Hem Onc Flashcards

1
Q

work-up of anemia

A

CBC

retic count - young blood cell, in 24hrs it matures to a RBC

  • problem in bone marrow or outside the bone marrow
  • takes 5-7 days before you can get a reticulocyte response
  • have to correct reticulocyte count for degree of anemia - (HCT/45)*reticulocyte count given
    - why correct? - because in anemia, the pts blood cells are depleted so retics will be falsely elevated
  • 3% or greater retics = good response for anemia
  • you can see RNA filaments in reticulocytes - reticulocyte is still making Hb = blue RBC
  • IMPORTANT in working up normocytic anemias

polychromasia present - basophilic immature RBCs, 2-3d before they become a mature RBC (so even younger than reticulocytes)
- another correction needed - (corrected retic count)/2

rule of 3: 3Hb = HCT

every unit of packed RBCs transfused = increase Hb by 1, HCT by 3%

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2
Q

Fe deficiency anemia

A

most common cause of anemia WW

  • most common cause of Fe-def anemia = GI bleed
  • pt is losing blood - usually from GI tract
  • note - vegetarians have decreased Fe consumption

increased in RDW - why?
- you dont develop microcytic anemia overnight - Fe-deficiency starts with normocytic anemia and progresses to microcytic anemia

Tests:
serum Fe - nl 100

ferretin - ferritin is found in organs, very small amount circulating in the blood. Also represents the amount of Fe stored in bone marrow.

transferrin - carries Fe to macrophages in bone marrow

  • transferrin = TIBC
  • when Fe stores in the bone marrow are deficient –> liver is signaled to make more transferrin –> TIBC is increased

percent saturation - serum Fe/TIBC

what you would see: low serum Fe, high TIBC, low percent saturation, serum ferretin is low

causes - prematurity (not gaining Fe from mom), bleeding Meckel’s diverticulum (most common cause of Fe deficiency in a newborn, child), menorrhagia (woman under 50), PUD (duodenal ulcer, in men under 50), colon cancer (folks over 50)

Plummer-Vinson syndrome - Fe-def anemia, esophageal webs, dysphagia

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3
Q

target cells

A

markers for alcoholics (alters cholesterol content of membrane) and hemoglobinopathies

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4
Q

microcytic anemia

A

increased central pallor - because all microcytic anemias have low Hb

when RBC is developing in the marrow - Hb concentration determines the number of cell divisions
- if Hb synthesis is decreased –> signal to marrow to INCREASE division

Hb synthesis: heme + globin
- heme = Fe + protoporphyrin

Fe-deficiency, thalassemias, sideroblastic anemias

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5
Q

anemia of chronic disease

A

normocytic anemia –> can become microcytic

inflammation - body responds like there is an infection

  • most common anemia
  • can also occur during cancers - RCC (variable change in RBCs), HCC

Fe remains trapped in bone marrow macrophages - transferrin cant pick up this Fe and take it to the RBCs
- also decreased Fe absorption from gut

Fe studies - low serum Fe, low TIBC, low percent sat, high serum ferritin

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6
Q

sideroblastic anemias (rare)

A

heme synthesis:

  • porphyrin synthesis begins in mitochondria
    1) succinyl coA + glycine, ALA-synthase, B6 –> d-ALA
    2) …… bilinogens
    3) ferrochelatase combines Fe + protoporphyrin = heme
  • increased heme inhibits ALA-synthase

causes

  • alcoholics (mitochondrial poison, uncouples oxidative phosphorylation) - Fe enters damaged mitochondria and cant get out, mitochondria is located around nucleus of RBC ==> ringed sideroblast
  • B6 deficiency - isoniazid treatment, ….again ringed sideroblast
  • genetic, Cu deficiency, myelodysplastic syndromes
  • Pb poisoning - Pb denatures enzymes esp ferrochelatase
    - will also cause basophilic stippling - Pb denatures ribonuclease (which normally break down ribosomes)
    - Pb will also deposit in epiphyses –> failure to grow
    - lead lines (Burton lines) in gingiva
    - other symptoms - severe abdominal colic and diarrhea, cerebral edema (due to increased vessel permeability and accumulation of d-ALA, which is neurotoxic), hand nerve palsies
    - loss of developmental milestones (infants) and learning problems (kids)
    - headaches, memory loss and demyelination in adults
    - wrist and foot drop - use dimercaprol and EDTA to treat
    - can use succimer to chelate in kids
    - flint water crisis, automobile batteries (contain Pb), moonshine (alcohol brewed in lead-lined tub), paint (houses, pottery)

Fe stains with Prussian blue stain = Pappenheimer bodies

Fe studies:
increased Fe, increased ferritin, normal/decreased TIBC

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7
Q

a-thalassemia

A

Asian populations and Black population

microcytic anemia

2 gene deletions - minor

3 gene deletions - HbH (4 beta chains)
- also a hemolytic component to this

4 gene deletions - hydrops fetalis (edema in 2+ fetal compartments), HbBarts (4 gammas)

  • increased spontaneous abortions in far East –> increased incidence of choriocarcinoma here

note HbH and HbBarts ~ myoglobin - extremely high affinity for O2

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8
Q

b-thalassemia

A

Black, Greek, Italian
AR

mutations - splicing defects, promoters, stop codons

  • -> microcytic RBCs that are prone to hemolysis (because of precipitated a chains)
  • mutations in promoters = AUG+ kozak sequence (if kozak sequence is altered, 40S ribosome will not be able to find the correct AUG)
b minor (mild): due to splicing defects --> decreased HbA, increased HbA2 (greater than 3.5%) and HbF 
- heterozygote

b0 (homozygote) = Cooley’s anemia - require constant transfusions, will die from Fe overload

  • anisopoikilocytosis - varying sizes
  • marrow expansion - crew cut on skull xray, chipmunk facies, HSM
  • increased risk of parvovirus induced aplastic crisis

HbS/B heterozygote - mild sickle cell disease, because of reduced b-globin production

bd thalassemia - electrophoresis will show HbF (hereditary persistence of HbF), asymptomatic
- low b, low d, normal a, normal y

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9
Q

Fe overload

A

Fe high, ferritin high, low transferrin, low TIBC, high percent saturation

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10
Q

B12 and folate

A

macrocytic anemia, hypersegmented neutrophils

deficiency –> problem making deoxythymidine phosphate

  • nucleus is unable to mature –> nucleus stays large in all cells and all body cells are large
  • mature nucleus are (somewhat) condensed

folate deficiency is more common - alcoholics and preggos

  • dihydrofolate reductase - bactrim, methotrexate block this, THF cant be reformed
  • phenytoin and sulfonamides can also cause deficiency
  • folate - you eat it as a polyglutamate form –> converted to monoglutamate form before you can absorb it (intestinal conjugase), phenytoin (anti-epileptic) blocks intestinal conjugase
  • monoglutamate form cant be absorbed if pt is taking OCP or alcohol
  • folate has a 3-4 month reserve

B12 takes the methyl group off methyl-THF

  • B12 donates this methyl group to homocysteine –> methionine
  • THF starts DNA synthesis
  • serum homocysteine level is HIGH in B12 and folate deficiency
  • methylmalonic acid level is high in B12 deficiency
    - helps metabolize odd chained fatty acids - converts methylmalonyl coA to succinyl coA
    - myelin synthesis is affected –> dementia, demyelination of DCML and LCST (UMN problems)
    - test for propioception is Romberg test - pt closes their eyes, you push them
  • B12-R complex cleaved by pancreatic enzymes –> B12-IF associates (pancreatitis…)
  • pernicious anemia - achlorhydria –> risk factor for gastric carcinoma
  • diphylbothrium fish tapeworm - B12 deficiency
  • bacterial overgrowth - peristalsis problem, B12 and bile salt deficiency
  • remember - 6-9 year reserve in liver
  • deficiency results in subacute COMBINED degen (DCML, CSTs, spinocerebellar tracts) due to abnormal myelin

hematopoietic cells are made outside the sinusoids - need to squeeze through and enter the sinusoids to get into the blood, BUT they are too big

  • macrophages are consuming/biting these cells
  • pancytopenia in peripheral blood

Schilling’s test - localizes B12 deficiency

  • given radioactive B12 by mouth and a subQ injection an hour later - normal B12 will saturate tissue receptors, SO if radioactive B12 is absorbed by GI tract –> it will be excreted in urine
  • radioactive B12 + IF - tons of radioactive B12 in urine, means that pt has pernicious anemia

…………………
orotic aciduria (AR) - cant convert orotic acid –> UMP (pyrimidine synthesis pathway)
- NO hyperammonemia
- presentation: kids with failure to thrive, developmental delay, and megaloblastic anemia
- treat with UMP to bypass the mutated enzyme

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11
Q

normocytic anemia

A

1) Corrected retic count < 2%
early Fe deficiency
- Fe deficiency but NO anemia - low serum ferritin, next Fe decreases, TIBC increases, percent decreases –> normocytic anemia –> microcytic anemia
- first low storage, then compensatory mechanisms kick in

other causes - anemia of chronic disease, blood loss for less than 1 week, aplastic anemia (chloramphenicol, indomethacin, phenylbutasone, thyroid-related drugs, hepatitis C, radiation)

