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KLUBSYBEAR HEMATOLOGY > HEMA - Kalog Quiz 2 > Flashcards

HEMA - Kalog Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Counting area for manual RBC count:

a. 0.2 mm^2
b. 1 mm^2
c. 4 mm^2
d. 5 mm^2

A

a. 0.2 mm^2

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2
Q
  1. Dehydration:

a. Decreased hematocrit
b. Increased hematocrit
c. Variable hematocrit
d. Hematocrit cannot be determined

A

b. Increased hematocrit

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3
Q
  1. When the correct area of a specimen from a patient with a normal RBC count is viewed, there are generally about ____ RBCs per 100x oil immersion field.

a. 10 to 15 RBCs per OIF
b. 20 to 25 RBCs per OIF
c. 100 to 150 RBCs per OIF
d. 200 to 250 RBCs per OIF

A

d. 200 to 250 RBCs per OIF

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4
Q
  1. The ESR is ____ proportional to the red blood cell mass and _____proportional to plasma viscosity.

a. Direct, direct
b. Direct, inverse
c. Inverse, direct
d. Inverse, inverse

A

b. Direct, inverse

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5
Q
  1. If 60 reticulocytes are counted in 1000 red blood cells, what is the reticulocyte count?

a. 0.06%
b. 0.6%
c. 6.0%
d. 60.0%

A

c. 6.0%

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6
Q
  1. To improve accuracy of the reticulocyte count, have another laboratorian count the other film; counts should agree within:

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%

A

b. 20%

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7
Q
  1. All of the following causes a falsely low ESR, EXCEPT:

a. Column used is slanted
b. EDTA tube is clotted
c. EDTA tube is one-third full
d. EDTA specimen is 24 hours old

A

a. Column used is slanted

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8
Q
  1. The reagent used in the traditional sickle cell screening test is: *

a. Sodium chloride
b. Sodium citrate
c. Sodium metabisulfite
d. Sodium-potassium oxalate

A

c. Sodium metabisulfite

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9
Q
  1. Hemoglobin solubility test is a screening test for:

a. Hemoglobin A2
b. Hemoglobin F
c. Hemoglobin S
d. Unstable hemoglobins

A

c. Hemoglobin S

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10
Q
  1. If the sugar water test is positive, _____ procedure should be performed before a diagnosis of PNH is made.

a. Autohemolysis test
b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
c. Osmotic fragility test
d. Sucrose hemolysis test

A

d. Sucrose hemolysis test

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11
Q
  1. Anticoagulant for the sugar water and sucrose hemolysis test:

a. EDTA
b. Citrate
c. Heparin
d. Oxalate

A

b. Citrate

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12
Q
  1. What are the initial laboratory tests that are performed for the diagnosis of anemia?

a. CBC, iron studies, and reticulocyte count
b. CBC, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood film examination
c. Reticulocyte count and serum iron, vitamin B12 and folate assays
d. Bone marrow study, iron studies, and peripheral blood film examination

A

b. CBC, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood film examination

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13
Q
  1. All of the following are associated with increased OFT, EXCEPT:

a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Hereditary spherocytosis
c. HDN
d. Acquired hemolytic anemia

A

a. Sickle cell anemia

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14
Q
  1. A Miller disk is an ocular device used to facilitate counting of:

a. Platelets
b. Reticulocytes
c. Sickle cells
d. Nucleated RBCs

A

b. Reticulocytes

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15
Q
  1. The presence of excessive rouleaux formation on a blood smear is
    often accompanied by an increased:

a. Reticulocyte count
b. Sedimentation rate
c. Hematocrit
d. Erythrocyte count

A

b. Sedimentation rate

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16
Q
  1. Duplicate hematocrit results should agree within __ unit (%).

a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 5%
d. 15%

A

a. 1%

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17
Q
  1. Insufficient centrifugation will result in:

a. A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value
b. A false decrease in Hct value
c. No effect on Hct value
d. All of these options, depending on the patient

