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Hema-Immuno > Case 1 > Flashcards

Case 1 Flashcards

1
Q

This is the predominant WBC during the first few days of birth & after 4-5 years of age.

A. Neutrophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Monocyte
D. Eosinophil
E. Basophil
A

A. Neutrophils

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2
Q

Which of the following is active in parasitic infections & modulate the allergic inflammatory response?

A. Basophil
B. Leukocyte
C. Thrombocyte
D. Monocyte
E. Eosinophil
A

E. Eosinophils

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3
Q

Which of the following is an important effector cell in asthma, hay fever, and other allergic disorders?

A. Basophil
B. Leukocyte
C. Erythrocyte
D. Monocyte
E. Eosinophil
A

A. Basophil

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4
Q

A decrease in red blood cell count may be due to all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Blood loss
B. Hemolysis
C. Smoking 
D. Bone marrow failure
E. Iron deficiency
A

C. Smoking

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5
Q

It measures the average hemoglobin amount per RBC

A. Mean cell hemoglobin
B. Mean cell volume
C. Mean cell hemoglobin concentration
D. Red cell distribution width
E. Reticulocyte count
A

A. Mean cell hemoglobin

Reticulocyte count = bone marrow assessment
MCV = average RBC size
MCHC = average hemoglobin weight per unit RBC volume
RDW = variance in volume w/in RBC pop’n

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6
Q

A decrease in platelet count may be due to all of the following EXCEPT:

A. DIC
B. ITP
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Leukemia
E. Malignancies
A

E. Malignancies

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7
Q

These are broken, fragmented, RBCs, often half-disc shaped with two or three pointed extremities.

A. Echinocytes
B. Acanthocytes
C. Dacrocytes
D. Schistocytes
E. Codocytes
A

D. Schistocytes

Burr cells / Echinocytes = spiculated RBCs w/ short, equally spaced projections over the entire surface

Spur cells / Acanthocytes = irregularly shaped RBCs w/ projections of varying length and position

Teardrop cells / Dacrocytes = RBCs with a single elongated or pointed extremities

Target cells / Codocytes = bell-shaped RBCs

Elliptocytes / Ovalocytes = Oval to elongated ellipsoid RBCs

Sickle cells / Drepanocytes = Crescent shaped

Mouth cells / Stomatocytes = Bowl-shaped RBCs w/ single concavity

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8
Q

Microcytic RBCs can be found in all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Thalassemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Chronic iron deficiency anemia
E. Chronic disease
A

B. Megaloblastic anemia

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9
Q

These are irregular, refractile, peripheral granules composed of denatured hemoglobin.

A. Basophilic stippling
B. Erythrocyte stippling
C. Howell-Jolly bodies
D. Heinz bodies
E. Thala-hemoly bodies
A

D. Heinz bodies

Basophilic stippling = small, fine to coarse, dark BLUE granules; aggregated RIBOSOMES and degenerating MITOCHONDRIA

Howell-Jolly bodies = small, round, uniform BLACK inclusions; nuclear fragmentation or incomplete expulsion of the RBC nucleus

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10
Q

A cryoprecipitate contains all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Factor V
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor XIII
D. von Willebrand factor
E. None of the options
A

A. Factor V

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11
Q

What are the cardinal functions of HSC?

A. Self-renewal and Maturation
B. Maturation and Differentiation
C. Self-renewal, maturation, and Differentiation
D. Self-renewal and Differentiation
E. Self-renewal, hemostasis, and maturation

A

D. Self-renewal and Differentiation

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12
Q

By the end of 24 weeks’ gestation, which of the following becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis?

A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow
D. Thymus
E. Lymph node
A

C. Bone marrow

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13
Q

All of the following comes from granulocyte monocyte progenitor EXCEPT:

A. Monocyte
B. Granulocyte
C. Mast cell
D. Plasmacytoid dendritic cell
E. Eosinophil
A

D. Plasmacytoid dendritic cell

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14
Q

All of the following is/are TRUE about mesoblastic phase EXCEPT:

A. Begins at 19th day of dev’t after fertilization
B. Cells from the endoderm migrate to the yolk sac
C. Yolk sac erythroblasts are important to produce hemoglobin for oxygen delivery
D. Two of the options
E. None of the options

A

B. Cells from the endoderm migrate to the yolk sac

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15
Q

All of the following is/are TRUE about hepatic phase EXCEPT:

A. Begins at 3 to 4 gestational weeks
B. Production of megakaryocytes begin here
C. Hb A is predominant hemoglobin
D. Two of the options
E. None of the options
A

D. Two of the options

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16
Q

Which of the following is the first fully developed organ in the fetus?

A. Liver
B. Thymus
C. Spleen
D. Kidney
E. Bone marrow
A

B. Thymus

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17
Q

All of the following is/are TRUE about bone marrow EXCEPT:

A. Composed of red (inactive) and yellow (active) marrow
B. During childhood, all the bones contain red marrow
C. In adults, red marrow cellularity is greater than that of yellow marrow
D. Two of the options
E. None of the options

A

D. Two of the options

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18
Q

Which of the following cells regular the volume of marrow in which active hematopoiesis occurs?

A. Endothelial cells
B. Adipocytes
C. Macrophages
D. Lymphocytes
E. Fibroblasts
A

B. Adipocytes

19
Q

Which of the following is known to stimulate helper T cells?