2) Corrected retic count > 3%
hemolysis
- autoimmune hemolytic anemias (IgG mediated, warm autoimmune anemia) - EXTRAvascular hemolysis
- spherocytes and sickle cell RBCs will be removed extravascularly (they cant get out of the sinusoids of the spleen)
- Howell-Jolly bodies - piece of nucleus, macrophage will try to ingest this body –> also extravascular hemolysis

phagocytosis of RBCs –> UCB –> jaundice

  • normally RBCs are recycled and protoporphyrin is degraded into UCB in the spleen –> binds to albumin –> conjugated in the liver
  • UCB does not get into urine - because it is lipid soluble and bound to albumin
  • will see spherocytes in peripheral smear

intravascular hemolysis - if RBC gets sheared (valve defects

  • IgM mediated will be intravascular hemolysis - cold autoimmune anemia)
  • Hb released into the bloodstream, Hb-uria, low haptoglobin levels
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12
Q

hemolytic anemia

A

INTRINSIC defect of RBC, nothing wrong with bone marrow (corrected retic count is greater than 3%)

MAD:
Membrane defect (spherocytosis, paroxysmal nocturnal Hb-uria)
- spherocytosis (spectrin, ankyrin, band 3 mutations, AD) - defective binding of RBC cytoskeleton to membrane –> spherocytes –> RBCs cant get out of spleen –> splenomegaly, gallstones. Spherocytes are smaller! - so they have increased MCHC. Osmotic fragility test in hypertonic saline. Treat with splenectomy.
- paroxysmal nocturnal Hb-uria - complement-decay accelerating factor absence - protein on RBC cell surfaces that inhibits C3 convertases. Nocturnal because complement sits on RBCs during respiratory acidosis, which occurs when we sleep.
- increased incidence of acute leukemias - defect is in PIGA gene of multipotent hematopoietic stem cells. Gene defect means GPI anchor (necessary to anchor CD55 and CD95) is not made).
- triad: coombs negative hemolytic anemia, pancytopenia, venous thrombosis
- CD55/59 negative RBCs non flow cytometry
- treat with eculizumab - terminal complement inhibitor

Abnormal Hb
HbS: valine is nonpolar –> sickling
- note if you have sickle cell trait, you will not have sickle cells in your peripheral blood - RBC will sickle if it has 60% or more HbS
- microscopic hematuria - get a sickle cell screen, esp in black population
- splenomegaly –> autoinfarct at age 18 or 19 (brown!, fibrosed, atrophied spleen), spleen has stopped working at 2 yo
- Howell-Jolly body is a sign that the spleen is not working - a piece of nucleus in the RBC, if the spleen was working, the macrophage would have plucked out this nucleus
- S. pneumo sepsis - cant get pneumovax until 2 years of age
- H. flu is the next most common cause - penicillin prophylaxis
- N. menin, Salmonella, GBS are other encapsulated bac
- first vaso-occlusive crisis occurs around 6-9 months of age - HbS as accumulated at this point (ex of vaso-occlusive crisis is if pt comes in with scleral icterus and tenderness over bones)
- splenic sequestration crisis - marked Hb decrease, rapidly enlarging spleen
- renal papillary necrosis - decreased PO2 in papilla and microhematuria (medullary infarcts)
- decreased life-expectancy, normocytic anemia with increased retics
- treat with hydroxyurea (increases HbF) and hydration
- Gardos channel blockers - this channel allows K and water to leave, if you block it –> prevent sickle cell dehydration

HbC: glutamic acid to lysine
- crystals inside RBCs and target cells

………………………………
Deficient enzyme:
G6PD deficiency - XR, primaquine, dapsone (leprosy), Heinz bodies (denatured Hb), bite cells
- seen in blacks, greeks, italians
- can cause prolonged neonatal jaundice, but mild anemia, in newborn

Pyruvate kinase deficiency (AR, last step of glycolysis) –> decreased ATP –> rigid RBCs –> extravascular hemolysis

   - increased 2,3-BPG...
   - hemolytic anemia in a newborn

………………………………
EXTRINSIC
- IgG = warm reacting antibodies - most common cause is lupus, also seen in lupus and CLL
- IgG and C3b on the surface of RBCs
- direct Coombs - directly detect antibodies on RBCs (v.s. indirect Coombs - screens for IgG in serum)
- IgM = cold reacting antibodies - seen in CLL, M. pneumo, mono
- second most common cause is penicillin - piece of penicillin attaches to RBCs
- can get IgG antibodies against this chunk of penicillin = type 2 HSR
- methyldopa - can be given to pregnant women with HTN (hydralyzine can also be given –> drug induced-lupus, second to procainamide)
- methyldopa screws up your Rh antigens - you make IgG against your Rh antigens –> autoimmune hemolytic anemia
- immune complex - quinidine-IgM complex circulates in blood stream
- IC sits on an RBC - attracts complement –> intravascular hemolysis
- microangiopathic hemolytic anemia - schistocytes
- most common cause is aortic stenosis –> chronic intravascular hemolysis –> losing a lot of Hb in urine –> can get secondary Fe-deficiency anemia
- other causes - DIC, TTP/HUS, SLE, HELLP, malignant HTN
- infections - malaria, Babesia

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13
Q

malaria

A

plasmodium falciparum - ring forms of trophozoites and banana-shaped gametocytes

fever spikes when RBCs rupture

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14
Q

leukemoid reaction

A

site of immune response activation, note 2 follicles are the active ones

looks like leukemia - but benign
- can distinguish from ALL because there is no anemia and no thrombocytopenia

Tb, sepsis >30,000-50,000 neutrophils in periphery

  • commonly kids get this - ex kid with otitis media
  • will see leukocytes with Dohle bodies (basophilic ribosome-RER granules), toxic granulation, and cytoplasmic vacuoles

lymphocytic leukocytosis
- pertussis - bacteria produces lymphocytosis promoting factor (prevents lymphocytes from leaving blood and entering LNs)

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15
Q

lupus

A

thrombocytopenia and hemolytic anemia = type 2 HSR

other symptoms are related to IC

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16
Q

pt on creatine supplements

A

pt will have extremely high creatinine levels, but BUN is normal

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17
Q

polycythemia

A

RBC mass (mass of RBCs in circulation, unchanged with plasma volume) v.s. RBC count (concentration in blood, will increase if you are dehydrated)

relative polcythemia - decrease in plasma volume, RBC mass is unchanged

absolute polycythemia
- appropriate increases - tissue hypoxia

inappropriate absolute polycythemia

  • polycythemia rubivera = myeloproliferative disease - bone marrow stem cell disease
    - propensity to go into leukemia
  • EPO-producing tumor - renal adenocarcinoma

myeloproliferative disorders - stem cell has lost regulation (nothing can inhibit it)

  • according to pathoma - proliferation of mature cells, all cells are increased, but named for cell that is predominantly increased
  • disease of late adulthood
  • initially high WBC count and hypercellular marrow –> progresses to marrow fibrosis (spent phase)

1) polycythemia vera
- H - hyperviscosity –> increased peripheral resistance, increased risk of thrombosis (Budd-chiari - hepatic vein thrombosis), phlebotomy to reduce viscosity and to create Fe deficient
- Budd-Chiari syndrome - liver infarction
- H - hypervolemia - plasma volume increases to match increased RBC mass (unique to this polycythemia)
- H - hyperhistaminemia - RBCs, white cells, mast cells, basophils are increased
- scenario: I itch all over when I take a hot shower - temperature changes cause mast cell degranulation –> generalized itching. Pt will also have ruddy/red face, headaches (all due to vasodilation due to histamine).
- side note - only bile salt deposition in skin can produce generalized itching
- classic symptom is erythromelalgia - blood clots in extremities –> severe, burning pain and red-blue discoloration
- Hyperuricemia - nucleated hematopoietic cells are elevated… (urate nephropathy - have to put chemo pts on allopurinol)
- treat with phlebotomy, hydroxyurea

2) CML - 9;22 Bcr-Abl
- tyrosine kinase (and PDGF mutations play a role)
- leukocytosis
- treat with imatinib
- splenomegaly! - enlarging spleen suggests accelerated phase of disease –> transformation to AML* or ALL thereafter

3) myelofibrosis (agnogenic myeloid dysplasia) - spleen will be huge (can cause early satiety)
- megakaryocytes –> stimulate fibroblast proliferation –> fibroses bone marrow
- 10% of cells stay in marrow (rest have moved to the spleen) - when these cells move through fibrosed marrow = tear-drop cells
- early stages = marrow is hypercellular, late stages = pancytopenia
- blood cells in spleen (there is no reticulin gate to prevent immature blood cells from leaving) –> blasts and nucleated RBCs on smear

4) essential thrombocythemia (least common)
- hemorrhagic and thrombotic symptoms (easy bruising, microangiopathic occlusion)

except for CML, others have JAK2/STAT gain-of-function mutations
- treat with ruxolitinib = JAK2 inhibitor (approved for primary myelofibrosis)
……..
5) myelodysplastic syndrome (pre-leukemia)

