic Anemias

Myelodysplastic Syndromes

41
Q

Dacrocyte

(tear drop cell)

A

Bone marrow infiltration (myelofibrosis)

RBS “sheds a tear” because it is mechanically squeezed out of its home in the bone marrow.

42
Q

Degmacyte

(bite cell)

A

G6PD Deficiency

43
Q

Echinocyte

(burr cell)

REGULAR spikes

A

End stage renal disease

Liver disease

Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency

44
Q

Elliptocyte

A

Hereditary elliptocytosis

Usually asymptomatic

Caused by mutation in genes coding RBC membrane proteins (spektrin)

45
Q

Macro-ovalocyte

A

Megaloblastic Anemia (with hypersegmented PMNs)

Marrow Failure

46
Q

Ringed Sideroblast

A

Sideroblastic Anemia

Excess iron in mitochondria

Found IN bone marrow

47
Q

Schistocyte

A

DIC

TTP/HUS

HELLP syndrome

Mechanical hemolysis (heart valve prosthesis)

*fragmented RBCs*

48
Q

Sickle Cell

A

Sickle cell anemia

Sickling occurs with dehydration, deoxygenation, and at high altitude

49
Q

Spherocyte

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

Drug and infection induced hemolytic anemia

50
Q

Target Cell

A

HbC disease

Asplenia

Liver disease

Thalassemia

(THAL)

51
Q

Heinz Bodies

A

G6PD Deficiency

Oxidation of Hb-SH groups to S-S leads to Hb precipitation

(subsequent phagoytic damage to RBC membrane –> bite cells)

CAN HAVE MULTIPLE PER CELL

52
Q

Howell-Jolly Bodies

A

Functional hyposplenia or asplenia

Basophilic nuclear remnants

(Would normally have been removed from RBCs by splenic macrophages)

ONLY ONE PER CELL

53
Q

Triad:

Iron Deficiency Anemia

Esophageal Webs

Dysphagia

A

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

54
Q

Alpha-Thalassemia with CIS deletion prevalent in what popuation?

A

Asian

55
Q

Alpha-Thalassemia with TRANS deletion prevalent in what population?

A

African

56
Q

Beta-Thalassemia is prevalent in what population?

A

Mediterranean

57
Q

Lead inhibits what 2 enzymes?

A

Ferrochelatase

ALA Dehydratase

First Aid/Pathoma (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions