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Hema-Immuno > Hematology > Flashcards

Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following cells are the smallest?

A. RBCs
B. WBCs
C. Platelets
D. Endothelial cells

A

C. Platelets

WBC > RBC > Platelets

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2
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant WBC?

A. Macrophage
B. Neutrophil
C. Eosinophil
D. Basophil

A

B. Neutrophil

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3
Q

In the bone marrow, the first morphologically recognizable erythroid precursor is the _______

A. Pronormoblast
B. Normoblast
C. Reticulocyte
D. Erythroblast

A

A. Pronormoblast

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4
Q

Erythropoietin is mainly produced in the ______

A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidney
D. Bone marrow

A

C. Kidney

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5
Q

Which of the following is the largest WBC?

A. Macrophage
B. Basophil
C. Monocyte
D. Neutrophil
E. Eosinophil
A

C. Monocyte

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6
Q

Signs of hypovolemic shock are caused by loss of blood volume of how much?

A. 10-15%
B. >30%
C. >40%
D. >70%

A

C. >40%

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7
Q

Which of the following laboratory measurements is used to evaluate total body iron stores?

A. Serum iron
B. TIBC
C. Percent transferrin saturation
D. Serum ferritin

A

D. Serum ferritin

Serum iron, TIBC, % transferrin saturation = reflect the availability of iron for hemoglobin synthesis

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8
Q

The average red cell life span is ______

A. 80 days
B. 120 days
C. 140 days
D. 160 days

A

B. 120 days

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9
Q

Each milliliter of red cells contains how much of elemental iron?

A. 0.5mg
B. 1mg
C. 1.5 mg
D. 2mg

A

B. 1mg

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10
Q

Iron is regularly excreted via which of the following?

A. Urine
B. Feces
C. Sweat
D. Two of the options
E. None of the options
A

E. None of the options

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11
Q

During the last two trimesters of pregnancy, daily iron requirements increase to _______

A. 2-3mg
B. 4-5mg
C. 5-6mg
D. 7-8mg

A

C. 5-6mg

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12
Q

During physiologic blood loss, which of the following accurately describes the red cell morphology?

A. Normocytic and normochromic
B. Normocytic and hypochromic
C. Microcytic and hypochromic
D. Microcytic and normochomic
E. Macrocytic and hypochromic
A

A. Normocytic and normochromic

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13
Q

All of the following cause an increased in iron loss EXCEPT:

A. Menses
B. Pregnancy
C. Blood donation
D. Phlebotomy
E. Acute blood loss
A

B. Pregnancy

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14
Q

Chron’s disease can be attributed to which of the following?

A. Increased demand for iron
B. Increased iron loss
C. Decreased iron intake
D. Decreased iron absorption
E. All of the options
A

D. Decreased iron absorption

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15
Q

Which of the following is the most prominent complications or oral iron therapy?

A. Headache
B. Nausea
C. Syncope
D. Rash

A

B. Nausea

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16
Q

Which of the following is the effect of IL1 to EPO production in response to anemia?

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Unchanged
D. Variable

A

B. Decreases

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17
Q

Iwata, an abnormal hemoglobin represents which of the following clinical conditions?

A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Polycythemia
C. Mild anemia
D. Methemoglobinemia

A

D. Methemoglobinemia

Koln = Hemolytic anemia
Yakima = Polycythemia
Kansas = Mild anemia
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18
Q

Alpha thalassemia-2 trait has how many globin loci deleted?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

Alpha thalassemia-1 trait = 2 deleted loci
HbH disease = 3 deleted loci
Hydrops fetalis = 4 loci

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19
Q

Deferoxamine is used in consideration with which of the following diseases?

A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Uremic hemolytic syndrome
D. Severe iron deficiency anemia

A

B. Thalassemia

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20
Q

Folic acid deficiency is an example of which of the following?

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Microcytic-normochromic anemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Severe chronic anemia

A

C. Megaloblastic anemia

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21
Q

Hemolytic anemia is characterized by which of the following triad?

A. Normomacrocytic anemia, reticulocytosis, hyperbilirubinemia
B. Hypomicrocytic anemia, leukocytosis, hyperlipidemia
C. Hypomacrocytic anemia, leukopenia, hyperbilirubinemia
D. Normomicrocytic anemia, reticulopenia, hyperbilirubinemia

A

A. Normomacrocytic anemia, reticulocytosis, hyperbilirubinemia

22
Q

Which of the following is the most serious threat from hemolytic anemia?

A. Hepatic failure
B. Renal failure
C. Coma
D. ARDS
E. Cardiac arrest
A

B. Renal failure

23
Q

Which of the following is the only effective agent for eliminating the gametocytes of P. falciparum?

A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Quinine
D. Sulfasalazine

A

A. Primaquine

24
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is caused by which of the following microorganism?

A. S. aureus
B. E. coli
C. P. aeruginosa
D. P. vivax
E. A. aegpyti
A

B. E. coli

25
Q

Which of the following is the most frequent infectious cause of hemolytic anemia?

A. Dengue
B. Malaria
C. Chikungunya
D. Zika virus
E. Yellow virus
A

B. Malaria

26
Q

This is the predominant site of red cell destruction.