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18
Q

leukemia

A

malignancy of stem cells in marrow, can met anywhere - generalized LAD, HSM

  • abnormal cells in peripheral blood - blasts
  • normocytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia - normal cells in marrow have been crowed out
  • increase in white cell count - because of increased abnormal white cells
  • blasts = large immature cells, with a punched out nucleolus
  • chronic v.s. acute - count blasts
    - blasts GREATER 30% of marrow = acute
    - chronic leukemia is proliferation of MATURE lymphocytes (so nothing pro-)

myelodysplastic syndrome - cytopenias with hypercellular bone marrow (cells cant get out of bone marrow)

  • can progress to acute leukemia - if blasts increases 20% (according to Pathoma)
  • will see ringed sideroblasts

lymphoblasts are TdT+, PAS pos
myeloblasts = Auer rods
- Auer rods stain for peroxidase

age will tell you leukemia
0-14 years = ALL
- B-ALL is most common - C10, CD19, CALA antigen positive (in general B cell markers are more reliable)
- T-ALL - CD1, CD2, CD5, present with large mediastinal mass

15-39: AML

  • risk factors for AML - chemo/benzene/radiation, myeloproliferative disorders, DS
    - Pseudo-Pelger-Huet anomaly - neutrophils with bilobed nuclei, seen after chemo
  • myeloblast with Auer rod (abnormal lysosomes, crystallized MPO)
  • acute monocytic leukemia - lack MPO, will infiltrate gums
  • APML - 15;17 translocation, treat will all-trans retinoic acid (causes blasts to mature), almost always associated with DIC (Auer rods activate coagulation cascade, medical emergency!)
  • acute megakaryoblastic anemia - lack MPO, associated with DS before the age of 5
  • eosinophilic subtype of AML - chromosome 16 inversion

40-49: AML and CML

  • separate by %blasts
  • CML = Philadelphia chromosome, 9;22, BCR-ABL - increased non-receptor tyrosine kinase activity
    - splenomegaly - enlarging spleen suggests accelerated phase of disease –> transforms to AML* or ALL (mutation is in hematopoietic stem cell)
    - leukocyte alkaline phosphatase - mature neutrophils have alk phos, neoplastic neutrophils dont (way to distinguish between CML and leukemoid reaction)
    - treat with imatinib - blocks tyrosine kinase activity

60+: CLL
- hypogammaglobulinemia - neoplastic B cells cant transform into plasma cells

CML is the most cause of leukemia regardless of age

most common cause of generalized, non-tender LAD in pt over 60 - METs to LN

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19
Q

hairy cell leukemia

A

rare, adult males - chronic leukemia

B cell neoplasm that infiltrates bone marrow and red pulp of spleen –> pancytopenia

TRAP (tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase) stain positive, cells have spikes

massive splenomegaly (red pulp), drug tap with bone marrow aspiration --> bone marrow is fibrosed, LAD absent
(-note this can look like myelofibrosis)

cladribine - adenosine deaminase inhibitor

  • adenosine accumulates to toxic levels –> cell death
  • pentostatin can also be used
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20
Q

LNs

A
  • painful LAD is NEVER malignant* - being cause by inflammatory condition (infection, lupus)
  • pain because you are stretching capsule
  • generalized painful LAD - HIV, EBV, lupus

non-tender LAD

1) mets - most common
2) primary lymphoma

germinal follicles - form when macrophages deliver antigen to B cells –> B cells are dividing –> plasma cells that make antibodies
= reactive LAD, benign
tumors:
- follicular lymphoma - most common non-Hodgkins B-cell lymphoma
-14;18 - apoptosis gene was knocked off
- small cleaved cells (centrocytes) and large noncleaved cells (centroblasts)

Bruttons agammaglobulinemia
- germinal follicle would be absent

DiGeorge
- no paratrabecular region or germinal follicle - T cell country

histiocytosis - sinusoids

SCID - due to adenine deaminase deficiency
- would only have sinusoids/histiocytes

Langerhans cell histiocytosis
scenario: kid with rash, non-tender LAD, monomorphic cells, CD1 positive
- CD1 = histiocytes, also S100 positive (mesodermal)
- Birbeck granule in histiocyte - tennis racket
(remember C. tetani spore also looks like a tennis racket)
- may have eos granulomas that affect the skull and bones
- kid comes in with fracture - red herring is osteosarcoma
- Letterer-Siwe disease - malignant - skin rash and cystic skeletal defects (recurrent otitis media) in an infant
- Hand-Schuller-Christian disease - malignant - scalp rash, lytic skull defects, DI, and exopthalmos

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21
Q

tissues that cancer cant invade

A

cartilage and elastic tissue - cancer cells cant invade these tissues

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22
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

EBV, 8;14, c-myc oncogene translocation

  • c-myc = transcription activator, controls cell proliferation, differentiation, and apop
  • 3rd most common cancer in kids - great prognosis
  • Africa - jaw
  • US - abdomen (peyers patches, periaortic nodes, testicle)

starry-sky appearance - stars are normal, benign macrophages

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23
Q

mycosis fungoides

A

chronic leukemia - neoplastic cell = CD4 T cell, adults

skin and lymph nodes (?) involved
–> aggregates of neoplastic T cells in epidermis = Pautrier microabscesses

Sezary syndrome - malignant cells are now in peripheral blood
- lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei

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24
Q

Hodgkins

A

non-tender generalized LAD
bimodal age distribution
overall prognosis is better than that of non-Hodgkins

owl-eyes = RS cells, CD15 adn CD30 positive

  • RS is the malignant cell - more RS cells, worse prognosis
  • RS secrete cytokines
  • but reactive inflammatory cells make up the bulk of the tumor

1) nodular sclerosing Hodgkins - more common in young adult women
- 2 hard, non-painful nodes - in anterior mediastinum and in a node above the diaphragm

2) lymphocyte-rich = best prognosis
3) mixed cellularity - eos!
4) lymphocyte depleted- worst prognosis, elderly, HIV

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25
Q

antithrombin

A

inhibits factor Xa AND thrombin (F2a)

note - anticoagulation therapy for 3 months to prevent recurrent thromboses in a pt who has had a DVT

heparin (IV, SC) - negatively charged, naturally present in mast cells
unfractionated heparin - seals antithrombin-Xa complex and antithrombin-thrombin complex
- use in ACS, PE, MI, DVT for immediate anticoagulation
- short half-life
- reverse with protamine sulfate - positively charged molecule that binds to heparin
- ADRs - many, osteoporosis

LMWH (enoxaparin, dalteparin) - seals antithrombin-Xa complex (not long enough to act with thrombin..)

  • better bioavailability, long t1/2 does not need lab monitoring
  • not easily reversible

pentasaccharide (fondaparinux) - sequence in both that binds to antithrombin
- fondaparinux has much lower AT activity

antithrombin deficiency - diminishes the increase in PTT following heparin administration
- woman on OCPs

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26
Q

alteplase

A

binds fibrin and converts plasminogen to plasmin –> plasmin hydrolyzes bonds in the fibrin matrix

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27
Q

direct thrombin inhibitors

A

direct thrombin inhibitor (bivalirudin, dabigatran, argatroban) - inhibit thrombin-mediated fibrin formation
- used for DVT prevention/treatment and in afib

lepirudin and argatroban used for H-I-T

doesnt require lab monitoring

can reverse dabigatran with idarucizumab
- other options - prothrombin complex concentrate or tranexamic acid

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28
Q

clopidogrel and ticlopdidine

A

others - ticagrelor, prasugrel

inhibit ADP-mediated platelet aggregation - by binding P2Y12 (component of ADP receptors on platelets) –> prevent expression of Gp2b/3a

use in ACS, stenting, and stable angina (if ASA cant be tolerated)

ADRs: neutropenia (ticlopidine), TTP

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29
Q

Factor 5 Leiden

A

thrombosis, recurrent pregnancy loss
- heterozygote carriers have increased thrombosis risk

normal hemostasis: activated protein C RESTRICTS clot formation –> cleaves and inactivates factors 5a and 8a

  • point mutation - 5a Leiden cant be cleaved
  • 5a is a cofactor in the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin –> increased thrombi (D-VENOUS-T!)
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30
Q

LAD

A

reactive hyperplasia = benign

  • polyclonal
  • follicular hyperplasia
  • sinus hyperplasia - sinuses fill and enlarge with histiocytes
  • diffuse hyperplasia - lymphocytes, immunoblasts, macrophages

malignant transformation (lymphoma)

  • MONOclonal - examine TCR genes (the answer is “monoclonal TCR gene rearrangement), especially characteristic of non-Hodgkins lymphoma
  • normal node architecture is effaced
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31
Q

microtubule dysfunction

A

vinca alkaloids - vincristine and vinblastine bind b- tubulin monomers, prevent polymerization

  • M phase arrest
  • neurotox (arreflexia, etc.), constipation (paralytic ileus)

taxanes - paclitaxel, cause microtubular dysfunction
- stabilize polymerized microtubules –> anaphase cant occur