A. IL 1
B. IL 2
C. IL 4
D. IL 6
E. IL 10
A

B. IL 2

20
Q

All of the following is/are seen in DIC EXCEPT:

A. Prolonged PT 
B. Elevated D-dimer
C. Decreased Fibrinogen levels
D. Elevated platelet count
E. Two of the options
F. None of the options
A

D. Elevated platelet count

21
Q

Ticlopidine is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Agranulocytosis
C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
D. Two of the options
E. None of the options
A

E. None of the options

22
Q

Which of the following initiates the coagulation cascade IN VIVO?

A. Factor XII 
B. Thrombin 
C. Tissue factor 
D. Factor X 
E. Prekallikrein
A

C. Tissue factor

23
Q

What does von Willebrand factor do?

A. Binds platelets to each other
B. Binds platelets to the subendothelium
C. Binds platelets to the phospholipid surface
D. Carries factor VII
E. Cleaves factor V

A

B. Binds platelets to the subendothelium

24
Q

Which of the following is a cofactor?

A. XII 
B. X 
C. VIII 
D. VII 
E. II
A

C. VIII

25
Q

What are the ingredients in a PTT?

A. Plasma + phospholipid + calcium 
B. Plasma + thromboplastin + calcium 
C. Plasma + phospholipid + thromboplastin 
D. Plasma + thrombin + calcium 
E. Plasma + plasmin + calcium
A

A. Plasma + phospholipid + calcium

26
Q

Which test evaluates the extrinsic pathway?

A. PT (INR) 
B. PTT 
C. TT 
D. Closure time 
E. Bleeding time
A

A. PT (INR)

27
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the bleeding time?

A. It is a highly reliable and reproducible test
B. The sample is evaluated using an optical densitometer
C. It evaluates platelet function in vivo
D. It is a commonly ordered test
E. It evaluates the coagulation system

A

C. It evaluates platelet function in vivo

28
Q

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?

A. von Willebrand’s disease 
B. Hemophilia A 
C. Hemophilia B 
D. Factor V Leiden 
E. TTP
A

A. von Willebrand’s disease

29
Q

Which disorders may show “factor-type” bleeding?

A. von Willebrand’s disease 
B. Hemophilia A 
C. Hemophilia B
D. Two of the options
D. All of the options
A

D. All of the options

von Willebrand = VWF
Hemophilia A = VIII
Hemophilia B = IX

30
Q

Patients with which of the following diseases may have a normal PTT?

A. von Willebrand’s disease 
B. Hemophilia A 
C. Hemophilia B 
D. Factor V Leiden
E. Two of the options
F. All of the options
A

E. Two of the options

31
Q

Bleeding in DIC is caused by which of the following?

A. Intravascular deposition of fibrin
B. Thrombosis of small and midsize vessels
C. Depletion of platelets and coagulation factors
D. Two of the options
E. All of the options

A

C. Depletion of platelets and coagulation factors

32
Q

What is the normal PT?

A. 6 - 10
B. 10 - 15
C. 11 - 14
D. 20 - 25
E. 30 - 35
A

Platelet count = 150,000 - 450,000

PTT = 25 - 35 sec

33
Q

All of the following are mechanisms to reduce blood loss EXCEPT:

A. Vascular spasm
B. Platelet plug formation
C. Coagulation
D. Two of the options
E. None of the options
A

E. None of the options

34
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence involved in primary hemostasis?

A. Adhesion –> Aggregation –> Activation
B. Aggregation –> Adhesion –> Activation
C. Adhesion –> Activation –> Aggregation
D. Aggregation –> Activation –> Adhesion

A

C. Adhesion –> Activation –> Aggregation

35
Q

Which of the following factors is involved in adhesion step of primary hemostasis?

A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor IX
D. VWF
E. Factor XIII
A

D. VWF

36
Q

Which of the following are precursors of enzymes needed in activation of secondary hemostasis?

A. Proenzymes
B. Apoenzymes
C. Zymogens
D. Two of the options
E. All of the options
A

D. Two of the options

37
Q

All of the following control platelet cytoskeleton EXCEPT:

A. Actin
B. Microtubules
C. Intermediate filaments
D. Two of the options
E. None of the options
A

E. None of the options

38
Q

Platelet plug mechanism is an important process for closing minute ruptures in very small blood vessels. Which of the following is considered as reversible process/es?

A. Adhesion
B. Aggregation
C. Secretion
D. Two of the options
E. All of the options
A

A. Adhesion

39
Q

Prothrombin, which helps blood to clot, is formed in what organ?

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Thymus
E. Lymph node
A

B. Liver

40
Q

Which of the following vitamins is required by the liver for normal activation of prothrombin?

A. A
B. B
C. D
D. K
E. C
A

D. K

41
Q

Which of the following enzymes is needed to convert fibrinogen to fibrin?

A. Thrombin
B. Prothrombin
C. Proteases
D. Zymogen
E. None of the options
A

A. Thrombin

42
Q

Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin in the presence of what ions?

A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Hydrogen
E. Phosphorus
A

B. Calcium

43
Q

Which test evaluates the intrinsic pathway?

A. PT (INR) 
B. aPTT 
C. TT 
D. Closure time 
E. Bleeding time
A

B. aPTT

44
Q

It measures the time necessary to generate fibrin after activation of factor VII

A. Bleeding time
B. aPTT
C. Prothrombin Time
D. Thrombin time
E. Closure time
A

C. PT

Hema-Immuno (3 decks)

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