Hem 10 - Leukemia And Multiple Myeloma Flashcards

1
Q

What are the symptoms of Acute leukemia?

A

Rapid onset and rapidly progressive. Over 50% myeloblasts (AML) or lymphoblasts (ALL) in the bone marrow. Numerous blast (immature) cells (more than 20% blasts). Often associated w/ pancytopenia (anemia, bleeding tendency, infection).

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2
Q

What are the symptoms of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia?

A

Philadelphia chromosome may be seen (poor prognosis). Most common in children and young adults. Males and whites more affected. B cell types more common than T cell. 3 morphologic variants and 5 phenotypic variants. Bone pain is common. Most have the enzyme terminal deoxynucleotide transferasse (TdT). Very good prognosis in children (90% remission). PAS (+). Difficult to dx on blood smear (others can be dx w. this).

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3
Q

What are the symptoms of Acute Myelogenous Leukemia?

A

Philadelphia chromosome rarely seen. Characteristic Auer rods. 8 different morphological classifications. Most ll are CD 13/33 (+). Usuallt nonspecific esterase (+) myeloid cells. Median age of onset is 65. PAS (-). Associated w/ numerous risk factors.

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4
Q

Which type of leukemia is associated w/ Down syndrome?

A

[we ALL fall Down] Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is associated w/ Down syndrome.

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5
Q

What are Auer rods?

A

Thin, reddish rods seen in the cytoplasm of the myeloblasts in AML. They are especially common in M3 variety: the Acute promyelocytic AML

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6
Q

What are 3 risk factors for AML?

A

Radiation, benzene, or alkylating agents (such as in Hodgkin lymphoma treatment). Myeloproliferative disease, myelodysplastic syndrome, or aplastic anemia. Down syndrome, Fanconi anemia or Blood syndrome.

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7
Q

What are the symptoms of Chronic Leukemia?

A

Insidious onset and gradual progression (months to years). Mature cells (rather than blasts; less than 5% blasts). Can be either myeloid (CML) or lymphoid (CLL). Associated w/ hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy. Prominent infiltration of bone marrow by leukemic cells and peripheral WBC counts may be high.

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8
Q

What are traits seen in Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia?

A

Most common adult leukemia seen in western country. Males and whites more affected. Seen in adults over 50. 95% have B cell markers (rather than T cell). 10% progress to ALL. Characteristic smudge cells. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (Both cold and warm). Tends to be indolent.

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9
Q

What are the traits seen in Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia?

A

May progress to AML (80%) or ALL (20%). Numerous basophils and PMNs are LAP (-). Seen in adults ages 25-60. Hyperplasia of all 3 cell lines (granulocytic, erythroid, and megakaryocytic) but granulocyte precursor predominate. Philadelphia chrom (t9;22) is always present. Fatigue, abdominal pain, splenomegaly, bleeding tendency.

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10
Q

What are smudge cells?

A

Lymphocytes that instead of having a nice round nucleus, the nucleus is larger and irregular and the cytoplasm looks like it is smeared.

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11
Q

What is Philadelphia chromosome?

A

Translocation 9;22. This creates mutation bcr-abl; it encodes constitutively activated tyrosine kinase. Always present in CML [Philadelphia CreaML cheese]. Sometimes present in ALL, rarely present in AML.

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12
Q

Which drug specifically targets the Philadelphia chromosome and what is the mechanism?

A

Imatinib. It specifically inhibits bcr-abl tyrosine kinase.

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13
Q

Which disease is associated w/ t(8;14)?

A

Burkitt lymphoma.

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14
Q

Which disease is associated w/ t(15;17)?

A

M3 type of AML.

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15
Q

Which disease is associated w/ t(9;22)?

A

Philadelphia chromosome in CML.

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16
Q

Which disease is associated w/ t(8;21)?

A

AML.

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17
Q

What is a Leukemoid reaction?

A

An elevated WBC as a reaction to a stressor, like an infection. Predominantly neutrophils. Left shift (5-10% immature band forms). Causes are infection, Down syndrome, congenital abnormalities (tetralogy of Fallot), Malignancy, Kawasaki disease, Heat stroke.

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18
Q

What is Melodysplastic syndromes?

A

Dysplasia of the hematopoietic cells in the myeloid tissue. Causes Pelger-Huet anomaly on blood smear; neutrophils have nucleis w/ 2 lobes connected in the middle by a thin line. Most patients are asymptomatic and dx is made w/ bone marrow biopsy that shows dysplasia and disordered hematopoiesis.