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32
Q

5-FU

A

enzymatic converted to floxuridine monophosphate

  • -> binds THF and thymidylate synthetase in a stable-reaction intermediate
  • effectively decreasing the amount of thymidylate synthetase available for thymidine synthesis
  • 5-FU has a REDUCED cytotoxic effect in cells that are folate deficient - giving 5-FU and leucovorin will potentiate toxicity

5-deoxyuridine also inhibits thymidylate synthetase

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33
Q

methotrexate

A

irr inhibits DHF reductase - so THF cant be made, prevents folic acid metabolism

  • folic acid is a 1C donor involved in making thymidine, aas, purines
  • effective for rapidly dividing cells

methotrexate undergoes polyglutamation (and gets trapped in the cell)

leucovorin - does not require reduction, rescues normal cells

ADRs of methothrexate

  • GI ulcerations, alopecia, pancytopenia = rapidly dividing cells
  • hepatotox and pulmonary fibrosis
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34
Q

RB gene

A

retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma

Rb - encodes a nuclear phosphoprotein that regulates the G1–> S checkpoint
- active when HYPOphosphorylated - will halt cell at G1

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35
Q

EGFR mutations

A

lung cancers - ERBB1
breast - ERBB2 aka Her2
ovarian
gastric

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36
Q

multiple myeloma

A

high serum IL6
neoplastic plasma cells produce IL1

polyclonal gammopathy = benign, chronic inflammation (G-A-M)

  • monoclonal gammopathy - malignancy of plasma cells (other plasma cell clones are suppressed, usually IgG malignancy)
  • side note: SPEP shows a1,a2, y1, y2, albumin peaks (can ddx a1-antitrypsin deficiency)

multiple myeloma - cookie cutter lytic area
- Padget’s disease of bone - diffuse borders of lysis

plasma cells - sheets of rER (see on EM)

Rouleaux formation on blood smear - increased protein decreases charge between RBCs

…………………………………
v.s. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia - IgM

hyperviscosity (retinal hemorrhage, blurred vision, Raynauds)
- but also increased risk of bleeding - defective platelet aggregation in hyperviscous blood

treat acute complications with plasmapheresis

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37
Q

amyloid

A

calcitonin –> amyloid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid)
pre-albumin –> amyloid
light chains (multiple myeloma) –> amyloid
DS –> b-amyloid (death by Alzheimer’s, earlier death by cardiac defects)

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38
Q

Lysosomal storage disorders

A

Gaucher disease - AR
deficient glucocerebrosidase, (lipid-laden) macrophages with wrinkled cytoplasm
- glucocerebrosidase is a component of leukocyte and erythrocyte cell membrane
- Gaucher cells invade the bone marrow –> pancytopenia
- HSM

Niemann-Pick

  • missing sphingomyelinase - bubbly cytoplasm
  • mental retardation

Pompe - only glycogen storage disease that is LYSOsomal

  • missing lysosomal enzyme that breaks down glycogen
  • death by cardiac causes -glycogen deposition in heart
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39
Q

hemostasis overview

A

Virchows triad

  • stasis of blood flow
  • endothelial injury
  • hypercoagulable

why dont we form clots in small blood vessels?

  • heparin (GAG) - enhances AT3 (AT3 is made in the liver)
    - AT3 neutralizes most of the coagulation factors (the ones that are serine proteases)
  • PGI2 aka prostacyclin - made by endothelial cells, vasodilator, inhibits platelet aggregation and adhesion, increased vascular permeability, stimulates leukocyte chemotaxis
    - damaged endothelial cells lose the ability to synthesize prostacyclin –> development of thrombi and hemostasis
  • proteins C and S - INactivate factors 5 and 8
  • tPA
  • birth control is thrombogenic - estrogen increases synthesis of F5&8 and fibrinogen, and inhibits AT3
    - aka heparin antagonist
  • smoking is thrombogenic - due to damaged endothelial cells

STEP 1 small cut - what stops you from bleeding from SMALL vessels

  • bleeding time - used to evaluate platelet function/platelet plug (cut on volar aka palm/sole aspect)
    1) cut the vessel
    2) tissue thromboplastin released - extrinsic coagulation system activated (has nothing to do with bleeding time)
    3) subendothelial collagen exposed - factor 12 (Hageman factor) activated, intrinsic system activated (nothing to do with bleeding time)
    4) endothelial cells (Weibel-Palade bodies) AND megakaryocytes/platelets (a granules) make vWF - damage to small blood vessels exposes vWF
  • platelets have receptors for vWF - release reaction - binding of vWF to GP1B on platelets causes platelets to release preformed ADP
  • ADP causes platelets to aggregate
  • upon release reaction - platelets begin synthesizing TXA2 –> potent vasoconstrictor (infact TXA2 causes Prinzmetals), bronchoconstrictor, platelet aggregator –> bleeding time has ended
  • platelet plug = platelets and fibrinogen

platelets are similar to mast cells

  • mast cells release preformed histamine, heparin, tryptase, and eosinophilic chemotactic factors
  • following release reaction - makes PGs and LTs

prolonged bleeding time

  • thrombocytopenia
  • vWF disease (most common genetic hereditary disease) - AD
  • ASA - irr blocks platelet COX1 and 2 by acetylation–> prevents platelet aggregation
    - note NSAIDs (rev COX2* and COX1, 48hrs/ASA inhibit platelet COX (not COX in other cells)
  • side note - COX2 is preferentially expressed at sites of inflammation, COX1 has a role in platelets, GI tract
  • signs - petechiae, ecchymoses/purpura, epistaxis

tests for platelets

  • platelet count (NSAIDS render platelets non-functional, platelet transfusion)
  • bleeding time - platelet function
  • ristocetin cofactor assay - tests vWF presence
    - ristocetin activates vWF to bind to Gp1b

STEP 2 end-product of coagulation system = thrombin
- thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

STEP 3 plasminogen will be activated –> plasmin –> vessels will recanalize

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40
Q

hemophilia A

A

in general coagulation cascade problems have - LATE rebleeding problems, menorrhagia, hemarthroses

hemophila A = XR, deficient F8 (bleeding time is normal!)
ex appendectomy - start to massive amounts of blood
- only things that were holding vessels together were sutures and (weak) platelet plugs
- fibrinogen will not be converted to fibrin

question - bleeding with molar tooth removal?
- platelet plugs will dislodge when you rinse your mouth out –> people choke to death on their own blood

treat with recombinant F8

VS coagulation factor inhibitor:
acquired antibody - anti-F8 is the most common
- similar to hemophilia A
distinguish by mixing study - mix normal plasma and pts plasma
- PTT does not correct upon mixing (v.s. in hemophilia, it will correct)

……………………………………………………………

Hemophilia B, XR - deficiency in F9
- all else is the same

Hemo B, AR - deficiency in F11

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41
Q

coagulation systems

A

extrinsic system - factor 7
instrinsic - 12, 11, 9, 8
common pathway - 10
(~complement - C3 is common)

PT - evaluates extrinsic system

  • 7, 10, 5, 2, 1
  • INR = PT/PTref
  • check when pt is on warfarin - 3/4 warfarin affected factors are tested by PT (PTT will also be prolonged)

PTT - evaluates intrinsic system

  • 12, 11, 9, 8, 10, 5, 2, 1
  • of all these - factor 8 (hemophilia A) deficiency is most common (next most common is vWF)
  • test in heparin therapy - AT3 knocks off 12, 11, 10, 7, 2, thrombin (again PTT does a better job, PT is also prolonged)

thrombin time - serum (that contains anticoagulants) + excess of thrombin –> time required to form a clot
- measures the rate of conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin - prolonged in pts with low fibrinogen (liver disease)

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42
Q

fibrinolytic system

A

plasminogen to plasmin by tPA
- tPA, reteplase, and tenecteplase are fibrin specific

plasmin breaks down fibrinogen, fibrin, coagulation factors, blocks platelet aggregation

a2-antiplasmin inactivates plasmin - so clots can be formed in the first place
- produced by liver

fibrin degradation products

  • D-dimer = proves that fibrin clot was there
  • D-dimer is the best test for DIC
  • factor 13 = fibrin stabilizing factor - puts strands in between fibrin

Disorders of plasmin overactivity

  • can look like DIC
  • increase PT/PTT, increased bleeding time
  • normal platelet count
  • increased fibrinogen split products but NO increase in D-dimer - there is no clot to cleave
  • treat with aminocaproic acid - blocks plasmin activation

-radical prostatectomy - release of urokinase activates plasmin

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43
Q

vessel abnormalities

A

old person - back of hands have purpura = senile purpura
- subQ tissue thins with age - blood vessels rupture

Osler-Weber-Rendu disease aka hereditary telangiectasia
- telangiectasias - on GI tract, mucosa, etc. –> bleed –> Fe deficiency anemia

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44
Q

platelet disorders

A

cant make platelet plug - bleeding from superficial scratches, petechiae, purpura, epistaxis

