HEMA - Kalog Quiz 3 Flashcards by Marielle Tristine

Most reliable way to differentiate a mature from an immature granulocyte:

a. Size of the cell
b. Color of the cytoplasm
c. Size of the nucleus
d. Chromatin pattern

d. Chromatin pattern

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Indented or twisted nucleus, lacy chromatin and gray-blue cytoplasm:

a. Segmented neutrophil
b. Band neutrophil
c. Monocyte
d. Lymphocyte

c. Monocyte

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The most mature cell that can undergo mitosis is the:

a. Promyelocyte
b. Myelocyte
c. Metamyelocyte
d. Band

b. Myelocyte

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Once the metamyelocyte stage has been reached, cells have undergone ____ cell divisions and the proliferative phase comes to an end.

a. 1 or 2 cell divisions
b. 2 or 3 cell divisions
c. 4 or 5 cell divisions
d. 6 or 7 cell divisions

c. 4 or 5 cell divisions

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Granulocytic precursor with an indented or kidney-shaped nucleus:

a. Promyelocyte
b. Myelocyte
c. Metamyelocyte
d. Band

c. Metamyelocyte

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Densely packed chromatin:

a. Myelocyte
b. Metamyelocyte
c. Band
d. Segmented neutrophil

d. Segmented neutrophil

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Which of the following cells exhibit IgE receptors on their surface
membranes?

a. Basophils
b. Eosinophils
c. Band neutrophils
d. Monocytes

a. Basophils

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Mast cells have an appearance similar to that of the blood:

a. Monocyte
b. Neutrophil
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophil

d. Basophil

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Basophils have an average circulation time of about

a. 7 to 10 hours
b. 8.5 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 2.5 days

b. 8.5 hours

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The cell maturation sequence of the segmented neutrophil is:

a. Promyelocyte → myeloblast → myelocyte → metamyelocyte → band or stab → segmented neutrophil (PMN)
b. Myeloblast → promyelocyte → myel oocyte → metamyelocyte → band or stab → segmented neutrophil (PMN)
c. Monoblast → promyelocyte → myelocyte → metamyelocyte → band or stab → segmented neutrophil (PMN)
d. Promyelocyte → myelocyte → metamyelocyte → band or stab → segmented neutrophil (PMN)

b. Myeloblast → promyelocyte → myel oocyte → metamyelocyte → band or stab → segmented neutrophil (PMN)

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Which of the following can differentiate metamyelocytes from other stages of granulocyte maturation?

a. Presence of specific granules
b. Indentation of nucleus
c. Absence of nucleoli
d. Color of cytoplasm

b. Indentation of nucleus

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In the blast stage of development of leukocytes, the cytoplasm of the cell is:

a. Dark blue and lacks vacuoles
b. Light blue and lacks granules
c. Light blue and has specific granules
d. Gray with many dark-blue granules

b. Light blue and lacks granules

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A characteristic of a segmented neutrophil is:

a. Large orange granules
b. An elongated and curved nucleus
c. Light sky-blue cytoplasm
d. Greatest number of WBCs in the peripheral blood of an adult

d. Greatest number of WBCs in the peripheral blood of an adult

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An increase in metamyelocytes, myelocytes and promyelocytes can
be referred to as:

a. Leukocytopenia
b. Shift to the right
c. Shift to the left
d. Pelger-Huet anomaly

c. Shift to the left

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Tertiary granules of the neutrophils are formed during the:

a. Promyelocyte stage
b. Myelocyte and metamyelocyte stage
c. Metamyelocyte and band stage
d. Band and segmented neutrophil stage

c. Metamyelocyte and band stage

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Chondroitin sulfates such as heparan:

a. Neutrophil secondary granules
b. Eosinophil secondary granules
c. Basophil secondary granules
d. Lymphocyte secondary granules

c. Basophil secondary granules

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The principal leukocyte type involved in phagocytosis

a. Monocyte
b. Neutrophil
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophil

b. Neutrophil

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The nitroblue tetrazolium reduction test is used to assist in the
diagnosis of:

a. Leukocyte adhesion disorders (LADs)
b. Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
c. May-Hegglin anomaly
d. Pelger-Huet anomaly

b. Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

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Which of the following is associated with Alder-Reilly inclusions?