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19
Q

What is Myeloproliferative disorder?

A

Neoplastic transformation of a single myeloid precursor that causes monoclonal proliferation of mature myeloid cells. Three examples are polycythemia vera, essential thrombocytosis, and myelofibrosis. Associated w/ mutation of JAK2 (Turning it constitutively on): which encodes a protein called Janus Kinase 2 which is involved in hematopoietic growth factor signaling.

20
Q

What is Polycythemia vera?

A

A benign neoplasm of RBCs; increased red cell mass w/o elevated erythropoietin. Causes plethora, pruritus after hot bath or shower, splenomegaly, hiperviscosity of blood, headahce and erythromelalgia.

21
Q

What is Essential thrombocytosis?

A

The platelet equivalent of polycythemia vera; increased platelets with low thrombopoietin. They can have thrombosis. Or bleeding (because the platelets do not work correctly).

22
Q

What is Myelofibrosis?

A

Fibrosis and obliteration of marrow space. It causes tear-dropped shaped RBCs.

23
Q

What is Multiple myeloma?

A

Malignancy of plasma cells; a monoclonal plasma cell cancer. Plasma are fully differentiated B cells whose job is to produce antibodies. This diseases causes a huge production of antibodies, usually IgG, but sometimes IgA. Initially causes anemia (Crowding of bone marrow interferes w/ RBC production), renal insuff(Abs form casts in the urine and plug up the kidneys), back pain and hypercalcemia (they secrete cytokines called local osteolytic factors that stimulate osteoclast and inhibit osteoblasts). Shows up as monoclonal Ab spike (M spike) on serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP). Immunoglobin light chains in urine (Bence Jones proteins) detected on urine protein electrophoresis (UPEP). Leads to increased susceptibility to infection and amyloidosis. Causes punched-out lytic bone lesions (due to local osteolytic factors). Peripheral smear shows RBCs stacked up as coins (Rulou formation).

24
Q

What is Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?

A

Causes monoclonal proliferation of IgM. Does not cause punched out bone lesions like in multiple myeloma. Associated w/ amyloidosis and hyperviscosity.

25
Q

What is a Plasmacytoma?

A

Solid tumor of plasma cells. 2 types: solitary plasmacytoma of bone and Extramedullary plasmacytoma (Predilection for head and neck). Do not cause lytic bone lesions.

26
Q

What is MGUS?

A

Monoclonal Gammopathy of Undetermined Significance. It is monoclonal proliferation of plasma cells that are producing lots of monoclonal immunoglobulins. It does not cause symptoms, but can progress to multiple myeloma.

27
Q

A patient w/ anemia, hypercalcemia, and bone pain undergoes a bone marrow biopsy, which reveals plasma cells. What is the diagnosis, and what may be found in urinalysis?

A

Multiple myeloma. No proteinuria on routine urinalysis, however there is monoclonal antibody spike on UPEP.

28
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: Most common leukemia in children.

A

ALL.

29
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: most common leukemia in adults in US?

A

CLL.

30
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: characteristic Auer rods.

A

M3 AML.

31
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome have a tendency to progress to…?

A

AML.

32
Q

Myeloproliferative disorders may progress to…?

A

AML.

33
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: more than 20% blasts in marrow.

A

Acute leukemia.

34
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: leukemia w/ more mature cells and less than 5% blasts.

A

Chronic leukemia.

35
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: PAS (+) acute leukemia.

A

ALL.

36
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: commonly presents w/ bone pain.

A

ALL.

37
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: Numerous basophils, splenomegaly, and negative for leukocyte alkaline phosphate (LAP).

A

CML.

38
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: Always positive for the Philadelphia chromosome (t 9;22).

A

CML.

39
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: acute leukemia positive for perioxidase.

A

AML.

40
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: solide sheets of lymphoblasts in marrow.

A

ALL.

41
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: PAS (-) acute leukemia.

A

AML.

42
Q

What form of leukemia matches the following statement: always associated w/ bcr-abl gene.

A

CML.

43
Q

RFF: Smudge cells.

A

CLL.

44
Q

RFF: “punched out” lytic bone lesions.

A

Multiple myeloma.

45
Q

RFF: RBCs clumped together like a stack of coins.

A

Rouleaux formation (multiple myeloma).

46
Q

RFF: Monoclonal antibody spike.

A

Multiple myeloma, MGUS, Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia.

47
Q

RFF: Reddish-pink rods in the cytoplasm of leukemic blasts.

A

Auer rods in AML.