ITP - IgG against platelet Gp2b/3a

  • IgG produced by plasma cells in the SPLEEN
  • kid with URI –> next week he gets epistaxis… self-limited
  • woman with pos ANA - comes in with epistaxis, petechiae, splenomegaly, generalized LAD
    - lady has IgG antibody against platelet
    - may cause short-lived thrombocytopenia in offspring
  • increased megas in bone marrow - compensatory response
  • treat with corticosteroids, IVIG acutely (splenic macrophages will consume IVIG instead), splenectomy

thrombotic thrombocytopenic pupura and HUS

  • PT and PTT normal, bleeding time will be prolonged
  • something in plasma damages small vessels throughout body - platelets stick and aggregate –> firm platelet plugs, RBCs will get sheared on these plugs
    - coagulation cascade is not activated so you dont get DIC
  • microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (shistocytes), etc.
  • fever, neuro, and renal symptoms (AKI because of damage to glomerular endothelium)
  • treat with plasmapheresis, steroids
  • TTP - decreased AdamsTS13 enzyme (autoimmune) - enzyme that cleaves vWF into monomers for eventual degradation
    - vWF multimers –> abnormal platelet aggregation –> microthrombi and thrombocytopenia
    - can also have renal failure, neuro manifestations, and fever
  • HUS - O157:H7 E coli (beef, toxin damages vessels…) and Shigella toxin
  • occurs most commonly in kids <10 and in association with EHEC treatment with antibiotics
  • two organs affected in both - kidneys (HUS), CNS (TTP)
  • increased megas in bone marrow
  • treat with plasmapheresis (to remove autoantibody) and corticosteroids
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45
Q

coagulation factor deficiencies

A

hemophilia A - XR
- only 8 coagulant is missing

v. s. VW disease - AD
- most common inherited coagulation disorder
- platelet adhesion defect
- but also have mild factor 8 deficiency (vWF stabilizes 8 coagulant, increased PTT)
- so will have mixed bleeding symptoms
- 3 parts of factor 8 molecule: vWF, 8 coagulant, 8 antigen (chauffeur for the other 2 parts) - and all 3 of these are decreased
- abnormal ristocetin test - normal is platelet aggregation
- ddAVP - will increase the production of all factor 8 molecules - also treats MILD hemophilia A

scenario: woman who with menorrhagia - stops when she goes on OCP, restarts when she discontinues OCP
- she has VW disease - estrogen also increases the synthesis of all factor 8 molecules
- OCP is treatment of choice for women
- test ristocetin cofactor assay

Anti-phospholipid syndrome - spont abortion

  • lupus anticoagulant (also seen in HIV)
  • anti-cardiolipin antibodies (common feature of lupus) - produces false positive in syphillis (VRDL tests use beef cardiolipin)
  • both antibodies cause vessel THROMBOSIS
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46
Q

DIC

A

causes: septic shock (endotoxin and macrophages produce IL1 and TNF - indirect activators), rattle snake bite, ARDs, placental injury or abruption (trophoblasts contain tissue factor aka thromboplastin), adenocarcinoma (esp mets, mucin can activate coag cascade), acute pancreatitis, nephrotic syndrome, transfusion, fatty liver in pregnancy
- note on amniotic fluid embolism - can cause DIC, but you would see hypotension and cardiogenic shock

clots in small vessels

  • fibrinogen, 5, 8, 2, platelets are consumed in a clot –> increased PT and PTT
  • test with d-dimer - product of lysed cross-linked fibrin

pt will bleed out of any orifice (penis, etc.), scratch, mucosa

treat by addressing underlying cause, transfuse blood products and cryoprecipitate arises (?)

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47
Q

blood types

A

O blood type
- anti-A IgM, anti-B IgM, anti-AB IgG

A group, B group

  • A associated with gastric cancer
  • O with duodenal ulcer

AB rarest - no antibodies

Rh negative - anti-D IgG

newborn - no antibodies in blood

  • newborns dont synthesize IgM until they are born
  • 2-3mo of age, they synthesize IgG

elderly - dont have any antibodies (or very low levels)
- old person can get a transfusion of the wrong blood and will not have a reaction

Rh antigens (5 antigens)
- Rh positive = means positive for D antigen

Duffy antigen missing in black population

  • not as likely to P. vivax malaria
  • thalassemias protect from P. falciparum (RBC has a shorter life span)

major cross match - are there any antibodies in pts serum will attack donor cells
- antibody screen by indirect Coombs (pts serum is added to RBCs)
(direct Coombs - take pts RBCs and add anti-human Ig, cells will agglutinate if they have anti-RBC antibodies bound to them)
- side note- more blood transfusions means you will make antibodies against those foreign cells.. harder to find blood matches

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48
Q

Weibel-Palade bodies

A

vWF factor, P-selectin

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49
Q

platelet receptor changes

A

platelet plug:
injury - endothelin and neural vasoconstriction

platelets release vWF

vWF lines subendothelial collagen

platelets binds vWF via GP1B = platelet adhesion

platelets get activated and release ADP and TXA2
fibrinogen links to Gp2b/3a = platelet aggregation

move on to coagulation cascade

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50
Q

quantitative bleeding

A

platelet count <50K is an issue
bleeding time - nl = 2-7 min

mucosal and skin bleeding (this includes menorrhagia),
intracranial bleeds
petechiae, purpura, ecchymoses

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51
Q

qualitative platelet disorders

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

  • genetic GP1b deficiency - platelet ADHESION is impaired
  • mild thrombocytopenia with enlarged platelets - thrombocytopenia because poorly functioning platelets are getting easily destroyed and enlarged platelets because immature platelets are being produced

Glanzmann thrombasthenia
- deficiency in Gp2b/3a - platelet adhesion impaired and platelet plug formation is impaired

ASA

uremia - disrupts platelet function, adhesion and aggregation impaired
- will see bleeding time prolonged with normal platelet counts and PT, PTT

52
Q

factor 10

A

prothrombin to thrombin by activated factor 10

thrombin - converts fibrinogen to fibrin => platelet-fibrin thrombus

thrombin also activates 5, 8, 13

coagulation factors are produced in the liver - inactivated
- activated when they are exposed to a phospholipid surface (platelet) and Ca (dense core granules of platelets)

53
Q

vitamin K

A

activated by epoxide reductase in liver

liver also produces coagulation factors
- note - in liver disease, vitamin K supplementation will NOT improve lab results (eg PT) because there are no clotting factors made to be activated
(side note - cirrhosis can lead to high output cardiac failure due to splanchnic vasodilation and AV shunts)

g-carboyxlation creates Ca-binding sites –> which attract the factors to negatively charged phospholipids

monitor liver failure and coagulation with PT - why?
- because F7 has the shortest half-life, so the first thing to become abnormal will be F7

hemorrhagic disease of newborn - intracranial (enlarging head circumference and bulging fontanel, downward eyes, GI, cutaneous bleed

54
Q

heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A

heparin forms complex with platelet factor 4
- pt develops IgG antibodies against this complex

fragments of destroyed platelets may enter circulation –> activate other platelets –> thrombus/occlusion

need another anticoagulant
NOT warfarin - these pts are at increased risk for coumadin-induced skin necrosis

55
Q

thrombus

A

most common location is DVT

  • lines of Zahn (RBCs in between lines of platelet-fibrin)
  • used to distinguish between thrombus and postmortem clots

DVT - femoral, iliac, popliteal veins

PE
- chronic emboli get reorganized over time –> pulm HTN

56
Q

endothelium is protective

A

….
secretes heparin-like molecules - activates AT3

produces tPA

thrombomodulin - modulates thrombin so thrombin can activate protein C –> inactivates F5 and 8

57
Q

protein C or S deficiency

A

activated protein C, cofactor protein S –> in activates F5a and 8a

increased risk for warfarin skin necrosis
- proteins C and S have the shortest half-life

heparin is given with warfarin at first - because warfarin takes several days to work
- so if you give warfarin alone - you will create an initial hypercoagulable state because proteins C and S will be knocked out first

58
Q

prothrombin 20210A

A

point mutation in 3’ UTR –> results in increased gene expression –> promotes thrombus formation

59
Q

amniotic fluid embolus

A

goes to moms lungs
SOB, neurosymptoms, DIC

characterized by squamous cells and keratin debris from fetal skin in embolus

60
Q

warfarin

A

long half-life

chronic anticoagulation

ADRs: skin/tissue necrosis - due to small vessel microthrombosis

reverse with vitamin K, FFP, PCC

61
Q

direct factor Xa inhibitors

A

apiXaban, rivaroXaban

oral agents, dont require monitoring

not easily reversible

62
Q

Fe poisoning

A

cell death due to peroxidation of membrane lipids

  • nausea, vomiting, GI bleeding/obstruction, lethary
63
Q

thrombolytics

A

-plase, streptokinase

increases PT and PTT, no change in platelet count

non-specific reversal - aminocaproic acid, tranexamic acid, platelet tranfusions, factor corrections (FFP, PCC, cryoprecipitate)