A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Spleen
D. Thymus
E. Lymph node
A

C. Spleen

27
Q

Which of the following markers of early hematopoietic cells is used to identify aplastic anemia?

A. CD5
B. CD16
C. CD34
D. CD56

A

C. CD34

28
Q

Which of the following is the most common early symptom of aplastic anemia?

A. Bruising
B. Petechiae
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Bleeding

A

D. Bleeding

29
Q

Which of the following is the common etiology of polycythemia vera?

A. Trisomy 9
B. Trisomy 13
C. Trisomy 16
D. Trisomy 31

A

A. Trisomy 9

30
Q

All of the following are considered as microcytic anemias EXCEPT:

A. Thalassemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

A

D. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

Microcytic - “TAILS”

Thalassemia
Anemia of chronic disease
Iron deficiency anemia
Lead poisoning
Sideroblastic anemia
31
Q

All of the following involves intrinsic RBC defect EXCEPT:

A. Sickle cell disease
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
D. Immune hemolytic anemia

A

D. Immune hemolytic anemia

32
Q

Pancytopenia is usually seen in which of the following?

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Cobalamin deficiency
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia

A

B. Cobalamin deficiency

33
Q

Which of the following is characterized by abnormal iron accumulation in the mitochondria of erythroid precursors?

A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Uremic hemolytic syndrome
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. G6PD

A

C. Sideroblastic anemia

34
Q

All of the following are sources of vitamin B12 EXCEPT:

A. Liver
B. Eggs
C. Vegetables
D. Meat
E. Milk
A

C. Vegetables

35
Q

Vitamin B12 and B9 are absorbed in what part of the GI?

A. Ileum: Jejunum
B. Duodenum: Ileum
C. Jejunum: Duodenum
D. Large intestine: Ileum

A

A. Ileum: Jejunum

36
Q

Which of the following is the most common form of leukemia in elderly?

A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C. Acute myeloid leukemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
E. Chronic myeloid leukemia
A

B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

37
Q

Which of the following is the characteristic presenting feature of CLL?

A. Gingival hyperplasia
B. Lymph node swelling
C. Mucosal bleeding
D. Granulocytopenia

A

B. Lymph node swelling

38
Q

Auer rods are commonly seen in which of the following?

A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C. Acute myeloid leukemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
E. Chronic myeloid leukemia
A

C. Acute myeloid leukemia

AML = Auer rods / "blasts"
CLL = Gumprecht’s nuclear shadows, also called ‘smudge cells.’
CML = Philadelphia chromosome
39
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in heme synthesis?

A. ALA synthase
B. ALA-dehydratase
C. Ferrochelatase
D. Ferroreductase

A

A. ALA synthase

40
Q

All of the following are TRUE in iron deficiency anemia EXCEPT:

A. Decreased hemoglobin levels
B. Increased RDW
C. Increased platelets
D. Increased MCV

A

D. Increased MCV

41
Q

What is the characteristic radiological sign of thalassemia on skull X-Ray?

A. Punched out lesions
B. Hair on end appearance
C. Narrowing of the calvarium
D. Increased radiolucency in the frontal sinus area

A

B. Hair on end appearance

42
Q

A positive direct coombs test indicates which of the following?

A. Antibodies bound to red blood cells
B. Antibodies floating in the serum
C. Normocytic anemia
D. Severity of the anemia

A

A. Antibodies bound to red blood cells

43
Q

Hemoglobinuria is mainly a feature of which of the following types of anemia?

A. Extravascular hemolytic anemias
B. Intravascular hemolytic anemias
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Sideroblastic anemia

A

B. Intravascular hemolytic anemias

44
Q

Most of the body’s iron is contained in ______

A. Myoglobin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Hemosiderin
D. Transferrin
E. Ferritin
A

B. Hemoglobin

45
Q

Which vitamin is most likely to enhance the absorption of iron?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin B12
E. Vitamin K
A

B. Vitamin C

46
Q

Which amino acid is involved in the heme synthesis?

A. Glycine
B. Methionine
C. Alanine
D. Lysine

A

A. Glycine

47
Q

Which of the following tests is most commonly abnormal in von Willebrand disease?

A. Bleeding time
B. Prothrombin time
C. International normalized ratio
D. Partial thromboplastin time

A

A. Bleeding time

48
Q

Which of the following best corresponds to laboratory values in iron deficiency anemia?

A. Normal ferritin, decreased serum iron, and decreased total iron-binding capacity
B. Increased ferritin, decreased serum iron, and increased total iron-binding capacity
C. Decreased ferritin, decreased serum iron, increased total iron-binding capacity
D. Decreased ferritin, increased serum iron, and increased total iron-binding capacity

A

C. Decreased ferritin, decreased serum iron, increased total iron-binding capacity

49
Q

In aplastic anemia, damage to what organ causes pancytopenia?

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Bone marrow

A

D. Bone marrow

50
Q

Which of the following is the primary form of iron stored in cells?

A. Erythropoietin
B. Transferrin
C. Ferritin
D. Hepcidin

A

C. Ferritin

Hema-Immuno (3 decks)

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