a. Membrane defect of lysosomes
b. Dohle bodies and giant platelets
c. Two-lobed neutrophils
d. Mucopolysaccharidosis

d. Mucopolysaccharidosis

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A Gaucher cell is best described as a macrophage with:

a. “Wrinkled” cytoplasm due to an accumulation of glucocerebroside
b. “Foamy” cytoplasm filled with unmetabolized sphingomyelin
c. Pronounced vacuolization and deposits of cholesterol
d. Abundant cytoplasm containing storage iron and cellular remnants

a. “Wrinkled” cytoplasm due to an accumulation of glucocerebroside

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The familial disorder featuring pseudo-Dohle bodies thrombocytopenia, and large platelets is called:

a. May-Hegglin anomaly
b. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
c. Pelger-Huet anomaly
d. Alder-Reilly anomaly

a. May-Hegglin anomaly

The morphological characteristic(s) associated with the Chédiak–Higashi syndrome is (are):

a. Pale blue cytoplasmic inclusions
b. Giant lysosomal granules
c. Small, dark-staining granules and condensed nuclei
d. Nuclear hyposegmentation

b. Giant lysosomal granules

Auer rods may be seen in all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Acute myeloid leukemia
b. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
d. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

The FAB classification of ALL seen most commonly in children is:

a. L1
b. L2
c. L3
d. Burkitt’s type

a. L1

25. Sodium fluoride may be added to naphthyl ASD (NASDA) esterase reaction. The fluoride is added to inhibit a positive reaction with: a. Megakaryocytes b. Monocytes c. Erythrocytes d. Granulocytes

b. Monocytes

26. In myeloid cells, the stain that selectively identifies phospholipids in the membranes of both primary and secondary granules is: a. PAS b. Myeloperoxidase c. Sudan black B d. Tdt

c. Sudan black B

27. In the French-American-Bristish (FAB) classification, myelomonocytic leukemia would be: a. M1 and M2 b. M3 c. M4 d. M5

c. M4

28. Solid tumor counterpart of acute lymphoblastic leukemia: a. Lymphoma, undifferentiated b. Lymphoma, poorly-differentiated c. Lymphoma, well-differentiated d. Myeloma

b. Lymphoma, poorly-differentiated

29. Which of the following cells is considered pathognomonic for Hodgkin’s disease? a. Niemann–Pick cells b. Reactive lymphocytes c. Flame cells d. Reed–Sternberg cells

d. Reed–Sternberg cells

30. In myelofibrosis, the characteristic abnormal red cell morphology is: a. Target cells b. Schistocytes c. Teardrop cells d. Ovalocytes

c. Teardrop cells

31. The erythrocytosis seen in relative polycythemia occurs because of: a. Decreased arterial oxygen saturation b. Decreased plasma volume of circulating blood c. Increased erythropoietin levels d. Increased erythropoiesis in the bone marrow

b. Decreased plasma volume of circulating blood

32. Which of the following gene mutations correlates with the t(9;22) that is present in Philadelphia chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia? a. MYC/IGH b. BCR/ABL c. PML/RARA d. JAK2

b. BCR/ABL

33. Cells that exhibit a positive stain with acid phosphatase and are not inhibited with tartaric acid are characteristically seen in: a. Infectious mononucleosis b. Infectious lymphocytosis c. Hairy cell leukemia d. T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia

c. Hairy cell leukemia

34. Which of the following appearances describes the types of cells seen in Sezary syndrome? a. Plasma cells containing immunoglobulin deposits b. Large circulating micromegakaryocytes c. Lymphocytes with convoluted, cerebriform nuclei d. Prolymphocytes with prominent azurophilic granules