64
Q

PDE inhibitors

A

cilostazol, dipyridamole

inhibition of platelet aggregation (increased cAMP), vasodilation

prevention of stroke/TIAs (combined with ASA)

mild ADRs: nausea, headache, facial flushing, hypoT, abd pain

65
Q

Gp2b/3a inhibitors

A

abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban

unstable angina, percutaneous coronary intervention

66
Q

neutrophils

A

granules contain leukocyte alk phos, collagenase, lysozyme, and lactoferrin

lysosomes (aka azurophilic granules) - proteinases, acid phosphatase, MPO, b-glucoronidase

neutrophil chemotactic agents - LTB4, C5a, IL8, kallikrien, PAF

neutrophilic leukocytosis - bacterial infection, tissue necrosis
- left shift - characterized by DECREASED CD16 (maker for Fc receptors)

67
Q

monocyte

A

kidney-shaped nucleus, frosted glass cytoplasm

called Kupffer cells in liver

lipid A (bacterial LPS) - binds to CD14 on macrophages –> septic shock

68
Q

eosinophils

A

highly phagocytic for ICs

produces histaminase, MBP, eos peroxidase, eos cationic protein, eos neurotoxin

eosinophilia

  • type 1 reactions
  • Hodgkins lymphoma - due to increased IL5
  • chronic adrenal insufficiency
  • invasive parasites
  • protozoa will NOT have eosinophilia
    - amoebiasis, malaria will NOT
    - only with invasive helminths
    - so pinworm will not cause eosinophilia
    - Ascariasis - intestinal obstruction presentation will not show eosinophilia, if it invades to lungs then yes
    - all other worms - yes

eosinopenia - seen in Cushings and corticosteroid use (sequester eos in LNs)

69
Q

basophils

A

basophilic granules - heparin, histamine, LTs synthesized on demand

basophilia in CML

70
Q

blood that newborns get

A

is irradiated –> to kill lymphocytes and prevent graft v.s. host reaction (diarrhea, rash, jaundice)

CMV also lives in lymphocytes
- like other herpes viruses - CMV initially attaches to GAGs on host cells

71
Q

needle-stick

A

HBV

72
Q

blood transfusion therapy

A

FFP: for multiple coagulation factor deficiencies
or if pt has warfarin anticoagulant - immediate treatment
- vitamin K takes 6hrs to take effect

cryoprecipitate - contains fibrinogen, F8, F13, vWF, fibronectin

blood transfusions can result in:

  • hypocalcemia - blood contains citrate
  • hyperkalemia - RBCs may lyse in old blood units
73
Q

transfusion reaction

A

most common - type 1 HSR against plasma proteins
- treat with benadryl and antihistamines

febrile non-hemolytic reaction - due to HLA-antibodies

  • pt has HLA antibodies against donor unit leukocytes
  • destroyed neutrophils release pyrogens
  • if you have never been transfused, you should not have anti-HLA antibodies against anything
  • woman is most at risk for febrile reaction - why because baby’s leukocyte will enter mom’s circulation… (also true for spontaneous abortions)

hemolytic transfusion reactions (…shock because anaphylotoxins are released) - this will occur within 1 hour

  • wrong blood group
  • some antibodies dont show up in blood (why? - tranfusion occurred years ago), but you will have memory B cells –> delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (1 week later)
  • postpartum (they will try to trick you with halothane hepatitis, this will take longer)
  • test with Coombs test

transfusion related lung injury

  • donor antibodies against recipient neutrophils and pulmonary endothelial cells
  • respiratory distress and pulm edema
  • within 6 hours
74
Q

ABO and Rh incompatibilities

A

mom is O- - baby is A-

  • mom’s antibodies can cross placenta and cause mild anemia in kids
  • in utero - mom’s liver will take care of UCB, no problem with kernicterus
  • once baby is born - jaundice will occur within 24 hrs (baby’s liver system is immature)
  • put baby under UVB light - UVB light converts bilirubin into dityrol? (water soluble –> babies pee it out)
  • baby will have mild anemia

Rh incompatibility

  • worst hemolytic anemia with D antigen = hemolytic disease of newborn
  • 2nd baby will require exchange transfusion - because anemia is way worse
  • prevent - give Rh Ig that doesnt cross the placenta at 28 weeks during first pregnancy, regardless of if baby is Rh+ or -
  • after baby is born, test mom’s blood and Id fetal RBCs in cells - give more Rh Ig if baby is Rh+

severe anemia –> high output CO failure

  • pitting edema
  • large livers - extramedullary hematopoeisis
  • kernicterus in basal ganglia, midbrain - severe disease or death in newborn
  • positive direct Coombs test

mom O-, baby A+
- there will not be a problem with Rh sensitization - because baby’s cells will be destroyed immediately

75
Q

neutropenia

A

chemo (treat with GM-CSF or G-CSF), radiation (lymphocytes are most sensitive to radiation)

severe infection

aplastic anemia

SLE - will have antibodies against RBCs, WBCs, platelets

76
Q

cortisol/corticosteroids

A

induces apoptosis of lymphocytes

cortisol induces synthesis of lipocortin –> inhibits phospholipase A2

  • also inhibits NFKB
  • and reduces COX2 expression

inhibits histamine and serotonin release

inhibits IL2 production - T cell growth factor

reduces eos

inhibits WBC adhesion - marginated pool of neutrophils will enter blood

ADRS - avascular necrosis of femoral head

77
Q

EBV

A

mono

  • splenomegaly - periarterial lymphatic sheath of white pulp (not a sheath, really a collection of cells)
  • generalized LAD with hyperplasia of paracortex
  • monospot test = detects heterophile antibodies - anti-horse/sheep RBC antibodies
  • most people have 3-4 recurrences in your life - never lose EBV virus, lives in your B cells
  • atypical lymphocytes are T cells that are reacting against infected B cells

remember LN anatomy

  • cortex, follicles = B cells
  • paracortex = T cells
  • medullary cords = macrophages and plasma cells

monospot is used for screening - detects IgM heterophile antibodies
- turns positive within 1 week of infection

78
Q

ALL

A

TdT (DNA polymerase)
kids, DS after 5 yo
may spread to CNS and testes

B-ALL

  • CD10, CD19, CD20
  • excellent response to chemo - requires prophylaxis to scrotum and CSF (chemo doesnt cross these barriers)
  • t(12;21) - more common, good prognosis
  • t(9;22) - worse prognosis, more commonly seen in adults

T-ALL
- thymic mass in teenager (SVC-like syndrome)

79
Q

CLL/SLL

A

most common adult leukemia - 13 q deletion

neoplastic proliferation of neoplastic B cells - IgM+, IgD=

  • coexpress CD5 and CD20
  • most cases have increased expression of BCL2

smudge cell = splattered cell

involvement of lymphocytes - called SLL

complications: hypogammagloulinemia, most common cause of death is infection
- autoimmune hemolytic anemia - small amount of Ig is defective
- Richter transformation to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma - pt will present with enlarging LN or enlarging spleen

80
Q

adult T cell leukemia lymphoma

A

neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4+ T cells

associated with HTLV-1 (Japan, Caribbean, West Africa) - associated with IVDA

features: rash (T cells like to go to the skin), LAD and HSM, lytic bone lesions with hypercalcemia (red herring is multiple myeloma)

81
Q

sicke cell trait

A

newborns: HbF&raquo_space; Hb A > HbS

relatively asymptomatic - can get hematuria, priapism, and increased incidence of UTIs
- splenic infarct at high altitudes

relative protection from P. f.

82
Q

-plasias

A

reverses carcinoma in situ

neoplasia - clonal cell proliferation, benign or mal
- evasion of apop, uncontrolled growth, angiogenesis, tissue invasion and mets

invasive carcinoma - collagenases, hydrolases, inactivation of E-cadherin

83
Q

leukocyte extravasation

A

1) margination and rolling
- endothelium: E-selectin (TNF and IL1), P-selectin (WP bodies), CAM, CD34
- leukocytes - Sialyl-Lewis X, L-selectin (binds to CAM, CD34)

2) adhesion
- CAMs on endothelium
- bind CD11/18 integrins on leukocyte (LAD1 is due to decreased CD18 subunit)

3) diapedesis
- PECAM1 on both (CD31)

4) migration
- C5a, IL8, LTB4, kallikrein, PAF

84
Q

tissue mediators

A

PDGF (platelets, macrophages) - vascular remodeling, SMC migration, stimulates fibroblast growth

FGF, VEGF - angiogenesis

EGF - cell growth via tyrosine kinases (EGFR1/erbb1)

TGFb - angiogenesis, fibrosis

85
Q

wound healing

A

inflammation - start -3 days - platelets, neutrophils, macrophages

proliferative - day 3-weeks - granulation tissue, wound contraction, delayed healing due to vitamin C and Cu deficiency

remodeling - 1 week to 6 mo

  • type 3 replaced by type 1 - 70-80% tensile strength regained by 3 mo
  • Zn def

scars:

1) hypertrophic - type 3, infrequent
2) keloid - disorganized types 1 and 3, claw-like projections, frequent, greater incidence with darker skin

