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MTAP 2 MIDTERM EXAM > HEMA 1 > Flashcards

HEMA 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Marrow type that is hematopoietically active?

A

Red Marrow

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2
Q

Evaluated under low power field and is the largest cell in the bone marrow.

A

Megakaryocytes

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3
Q

The vertical and horizontal interactions of membrane proteins maintain the biconcave, discoid geometry of the RBC. Describe the result of these forces.

A. Prevents loss of membrane
B. Prevents membrane from fragmenting in response to too much stress.
C. Both A & B

A

BOTH A & B

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4
Q

This pre-analytical process is considered as the most important step in analytical procedure.

A. Test ordering
B. Sample preparation
C. Patient Identification
D. Computation of Results

A

Patient Identification

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5
Q

Where is the site of hematopoiesis during myeloid phase?

A

Bone Marrow

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6
Q

A leukocyte with round nucleus, light blue cytoplasm with few or no granules, average % in blood is 34.

A

Lymphocyte

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7
Q

Where is most hematopoietic tissue found in adults?

A

Long bones

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8
Q

Hematopoietic development phase which occurs during the 5th month of fetal development.

A

Medullary Phase

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9
Q

The control center of the cell is the?

A

Nucleus

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10
Q

After the age of 70,, fatty metamorphosis increases approximately by __% per decade.

A. 50
B. 10
C. 40
D. 30
E. 20

A

10%

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11
Q

When a stained blood smear is examined to determine the percentage of each type of leukocyte present and assess the erythrocyte and platelet morphology, this is:

A. Differential count
B. PBS count
C. Both
D. None

A

BOTH (sagot ko differential lang)

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12
Q

The bone resorbing cell is known as:

A

Osteoclast

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered as a true cell because it is only a cytoplasmic remnant of a mother cell?

A

Thrombocytes

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14
Q

The most common erythroid maturation stages in the bone marrow:

A. Basophilic Normoblast
B. Orthochromic Normoblast
C. Polychromatic Normoblast
D. A and B

A

Polychromatic Normoblast

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15
Q

Liquid portion of a non-anticoagulated blood:

A

Serum

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16
Q

What is the life span of basophils in the blood?

A

60 hours

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17
Q

Which of the following organs is responsible for the maturation of T lymphocytes and regulation of their expression of CD8?

A

Thymus

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18
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells produce all lineages of blood cells in sufficient quantities over the lifetime of an individual because they are:

A. Unipotent
B. Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division
C. Present in large numbers in the marrow niches
D. Has a low mitotic potential in response to growth factors
E. NONE

A

Have the ability of self-renewal by asymmetric division

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19
Q

These organs function at some point in hematopoesis except:

A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Thymus
D. Bone Marrow
E. None

A

NONE

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20
Q

These factors play a major role in the maintenance, proliferation, and differentiation of hematopoietic stem cells and progenitor cells:

A. Cytokines
B. Growth Factors
C. BOTH
D. NEITHER

A

BOTH

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21
Q

These are organs which are located along the lymphatic capillaries that are parallel to, but not part of the circulatory system:

A. Lymph Nodes
B. Spleen
C. MALT
D. Thymus

A

Lymph Nodes

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22
Q

During the __ phase of prenatal hematopoiesis, hematopoietic stem cells and mesenchymal cells migrate into the core of the bone.

A

Medullary (Myeloid) Phase

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23
Q

Which of the following cells are important in immune regulation, allergic inflammation, and destruction of tissue invading helminths?

A. neutrophils & monocytes
B. T & B Lymphocytes
C. Eosinophils & Basophils
D. Macrophages & Dendritic Cells

A

Eosinophils & Basophils

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24
Q

When coagulation of fresh whole blood is prevented through the use of an anticoagulant, the straw colored fluid that can be separated from the cellular element is ____.

A

Plasma

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25
Q

What is the first type of cell produced by the developing embryo?

A

Erythrocyte (Primitive Erythroblast)

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26
Q

This is a formation of clot inside the blood vessels.

A

Thrombosis

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27
Q

Scientist that describes platelet as “petite plaques”.

A

Giullio Bizzozero

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28
Q

In hematopoietic stem cell, multipotent is derived from ___.

A

Pluripotent

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29
Q

During the mesoblastic stage, the types of hemoglobin formed are the following EXCECPT:

A. Gower 1
B. Gower 2
C. Portland
D. HbF

A

HbF

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30
Q

The extramedullary hematopoiesis is the work of ____ that mediate the progenitor binding to stroma.

A. Proteoglycan
B. Glycosaminoglycans
C. Both
D. None

A

BOTH

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31
Q

At which normoblastic stage does globin production begin?

