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radiology 1 quizlet > Hematological and vascular disorder > Flashcards

Hematological and vascular disorder Flashcards

1
Q

death of osseous cellular and marrow components of bone

A

avascular necrosis

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2
Q

synonyms for avascular necrosis

A

osteonecrosis, ischemic necrosis, osteochondrosis

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3
Q

what makes epiphyseal necrosis clinically evident

A

articular surface collapse

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4
Q

etiology for AVN

A

spontaneous/idopathic are most common.

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6
Q

what happens to marrow space pressure in AVN

A

increases

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7
Q

AVN is caused by obstruction of extra- and intra- osseous vessels

A

obstruction of extra- and intra- osseous vessels by: arterial embolism, venous thrombus, traumatic disruption, external compression

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8
Q

four stages of AVN

A

avascular, revascularization, repair, deformity

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9
Q

which phase of AVN does obliteration of epiphyseal blood supply precipitating death of the osteocyte and bone marrow cells occur

A

avascular phase

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10
Q

growth is altered in which phase of AVN

A

avascular phase

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11
Q

TRUE or FALSE: in the avascular phase, epiphyseal and articular cartilage growth slows down or stops

A

FALSE; epiphyseal growth slows but articular cartilage growth continues

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12
Q

in which phase of AVN does deposition and resorption of bone occur

A

revascularization phase

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13
Q

during the revascularization phase of AVN, deposition occurs and new bone is deposited directly on dead bone, thickening the traveculation and increasing density… this phenomenon is known as

A

creeping substitution

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14
Q

resoprtion is secondary to ___, ___. ___ and produces bony fragmentation

A

phagocytosis, fibrosis, infiltration

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15
Q

in which phase of AVN is bony resorption replaced by bony deposition

A

repair and remodeling phase

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16
Q

in which phase of AVN does restitution of the epiphysis to its normal configuration occur

A

deformity phase

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17
Q

residual deformity is due to

A

how much force is exerted on the necrotic bone during revascularization and repair phases

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18
Q

general radiological features of epiphyseal infarction

A

collapse of articular cortex, fragmentation, mottled trabecular pattern, sclerosis, subchondral cysts, subchondral fracture

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19
Q

represents impaction fracture of necrotic bone, loss of normal smooth contour

A

collapse of articular cortex

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20
Q

a manifestation of resorption and weakening, radiolucent clefts appear

A

fragmentation

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21
Q

reveals a thickened irregular pattern traversing the necrotic areas

A

mottled trabecular pattern

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22
Q

mottled trabecular pattern is most likely seen in which phases of AVN

A

revascularization and repair

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23
Q

occurs with revascularization of new bone, deposited around dead trabeculae. typically occurs centrally, peripherally cortical margin or maybe a homogenous/patchy increase in density

A

sclerosis

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24
Q

patchy well circumscribed areas of rarefaction identical to DJD cysts

A

subchondral cysts

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25
Q

result from weakened subchondral bone, separates articular cortex from cancellous bone

A

subchondral fractures

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26
Q

subchondral fractures have which radiological signs associated with them

A

rim sign or crescent sign

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27
Q

where are metaphyseal and diaphyseal infarcts most likely seen

A

distal femur, proximal tibia, proximal humerus. usually medullary

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28
Q

AVN of adult femoral head

A

chandler’s disease

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29
Q

who is more prone for chandler’s disease

A

4:1 males

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30
Q

necrotic area tends to be wedged or semilunar shaped, apex centrally, involving anterior superior margin in which disease

A

chandler’s disease

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31
Q

bite sign most likely indicates which disease

A

chandler’s disease

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32
Q

subchondral bone collapse is indicated by which sign

A

crescent sign

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33
Q

AVN of the humeral head is indicated by which sign

A

snow cap sign

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34
Q

a healed AVN in the femoral head is indicated by which sign

A

hanging rope sign

35
Q

articular deformity leading to early DJD, acetabular dysplasia, along with trochanteric overgrowth is indicative of

A

healed femoral head AVN

36
Q

loss of marrow signal on the T1 weighted MRI may indicate

A

AVN

37
Q

SLE is a risk factor for

A

AVN

38
Q

legg-calve-perthes disease

A

AVN of the femoral capital epiphysis before closure (in children)

39
Q

are boys or girls more affected by legg-calve-perthes disease

A

boys 5:1

40
Q

symptoms of legg-calve-perthes

A

groin pain, limping, limitation of motion particularly abduction and internal rotation

41
Q

radiographic findings for legg-calve-perthes disease

A

soft tissue swelling, small epiphysis (fragmented), lateral displacement of ossification center, flattening, fissuring and fracture of the ossification center, metaphyseal widening and foreshortened, widened irregular physis, intraepiphyseal gas.