86
Q

granulomas

A

bacterial - M Tb, Bartonella, Listeria (granulomatosis infantiseptica), syphilis

fungal (histo)

schisto

CGD

autoinflam: …primary biliary cirrhosis, subacute thyroiditis

foreign matl: …talcosis, HS pnuemonitis

TH1 cells secrete IFNy –> macrophages secrete TNFa

87
Q

secondary lymphoid organs

A

allow immune cells to interact with antigen

88
Q

encapsulated organisms

A

S pneumo, H. Flu

penicillin prophylaxis and pneumovax

89
Q

antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

A

not all SLE pts have this syndrome

venous or arterial thromboses
- includes frequent miscarriages, premature birth due to placenta insuffiency/preeclampsia

labs:

  • lupus anticoagulant - aPTT prolongation in vitro. But actually cause hypercoagulable state due to activation of phospholipid-dep pathways
  • presence of of antiphospholipid antibodies - anticardiolipid antibody (false positive on RPR), anti-b2-glycoprotein-1 antibody
90
Q

tumor lysis syndrome

A

oncologic emergency

uric acid precipitates in an acidic environment - the lowest pH along the nephron is found in the distal tubules and collecting ducts

91
Q

RBC/WBC basics

A

thrombocytes - 8-10 d

  • dense granules - ADP, Ca2+
  • a granules - vWF, fibrinogen, fibronectin
  • 1/3 of platelet pool is in spleen

macrophage - activated by INFy

mast cells

  • contain basophilic granules
  • degranulation –> histamine, heparin, tryptase, eosinophilic chemotactic factors
  • cromolyn sodium prevents mast cell degranulation - used asthma prophylaxis

NK cells - lymphocyte, part of the innate immune response

Langerhans cells are dendritic cells in the skin

mature B cells - migrate to peripheral lymphoid tissue (white pulp in spleen)

  • B cell encounters an antigen –> plasma cell
  • plasma cell found in marrow, normally dont circulate in blood

T cells - CD28 is the costimulatory signal

92
Q

fetal blood system

A

erythropoiesis - Young Liver Synthesizes Blood

1) yolk sac - weeks 3-8
2) liver - 6 wk- birth
3) spleen - 10-28 weeks
4) bone marrow - 12 weeks - adult

e and C are embryonic globins - disappear around week 6 in fetus

blood in umbilical vein has PO2 = 30 mm Hg

1) blood enters fetus through umbilical vein –> ductus venosus –> IVC
2) IVC –> heart –> FO
3) deoxygenated blood from SVC –> RA –> RV –> pulm artery –> ductus arteriosus –> descending aorta
- due to high pulmonary artery resistance

birth: infant takes a breath and pulmonary vasculature resistance decreases
- PGs decrease from placental separation

fetal-postnatal derivatives

  • allaNtois –> urachus, mediaN umbilical ligament
  • umbiLicaL arteries –> mediaL umbilical ligaments
  • umbilical vein - ligament teres hepatis (round ligament), contained in falciform ligament
93
Q

odd RBCs

A

acanthocyte - liver disease, abetalipoproteinemia = states of cholesterol dysregulation

basophilic stippling seen in peripheral blood, ringed sideroblasts see in bone marrow

bite cell - G6PD deficiency
- also see Heinz bodies - precipitated Hb (SH groups are converted to S-S bonds)

blur cell (looks like milder version of acanthocyte) - ESRD, liver disease, pyruvate kinase deficiency

spherocyte - also in drug and infection- induce hemolytic anemia

target cells - HbC disease, Asplenia, liver disease, thalassemia
(HALT the hunter said to his target)

Howell-Jolly bodies - nuclear remnants, normally removed by the spleen

94
Q

non-megaloblastic anemia

A

macrocytic anemia in which DNA synthesis is normal - due to alcoholism and liver disease
- no hypersegmented neutrophils

Diamond-Blackfan anemia - rapid-onset anemia within 1st year of life

  • due to intrinsic defect in erythroid progenitor cells
  • increased %HbF but decreased total Hb
  • physical appearance - short stature, craniofacial abnormalities, triphalangeal thumbs
95
Q

aplastic anemia

A

decreased retic, increased EPO, dry tap with fatty infiltration in bone marrow
- NO splenomegaly

causes:

  • radiation and drugs (sulfa drugs, carbamazepine)
  • viral agents - parvo, EBV, HIV, hep
  • idiopathic - immune mediated, primary stem cell defect, may follow acute hepatitis

Fanconi anemia - DNA repair defect that cause bone marrow failure (–> pancytopenia), macrocytosis can be seen on CBC
- short stature, increased incidence of tumors/leukemia, cafe-au-lait spots, thumb/radial defects

96
Q

heme synthesis and porphyrias

A

heme is synthesized in virtually every organ - but main sites are bone marrow and hepatocytes

1) RLS = succinyl coA + glycine –> ALA
- XL sideroblastic anemia - deficient ALA synthase
* ALA enters cytoplasm*
2) ALA dehydratase –> PBG
3) PBG deaminase –> HMB
4) uroporphyrinogen 3 synthase –> uroporphyrinogen 3
5) uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase –> coproporphyrinogen 3
* back to mitochondria*
6) protoporphyrin –> heme

talked about lead poisoning

acute intermittent porphyria AD - defective porphobilinogen deaminase

  • 5Ps: painful abdomen, port-wine colored urine, polyneuropathy, psych disturbances, precipitated by CYP inducers (drugs, alcohol, starvation, progesterone)
  • treat with glucose and heme –> inhibit ALA synthase

porphyria cutanea tarda AD - uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

  • tea colored urine because of uro…
  • blistering cutaneous photosensitivity and hyperpigmentation
  • most common porphyria - exacerbated with alcohol consumption
97
Q

chronic granulomatous disease

A

nitroblue tetrazolium testing

XL mutation in NADPH oxidase - produces ROS that directly kill bacteria and activate proteases in phagosomes

recurrent bacterial and fungal infections - S aureus, Aspergillus

98
Q

pregnancy/OCPs and anemia

A

TIBC increases in pregnancy –> transferrin saturation decreases

99
Q

topoisomerase inhibitors

A

topoisomerase 1 - makes single-stranded nicks to relieve negative supercoiling

  • irinotecan and topotecan
  • “tecans”
  • ADRs - severe myelosupression, diarrhea

top 2 - induces transient breaks in BOTH DNA strands to relieve positive and negative supercoiling

  • etoposide, podophyllin - inhibit top2’s ability to reseal the breaks
  • etoposide used in testicular and small cell lung cancer
  • podophyllin - used in genital warts
  • FQs inhibit bacterial top 2
  • ADRs: myelosuppression, alopecia
100
Q

anti-cancer drugs

A

hydroxyurea - inhibits ribonucleotide reductase (myelosuppression)

BeVacizumab - anti-VEGF (hemorrhage, blood clots, impaired wound healing)
cetuximab - anti-EGFR, use in CRC (rash, elevated LFTs, diarrhea)
infliximab - anti TNFa, use in RA
rituximab - anti-CD20 (increased risk of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy)
trastuzumab (herceptin) - anti-HER2 (tyrosine kinase receptor), cardiotox
- used in HER2 pos breast cancer
- side note - SERMs used in premenopausal women, aromatase inhibitors in postmenopausal women, these are NOT monoclonal antibodies

erlotinib - EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor (rash)
imatinib - BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitor (fluid retention)
vemurafenib - BRAF small molecule inhibitor, used in metastatic melanoma

bortezomib, carfilzomib - proteasome inhibitors, induce arrest at G2-M phase and apoptosis (peripheral neuropathy, VZV reactivation)

rasburicase - recomb uricase, metabolizes uric acid to allantoin
- used in tumor lysis syndrome

101
Q

non-Hodgkins lymphoma (60%)

A

multiple LNs involved, extranodal involvment is common

note - chromosome 14 contains the Ig heavy chain

follicular lymphoma - small B cells (CD20), waxing and waning LAD

  • 14;18 - Bcl2 overexpression
  • follicle of LN is where you want apoptosis to occur - somatic hypermutation of B cells (after being challenged by antigen)
    - lack of tingible body macrophages - normally they come in to clean up dead B cells
  • monoclonal origin: K/L
  • treatment for those who are symptomatic (most are asymptomatic)
  • complication - progression to diffuse large B-cell lymphoma - presents as enlarging LN

mantle cell lymphoma - 11;14, cyclin D overexpression

  • CD20 AND CD5
  • cyclin D phosphorylates protein regulators and drives G1 to S
  • very aggressive

marginal zone lymphoma = post-germinal center B cells
- associated with chronic inflammatory states

diffuse large B cell lymphoma - B cells that grow in SHEETS

  • most common form of NHL in adults, clinically aggressive
  • again Bcl2 or 6 mutations
102
Q

cyclosporine and tacrolimus

A

calcineurin inhibitors

cyclosporine - binds cyclophilin –> prevents IL2 transcription

  • also used in psoriasis, RA
  • nephrotox, HTN, HLD, neurotox, gingival hyperplasia, hirsuitism

tacrolimus - binds FKBP –> prevents IL2 transcription

  • similar to cyclosporine - increased risk of DM and neurotox
  • no mucocutaneous findings
103
Q

sirolomus (rapamycin)