A

Pronormoblast

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32
Q

In the bone marrow, the erythroid precursors are located:

A. Surrounding the macrophages in erythroid islands
B. Adjacent to megakaryocytes along the adventitial cell lining
C. Surrounding fat cells in apoptotic islands.
D. In the center of the hematopoietic cords

A

Surrounding the macrophages in erythroid islands

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33
Q

Macrophages aid in adaptive immunity by:

A. Degrading antigen and presenting it to lymphocytes
B. Ingesting and digesting organisms that neutrophils cannot
C. Synthesizing complement components
D. Storing iron from senescent red cells.

A

Degrading antigen and presenting it to lymphocytes

34
Q

The stage in neutrophilic development in which the nucleus is indented in a kidney bean shape and the cytoplasm has secondary granules that are lavender in color is the:

A. Band
B. Myelocyte
C. Promyelocyte
d. Metamyelocyte

A

Metamyelocyte

35
Q

The following is unique to both B and T lymphocytes and occurs during their early development:

A. Expression of surface antigens CD4 and CD8
B. Maturation in thymus
C. Synthesis of immunoglobulins
D. Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes

A

Rearrangement of antigen receptor genes

36
Q

The megakaryocyte progenitor that undergoes endomitosis is:

A. MK-1
B. BFU-Meg
C. CFU-Meg
D. LD-CFU-Meg

A

LD-CFU-Meg

37
Q

What plasma protein is essential for platelet adhesion?

A. vWF
B. Factor VIII
C. Fibrinogen
D. P-selectin

A

VWF

38
Q

Microparticles:

A. Are stored in platelet dense granules
B. Inhibit blood clotting
C. Bud off of platelets after their exposure to strong agonists
D. Exhibit no biologic activity

A

Bud off of platelets after their exposure to strong agonists

39
Q

What platelet organelle sequesters ionic calcium and binds a series of enzymes of the eicosanoid pathway?

A. Glycocalyx
B. Dense Granules
C. Dense Tubular System

A

Dense Tubular System

40
Q

White Clots:

A. Occur primarily in the deep veins of the leg.
B. Are characteristic of the secondary hemostatic process
C. Are largely composed of platelets and vWF
D. Form normally in response to vascular injury and are completely

A

Are largely composed of platelets and vWF

41
Q

True in iron deficiency anemia EXCEPT:

A. Low serum iron
B. Low total iron binding capacity
C. Low % iron saturation of transferrin
d. Low ferritin and Low bone marrow iron

A

Low total iron binding capacity (HIGH DAPAT)

42
Q

True in megaloblastic anemia:

A. RBCs has delayed nuclear maturation compared to its cytoplasm
B. Caused by Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. The nuclear chromatin is open, lacey in appearance
D. Normal hemoglobin formation
E. All of these

A

AOTA

43
Q

The usual cause of Vit B12 deficiency is:

A

Malabsorption

44
Q

A type of anemia where there is macrocytosis where the BONE MARROW SHOWS NORMOBLASTIC rather than megaloblastic erythropoiesis:

A. Megaloblastic
B. Non-megaloblastic
C. Iron Deficienct
D. Hemolytic
E. None

A

Non-megaloblastic

45
Q

Type of anemia usually with this RBC indices results:

MCV = 60 fL
MCH = 25 pg
MCHC = 30 g/dL

A

Microcytic, Hypochromic

46
Q

Conditions which fall under normocytic, normochromic anemia:

A. Recent blood loss
B. Overexpansion of plasma like in pregnancy
C. Hypoplastic bone marrow
D. Renal disorders
E. ALL

A

ALL

47
Q

When there is infiltration of bone marrow by tumors, this may be TRUE:

A. Hematopoiesis may be hampered
B. BM may not produce the desired amount of blood cells
C. Leukemia may be present
D. Patient may be anemic
E. All

A

ALL

48
Q

Acute post-hemorrhagic anemia may be due to:

A. Rapid blood loss
B. Slow blood loss
C. Accelerated destruction of blood cells
D. Poor production of RBCs
E. A & B

A

Rapid blood loss

49
Q

A type of hemolytic anemia due to RBC membrane, metabolic, or Hb defects:

A

Intrinsic Hemolytic Anemia

50
Q

In hereditary spherocytosis, there are true EXCEPT:

A. RBCs have increased OFT
B. (+) Direct Coomb’s Test
C. RBC has no biconcavity
D. Negative Coombs Test
E. None of these

A

(+) Direct Coomb’s Test (DAPAT NEGATIVE)

51
Q

A rare chronic acquired defect of RBC membrane which renders it sensitive to lysis by complement activity causing chronic intravascular lysis during sleeping time:

A

PNH

52
Q

Tests for PNH EXCEPT:

A. Sucrose Hemolysis Test
B. Sugar Water Test
C. Donath-Landsteiner Test
D. None

A

Donath-Landsteiner Test

53
Q

True in hereditary stomatocytosis EXCEPT:

A. Also called Hydrocytosis
B. Increased OFT
C. 10-50% of RBCs are stomatocytes
D. Increased Sodium intracellularly
E. none

A

NONE

54
Q

The most common defect seen in enzyme deficient hemolytic anemia:

A

G5PD Deficiency Anemia

55
Q

The most common RBC enzyme deficiency in EMP:

A

PK Deficiency

56
Q

Extrinsic hemolytic anemias may be caused by:

A. Chemical Agents
B. Physical Agents
C. Infectious Agents
D. Presence of autoantibodies
E. All

A

ALL

57
Q

True of autoimmune hemolytic anemia EXCEPT:

A. Increased destruction of RBCs
B. May be manifested by patients with SLE, Malignant and other autoimmune disorders
C. May be caused by cold and warm antibody
D. Coomb’s Antiglobulin Test is Positive

A

NONE

58
Q

The most common cold agglutinins are IgM with ___ specificity.

A

IgM Anti-I

59
Q

These conditions are acquired conditions:

A. PNH
B. PCH
C. Hereditary Spherocytosis
D. All of these
E. A & B

A

A & B

60
Q

True of isoimmune hemolytic anemia EXCEPT:

A. May be due to Rh incompatibility
B. May be due to ABO incompatibility
C. (+) AHG Test
D. (-) AHG Test

A

(-) AHG Test

61
Q

True in thalassemia EXCEPT:

A. Increased OFT
B. RBCs are microcytic, hypochromic
C. Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis
D. Serum iron is increased
E. All of these

A

Serum iron is increased

62
Q

The most severe form of alpha thalassemia:

A

Hydrops Fetalis with Hb Bart’s

63
Q

Synthesis of heme happens in the ____.

A

NONE (Mitochrondria & Cytosol)

64
Q

In aplastic anemia, the following cells are produced in low number:

A. RBC
B. WBC
C. PLATELET
D. ALL
E. NONE

A

ALL

65
Q

The storage form of iron in the body is:

A. Ferritin
B. Transferrin
C. Hemosiderin
D. A & B
E. A & C

A

Ferritin and Hemosiderin

66
Q

The transport protein of iron is:

A

Transferrin

67
Q

A type of anemia where there are autoantibodies against the intrinsic factor or the cells that produce intrinsic factor:

A

Pernicious Anemia

68
Q

Pancytopenia means:

A. All cell lines are decreased in production
B. RBC and WBC are decrease but platelet is normal
C. RBC and platelets are decreased but RBC is normal
D. All of these
E. None

A

All cell lines are decreased in production

69
Q

True of pure red blood cell aplasia EXCEPT:

A. Normal RBC and platelets production
B. Reduce/absent erythroblasts from the bone marrow
C. Called congenital red cell aplasia
D. Called Diamond-Blackfan Anemia

A

Normal RBC and platelets production

70
Q

Myelophthisic Anemia may result from:

A. Tumorous condition in the BM
B. Low production in the BM
C. May be caused by metastatic carcinoma
D. May be due to multiple myeloma
E. All of these

A
71
Q

Anemia may be caused by:

A. Chronic blood loss
B. Acute blood loss
C. BOTH

A

BOTH

72
Q

Impaired release of storage iron associated with increased HEPCIDIN level is due to:

A

Anemia of Chronic Disease

73
Q

An anemia with normocytic/normochromic anemia with characteristic of course basophilic stippling:

A

Lead Poisoning

74
Q

Chronic blood loss can lead to:

A. Tissue iron deposit
B. Vit B12 deficiency
C. iron deficiency
D. Polycythemia

A

iron deficiency

75
Q

Abetalipoproteinemia is characterized by mild anemia and numerous ____ on the peripheral blood smear.

A. Acanthocytes
B. Elliptocytes
C. Echinocytes
D. Stomatocytes

A

Acanthocytes

76
Q

This red cell parameter is increased in IDA:

A

TIBC

77
Q

The opposite of aplastic anemia:

A

Polycythemia

78
Q

Which of the following are important to consider in the patient’s history when investigating the cause of an anemia?

A. Diet and medications
B. Occupation, hobbies, and travels
C. Bleeding episodes in the patient, or in his/her family members
D. ALL

A

ALL

79
Q

What are the initial laboratory tests that are performed for the diagnosis of anemia?

A. CBC, Iron studies, and Reticulocyte count
B. CBC, Reticulocyte count, and PBS examination
C. Reticulocyte count, Serum iron, Vit B12, and Folate assays
D. Bone marrow study, Iron studies, and PBS film

A

CBC, Reticulocyte count, and PBS examination

80
Q

Which of the following is detectable only by examination of a peripheral blood film?

A. Microcytosis
B. Anisocytosis
C. Hypochromia
D. Poikilocytosis

A

Poikilocytosis

MTAP 2 MIDTERM EXAM (5 decks)

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