A

a. A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

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18
Q
  1. A correction is necessary for WBC counts when nucleated RBCs are
    seen on the peripheral smear because:

a. The WBC count would be falsely lower
b. The RBC count is too low
c. Nucleated RBCs are counted as leukocytes
d. Nucleated RBCs are confused with giant platelets

A

c. Nucleated RBCs are counted as leukocytes

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19
Q
  1. What combination of reagents is used to measure hemoglobin?

a. Hydrochloric acid and p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
b. Potassium ferricyanide and potassium cyanide
c. Sodium bisulfite and sodium metabisulfite
d. Sodium citrate and hydrogen peroxide

A

b. Potassium ferricyanide and potassium cyanide

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20
Q
  1. All of the following are sources of error when measuring hemoglobin
    by the cyanmethemoglobin method EXCEPT:

a. Excessive anticoagulant
b. White blood cell count that exceeds linearity limits
c. Lipemic plasma
d. Scratched or dirty hemoglobin measuring cell

A

a. Excessive anticoagulant

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21
Q
  1. Lipemia can cause turbidity in the cyanmethemoglobin method and a falsely high hemoglobin result. It can be corrected by:

a. Reagent-sample solution can be centrifuged and the supernatant measured
b. Adding 0.01 mL of the patient’s plasma to 5 mL of the cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the reagent blank
c. Making a 1:2 dilution with distilled water (1 part diluted sample plus 1 part water) and multiplying the results from the standard curve by 2.
d. Cannot be corrected

A

b. Adding 0.01 mL of the patient’s plasma to 5 mL of the cyanmethemoglobin reagent and using this solution as the reagent blank

22
Q
  1. Increased ESR:
  2. Anemia
  3. Macrocytosis
  4. Sickle cells
  5. Spherocytes

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

a. 1 and 2

23
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used with the MCV for initial
    classification of anemia?

a. RBC count
b. RDW
c. MPV
d. PDW

24
Q
  1. The Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) recommends that bands and neutrophils be counted:

a. Separately and placed in two categories
b. Together and placed in a single category
c. Either of these
d. Neither of these