A

mTOR inhibitor, binds FKBP - prevents response to IL2
- because IL2 normally activates IL2

pancytopenia

used post-kidney transplant - so it is not nephrotox

104
Q

basiliximab

A

blocks IL2R

ADRs - edema, HTN, tremor

105
Q

mycophenolate mofetil

A

irr inhibits IMP dehydrogenase - prevents purine synthesis

ADRs - associated with invasive CMV infection, many but less nephrotoxic and neurotoxic

106
Q

transplant rejections

A

hyperacute - minutes

acute - CD8 T cells are activated against donor MHCs (type 4 HSR)

  • humoral - antibodies develop AFTER transplant
  • signs - vasculitis of graft vessels, interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate

chronic - CD4+ T cells react to APCs presenting donor peptides –> cytokines –> atrophy, fibrosis, and arteriosclerosis

  • ex: bronchiolitis obliterans, accelerated atherosclerosis, nephropathy, vanishing bile duct syndrome
  • both cellular and humoral components

graft v.s. host

107
Q

HSR

A

type 1

type 2

  • -> phagocytosis/complement OR NK killing (antibody-med mech)
  • remember NKs use perforin and granzyme to kill - induced when exposed to a non-specific activation signal or the absence of an MHC1 on a target cell
  • antibody mediated mech - C16 on NK binds Fc of Ig
  • -> cellular dysfunction - because of blockage of downstream processes

type 3 - IC (IgG-antigen) attracts neutrophils –> which release lysosomal enzymes

  • serum sickness - fever, urticaria, arthralgia, proteinuria, LAD 5-10 days after antigen/drug exposure
  • arthus reaction - local injection of antigen…., edema, necrosis, activation of complement

type 4

  • direct - CD8 (ex type 1 DM)
  • delayed - sensitized CD4 cells encounter antigen and release cytokines –> inflammation and macrophage activation
108
Q

when should you give passive immunity

A

tetanus/botulism toxins (or diphtheria antitoxin?)

HBV, Varicella, Rabies

109
Q

Ig subtypes

A

Fab - Fc (complement) - Fc (macrophage)
- Fc determines isotype

generation of diversity - random recomb of VJ (light chain) and VDJ genes

  • random addition of nucleotides by TdT (terminal deoxynucleotide transferase)
  • random combination of heavy chains

generation of antibody specificity - somatic hypermutation and affinity maturation
- isotype switching (IL4)

IgG (greatest concentration in serum) - delayed response to antigen
IgM - immediate response

IgA (most produced) - Giardia!, picks up J chain from epithelial cells

IgE - also activates eos

thymus-dep antigens - contain a protein, can be presented by MHC to T cells

………………………………………..
B-cell activation and switching
- T cell and B cell bind
1) MCH2
2) CD40 receptor on B cells binds CD40L on T cells
- T cells secrete cytokines that determine Ig class switching, affinity maturation, etc.

110
Q

acute phase reactants

A

induced by IL6

CRP - opsonin, fixes complement
also ferritin, fibrinogen, hepcidin, SAA

negative phase - albumin (balance), transferrin (internalized by macrophages to sequester Fe)

111
Q

spleen and thymus

A

spleen - 9-11 ribs

  • red pulp = RBCs, macrophages line the red pulp cords
  • white pulp - PALS is where T cells are, B cells are in follicles
  • marginal zone (between red pulp and white pulp) - where APCs capture blood-borne antigens to present to lymphocytes

splenic dysfunction - decreased IgM and complement –> increased susceptibility to encapsulated organisms

  • vaccinate for pneumococcal, Hib, meningococcal
  • also side note - C3 deficiency predisposes to recurrent infections with encapsulated orgs

thymus - 3rd pouch, lymphocytes of mesodermal origin

  • cortex has immature T cells - positive selection
  • medulla has mature T cells (and reticular cells) - negative selection, AIRE (deficiency leads to autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome 1)
112
Q

MHC

A
A, B, C are class 1 = 1 long and 1 short chain
(class 2 has 2 equal length chains)

class 1 - antigen peptides loaded on MHC1 in RER after delivery via TAP

MHC1 associated with b2-microglobulin

113
Q

T cells

A

all = CD3 pos

activation:

1) APC to LN
2) MHC2 and costimulatory signal between B7 on APC and CD28 on naive T cells
3) T cell activates and produces cytokines

TH1 - only secretes IFNy and IL2 (TH2 cells secrete all other cytokines)

  • its own differentiation is induced by IFNy and IL12 (which is released by macrophages)
  • activates macrophages and cytotoxic T cells
  • IFNy inhibits TH2 cell
  • inhibited by IL4 and IL10

Tregs (anti-inflam) - CD3, CD4, CD25, FOXP3

  • activated Tregs produce IL10 and TGFb
  • IPEX due to FOXP3 def, XL - autoimmunity characterized by enteropathy, endocrinopathy, autoimmunity (dermatitis, nail dystrophy)
    - associated with diabetes in male infants

superantigen - cross- link b region of T cell receptor to MHC2

114
Q

ILs and cytokines

A

macrophages - IL1, IL6, IL8, IL12 (promotes TH1 and NK phenotypes), TNFa (activates endothelium and recruits WBCs, as does IL1)
- TNFa maintains granulomas

all T cells - IL2, IL3 (~GM-CSF)

from TH2

  • IL4
  • IL5 - promotes diff and growth of B cells, enhances class switching to IgA, eos

side note - INF a and b are part of the innate response
- synthesized by virus-infected cells –> prime uninfected cells (by helping to degrade viral nuclei and protein)

115
Q

6-MP

A

azathioprine, 6-MP

activated by HGPRT
inactivated by XO and TPMT

ADR - abdominal pain and jaundice

116
Q

cyclophosphamide

A

requires bioactivation by P450

cell-cycle nonspecific = alkylates

hemorrhagic cystitis (+ MESNA to bind toxic metabolites)

other alkylating agents

  • busulfan - SEVERE myelosuppression, pulmonary fibrosis
  • nitrosoureas - crosses BBB, also requires intracellular activation

alkylating agents in general target rapidly-dividing cells - tarry stool (due to upper GI bleed)

117
Q

mechanism of 2,3-BPG

A

the negative phosphate groups of 2,3-BPG associate with the positive amino acid groups in HB

glycosylation (in diabetes) can interfere with this binding pocket –> increased 2,3-BPG in diabetics

118
Q

oncogenes

A

RAS - overexpression renders cells more sensitive to mitogenic stimuli

119
Q

Hageman factor

A

factor 12 - deficiency –> PTT prolongation without bleeding diathesis
- instead pts have a tendency for thromboembolic complications

120
Q

antiemetics

A

NTS - receives info from area postrema, GI tract via vagus nerve, vestibular and CNS

antagonize!

motion sickness, hyperemesis gravidarum
- anticholingerics (scopolamine), antihistamines (diphenhydramine, meclizine, promethazine)

chemo-induced

  • dopamine antagonists - prochlorperazine, metoclopromide
  • serotonin antagonists - ondansetron
  • NK1 receptor antagonists - aprepitant, prevent substance P release
121
Q

parvovirus B19

A

attaches to human erythroid cells via blood group P antigen - expressed on erythrocytes, placenta, fetal liver and heart

122
Q

inherited cancer syndromes

A

all are AD, with inactivation of tumor supressors (2 hit hypothesis)
- except for MEN2 - activating mutation in RET gene that leads to continuous cell division

APC - maintains low levels of b-catenin (which is oncogenic)

Lynch syndrome - MSH2, MLH1, MSH6, PMS2 genes

Li-Fraumeni - sarcoma, leukemia, adrenals, breast cancer
- p53 normally causes arrest in G1/S stage

123
Q

anti-inflam

A

acetaminophen - CNS activity (weak Peripheral NS activity)

124
Q

HbA1c

A

falsely high when you have decreased RBC production - nutrient deficiencies, low EPO

125
Q

antibiotics that are anti-cancer

A

act during G2 - damage DNA after DNA synthesis

bleomycin –> free radicals –> break DNA strands
- lung fibrosis, minimum myelosuppression

D-actinomycin -intercalates

doxorubicin –> free radicals –> intercalate and strand break
- dilated cardiomyopathy, alopecia

126
Q

pure red cell aplasia

A

erythropoietic precursors and progenitors are inhibited by IgG autoantibodies or cytotoxic T lymphocytes
- associated with thymomas and lymphocytic leukemias

127
Q

SCID

A

XL, AR - genetic defect –> failure of T cell development –> B cell dysfunction

features - recurrent viral, fungal, opportunistic infections due to loss of T cells

  • B cell dysfunction - recurrent sinopulmonary bacterial infections
  • failure to thrive, chronic diarrhea

lymphopenia, hypogammaglobulinemia

  • candidal skin test to test T cell immunity - macrophages present injected antigen to CD4+ T cells –> CD4+ T cells secrete cytokines that recruit CD8+ cells to the area
  • stem cell transplant

note - red herring - congenital HIV