42
Q

osteochondrosis dessicans of the tibia

A

osgood schlatter’s disease

43
Q

osteochondrosis dessicans is most likely found where

A

medial femoral condyle

44
Q

local, focal AVN

A

osteochondrosis dessicans

45
Q

what is the fragmetation due to osteochondrosis dessicans called

A

joint mice

46
Q

where does osteochondrosis dessicans normally affect the ankle joint

A

medial side of the talus

47
Q

fragmentation of the apophysis of the tibial tuberosity

A

osgood schlatter’s disease

48
Q

involvement of the inferior pole of the patellar

A

sindig-larsen-johanssen disease

49
Q

fragmentation and flattening deformity, usually of the seconds MTP joint

A

freiberg’s disease

50
Q

common in females, possibly due to wearing high heeled shoes

A

freiberg’s disease

51
Q

AVN of lunate

A

kienbock’s disease

52
Q

who is at risk for developing kienbock’s disease

A

individuals engaged in manual labor

53
Q

disease associated with ulna minus variant or negative ulnar variance (short ulna)

A

keinbock’s disease

54
Q

describe affects of kienbock’s disease

A

initially lunate increases in density, later fragmentation and collapse, mixture of sclerosis and radiolucency, flattening, collapse, and fragmentation, altered joint congruity and biomechanics that precipitates DJD.

55
Q

increased lunate density is an indication of

A

kienbock’s disease

56
Q

a short ulna is an indication of

A

keinbock’s disease

57
Q

patchy, homogenous sclerosis of navicular. could also have collapse and fragmentation

A

kohler’s disease

58
Q

AVN of navicular

A

kohler’s disease

59
Q

thoraco-lumbar scheuermann’s disease

A

juvenile discongenic disease

60
Q

is severs disease a necrosis

A

no

61
Q

is severs disease AVN

A

no

62
Q

TRUE or FALSE: sclerosis and fragmentation of the calcaneal apophysis represents normal anatomy

A

TRUE; severs disease (phenomenon, not really a disease)

63
Q

serpiginous regions of calcification within the bone medulla that are usually associated with arteriosclerosis

A

calcified medullary infarct

64
Q

what is a differential diagnosis for calcified medullary infarct

A

enchondroma or chondrosarcoma

65
Q

most common sickle cell anemia

A

hemolytic anemia

66
Q

pain and swelling in the hands and feet (hands and feet syndrome) are indicative of

A

sickle cell anemia

67
Q

patients with sickle cell anemia have a predisposition to

A

salmonella osteomyelitis

68
Q

radiological findings for sickle cell anemia

A

marrow hyperplasia, coarse trabeculation, osteopenia, hair on end skull, H shaped vertebrae.

69
Q

hair on end skull is indicative of

A

sickle cell anemia

70
Q

H shaped vertebrae are indicative of

A

osteonecrosis due to sickle cell anemia

71
Q

reynold’s phenomenon is indicative of

A

sickle cell anemia

72
Q

reynold’s phenomenon

A

H shaped vertebrae

73
Q

what should be done when H shaped vertebrae are seen on a radiograph

A

blood test for sickle cell anemia

74
Q

cooley’s anemia

A

thalassemia

75
Q

group of genetic blood disorders with abnormal hemoglobin in people particularly of mediterranean origin that present with maxillary overgrowth and hair on end skull

A

thalassemia

76
Q

rodent faces are indicative of

A

thalassemia

77
Q

fatigue due to chronic anemia, splenomegaly, cardiomegaly, and gallstones is indicative of

A

thalassemia

78
Q

structure in the skull homologous to the medullary cavities in long bones

A

diploic space

79
Q

wide intercondylar notches are indicative of

A

hemophilia

80
Q

which gender is usually the carrier of hemophilia

A

female

81
Q

which gender does hemophilia usually manifest in

A

male

82
Q

malignant proliferation of WBCs

A

leukemia

83
Q

radiolucent submetaphyseal bands, osteopenia, and growth arrest lines are radiologic indications for

A

leukemia

radiology 1 quizlet (3 decks)

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