A

b. Together and placed in a single category

25
25. S or DNA replication a. 1 hour b. 4 hours c. 8 hours d. 10 hours
c. 8 hours
26
26. A patient has macrocytic anemia, the physician suspects pernicious anemia. Which tests would best rule in a definitive diagnosis of pernicious anemia? a. Homocysteine b. Intrinsic factor antibodies c. Ova and parasite examination for D. latum d. Bone marrow examination
b. Intrinsic factor antibodies
27
27. G6PD deficiency episodes are related to which of the following? a. Exposure to oxidant drugs b. Defective globin chains c. Antibodies to RBCs d. Abnormal protein structures
a. Exposure to oxidant drugs
28
28. Which antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)? a. Anti-I b. Anti-i c. Anti-M d. Anti-P
d. Anti-P
29
29. Which antibiotic(s) is (are) most often implicated in the development of aplastic anemia? a. Sulfonamides b. Penicillin c. Tetracycline d. Chloramphenicol
d. Chloramphenicol
30
30. Which anemia has red cell morphology similar to that seen in iron deficiency anemia? a. Sickle cell anemia b. Thalassemia c. Pernicious anemia d. Hereditary spherocytosis
b. Thalassemia
31
31. Lack of vitamin B12 or folic acid hinders the erythroblast in manufacturing: a. Heme b. Globin c. DNA d. RNA
c. DNA
32
32. Megaloblastic anemia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: a. Decreased WBCs and retics b. Hypersegmented neutrophils c. Oval macrocytes d. Increased platelets
d. Increased platelets
33
33. Which type of anemia is usually present in a patient with acute leukemia? a. Microcytic, hyperchromic b. Microcytic, hypochromic c. Normocytic, normochromic d. Macrocytic, normochromic
c. Normocytic, normochromic
34
34. Iron deficiency anemia may be distinguished from anemia of chronic infection by: a. Serum iron level b. Red cell morphology c. Red cell indices d. Total iron-binding capacity
d. Total iron-binding capacity
35
35. Storage iron is usually best determined by: a. Serum transferrin levels b. Hgb values c. Myoglobin values d. Serum ferritin levels
d. Serum ferritin levels
36
36. The fish tapeworm Diphyllobothrium latum is associated with the development of: a. Microcytic anemia b. Macrocytic anemia c. Hemolytic anemia d. Hypoproliferative anemia
b. Macrocytic anemia
37
37. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is characterized by flow cytometry results that are: a. Negative for CD55 and CD59 b. Positive for CD55 and CD59 c. Negative for CD4 and CD8 d. Positive for all normal CD markers
a. Negative for CD55 and CD59
38
38. Which of the following characteristics are common to hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary elliptocytosis, hereditary stomatocytosis, and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria? a. Autosomal dominant inheritance b. Red cell membrane defects c. Positive direct antiglobulin test d. Measured platelet count
b. Red cell membrane defects
39
39. Anemia is due to the infiltration of abnormal cells into the bone marrow and subsequent destruction and replacement of normal hematopoietic cells: a. Aplastic anemia b. Pure red cell aplasia c. Myelophthisic anemia d. Anemia of chronic kidney disease
c. Myelophthisic anemia
40
40. Deletion of three alpha globin genes: a. Silent carrier state b. Alpha thalassemia minor c. Hemoglobin H disease d. Bart’s hydrops fetalis
c. Hemoglobin H disease
41
41. Hemoglobinopathies associated with abnormal molecular structure: a. Alpha thalassemia b. Alpha and beta thalassemia c. Sickle cell anemia and beta thalassemia d. Sickle cell anemia, sickle cell trait and Hb C disease
d. Sickle cell anemia, sickle cell trait and Hb C disease
42
42. In aplastic anemia, the bone marrow is: a. Empty b. Empty, hypoplastic c. Empty, hyperplastic d. Either hypoplastic or hyperplastic
b. Empty, hypoplastic
43
43. In stage 3 IDA, the erythrocyte indices are typically: a. MCV increased, MCH decreased, and MCHC decreased b. MCV decreased, MCH decreased, and MCHC decreased c. MCV decreased, MCH increased, and MCHC decreased d. MCV decreased, MCH decreased, and MCHC normal
b. MCV decreased, MCH decreased, and MCHC decreased
44
44. In cold-type AIHA: a. IgM, usually anti-I is present b. Rh antibodies are the most frequent cause c. IgM usually occurs in newborn infants d. Autoantibodies are present
a. IgM, usually anti-I is present
45
45. What factors contribute to the sickling of erythrocytes in sickle cell disease crisis? a. Increase in blood pH and increase in oxygen b. Extremely hot weather c. Extremely reduced oxygen and increased acidity in the blood d. Sickling is spontaneous
c. Extremely reduced oxygen and increased acidity in the blood
46
46. Classification of anemia EXCEPT: a. Blood loss b. Impaired red cell production c. Accelerated red cell destruction d. Hemoglobin defects
d. Hemoglobin defects
47
47. Caused when lysine replaces glutamic acid at position 26 on the beta chains: a. Hb S b. Hb C c. Hb E d. Hb D
c. Hb E
48
48. All of the following are associated with Folic acid deficiency EXCEPT: a. CNS involvement b. Methotrexate c. Poor diet d. Pregnancy
a. CNS involvement
49
49. Diamond black fan anemia is characterized by the following EXCEPT: a. Decreased RBC count b. Normal RBC count. c. Normal PLT count d. Normal WBC count
b. Normal RBC count.
50
50. Triad of features characteristic of MAHA, EXCEPT a. Thrombocytopenia b. Thrombocytosis c. RBC polychromasia d. RBC fragmentation
b. Thrombocytosis

KLUBSYBEAR HEMATOLOGY (5 decks)

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