c. Lymphocytes with convoluted, cerebriform nuclei

35. In the impedance principle of cell counting, the electrical resistance between the ______ electrodes, or impedance in the current, occurs as the cells pass through the sensing aperture, causing voltage pulses that are measurable. a. Two (2) electrodes b. Three (3) electrodes c. Four (4) electrodes d. Ten (10) electrodes

a. Two (2) electrodes

36. Forward, low angle light scatter: a. 0 degree angle b. 2 to 3 degree angle c. 5 to 15 degree angle d. 90 degree angle

b. 2 to 3 degree angle

37. In automated cell counters, these parameters are directly measured: a. WBC and RBC b. WBC, RBC, and hemoglobin c. WBC and hemoglobin d. RBC only

b. WBC, RBC, and hemoglobin

38. Based on the degree of scatter and the amount of light reaching the sensor depend on the volume of the cell: a. Impedance principle of cell counting b. Optical principle of cell counting c. Reflectance photometry d. Fibrometer

b. Optical principle of cell counting

39. Cold agglutinins: a. Decreased RBCs, increased MCV and MCHC, grainy appearance b. Increased RBCs, decreased MCV and MCHC, grainy appearance c. Increased RBCs, increased MCV and MCHC, grainy appearance d. Decreased RBCs, decreased MCV and MCHC, grainy appearance

a. Decreased RBCs, increased MCV and MCHC, grainy appearance

40. Lipemia and icterus: a. Decreased hemoglobin and MCH b. Increased hemoglobin and MCH c. Normal hemoglobin and MCH d. Decreased hemoglobin and increased MCH

b. Increased hemoglobin and MCH

41. Dilution for RBC count in AUTOMATED cell counters: a. 1:100 b. 1:200 c. 1: 50,000 d. 1: 500

c. 1: 50,000

42. The Coulter principle for counting of cells is based upon the fact that: a. Isotonic solutions conduct electricity better than cells do b. Conductivity varies proportionally to the number of cells c. Cells conduct electricity better than saline does d. Isotonic solutions cannot conduct electricity

a. Isotonic solutions conduct electricity better than cells do

43. In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger than normal will be to the _____ of the normal distribution curve a. Right b. Left c. Middle d. Below

a. Right

44. If the RBC distribution on a histogram demonstrates a homogeneous pattern and a small SD, the peripheral blood smear would probably exhibit: a. Extreme anisocytosis b. Very little anisocytosis c. A single population of spherocytes d. A single population of macrocytes

b. Very little anisocytosis

45. Effect of platelet clumps to automated cell counting: a. Decreased platelets and WBCs b. Increased platelets and WBCs c. Decreased platelets, increased WBCs d. Increased platelets, decreased WBCs

c. Decreased platelets, increased WBCs

46. Leukemia, especially with chemotherapy a. Decreased WBCs, increased platelets b. Increased WBCs, decreased platelets c. Decreased WBCs, decreased platelets d. Increased WBCs, increased platelets

a. Decreased WBCs, increased platelets

47. All of the following are causes of spurious decrease in MCHC, EXCEPT: a. Autoagglutination b. High WBCs c. Spuriously low hemoglobin d. Spuriously high hematocrit

a. Autoagglutination

48. Side angle scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is used to measure: a. Cell size b. Cytoplasmic granularity c. Cell number d. Immunologic (antigenic) identification

b. Cytoplasmic granularity

49. Falsely elevated automated platelet counts may result from: a. Platelet satellitism b. Platelet agglutinins c. Exceptionally large platelets d. Erythrocyte inclusion bodies

d. Erythrocyte inclusion bodies

50. RL flag EXCEPT: a. Platelet clumps b. RBC fragments c. Giant platelets d. Cold agglutinins

d. Cold agglutinins