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hell Flashcards

1
Q

Closed circulatory system

A

use a pumping heart to move blood through vessels

-ex: annelida (earthworms(

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2
Q

2 chambered hearts?

A

Ex: fish

-Atrium and Ventricle

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3
Q

Flow of blood to the Right Atrium?

A

1) Deoxygenated blood is returned from:
- Upper Superior Vena Cava
- Lower Inferior Vena Cava
2) Blood passes through the right AV valve or tricuspid valve to the right ventricle

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4
Q

AV valve

A

Or tricuspid valve
-attached to papillary muscles which contract to close the AV wolves and prevent back flow of blood
R atrium and R ventircule

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5
Q

Flow of Blood:

Right Ventricle

A

Pumps deoxygenated blood through the pulmonary semilunar valve to the pulmonary artery
-blood enters pulmonary circulation

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6
Q

What occurs when the ventricle contracts? relaxes?

A

Contracts:
The AV valve closes
Pulmonary semilunar valve opens and deoxygenated blood is released to pulmonary artery

Relaxes?
AV valve opens and refills ventricle
pulmonary semilunar valve closes to prevent backflow

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7
Q

Blood Flow: Left Atrium

A

oxygenated blood is returned from the lungs via the pulmonary Vein
-blood passes through the Bicuspid valve or mitral valve to the left ventricle

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8
Q

What is the most muscular chamber of the heart?

A

left ventricle

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9
Q

Blood flow: left ventricle

A

pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta and systemic circulation

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10
Q

Pulmonary Circulation

A

moves deoxygenated blood from heart to the lungs and back in order for it to become oxygenated

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11
Q

Systemic circulation

A

moves oxygenated blood from he heart through the body

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12
Q

Cardiomyocytes

A

heart muscle cells

-contain automaticity-self-excitable and able to initiate an action potential without an external nerve

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13
Q

SA Node

A

pace maker of the heart

  • located in the upper wall of the right atrium
  • initiates the cardiac cycle
  • greatest automaticity

sends signal to contract both atria to send blood to ventricles
-also signal to the AV node to initiate contraction too

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14
Q

AV Node

A

located in the lower wall of the right atrium

  • fx: adds a brief delay between the contraction of the atria and the contraction fo the ventricles
  • sends a signal to the bundle of His
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15
Q

Bundle of His

A

located in the inter ventricular septum between the ventricles
-carris signal to the purkinje fibers which contract the ventricles

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16
Q

Heart Sound:

Lub vs Dub

A

Lub:(AV valves snapping shut)

  • atria are relaxed
  • ventricles are contracting

Dub: (semilunar valve shutting)

  • atria are contracting
  • ventricles relaxed
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17
Q

When does Systole Occur? Diastole?

A

Systole between Lub dub sounds

Diastole after dub before next Lub

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18
Q

P, Q, R, S wave?

A

P=atria depolarization
Q-depolarization through interventiruclar septum
R=ventricular depolarizatoin
S=completion of ventricular depolarization

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19
Q

Heart Rate (HR)

A

how fast the heart beats per min

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20
Q

Tachycardia

A

greater than 100 beats per min

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21
Q

Bradycardia

A

less than 60 beats per min

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22
Q

Stroke Volume (SV)

A

the volume of blood pumped from the heart each beat

Diastolic Volume-Systolic Volume

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23
Q

Cardiac Output (CO)

A

volume of blood being pumper per min

CO=SV x HR

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24
Q

Total Peripheral Resistance (TPR)

A

total amount of resistance that blood phases when flowing through the vasculature of the body

  • Vasoconstriction- increases TPR
  • Vasodilation-decreases TPR
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25
Q

Systolic Blood pressure

A

highest pressure in your arteries when your ventricles contract

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26
Q

Diastolic blood pressure

A

pressure in your arteries while the heart is relaxing between beats (Ventricles are filling UP_

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27
Q

Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)

A

average arterial pressure during one complete cardiac cycle

MAP= COxTPR

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28
Q

Plasma

A

makes up most of blood volume 55%

-contains water, proteins, nutrients etc.

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29
Q

leukocytes

A

white blood cells

-immune cells-defeat against infection

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30
Q

What is the most common white blood cell?

A

neutrophil

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31
Q

Thrombocytes

A

Platelets

  • cell fragments that do not have a nucleus
  • responsible for clotting
  • relese factors that help convert fibrinogen into fibrin; creates net to stop bleeds
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32
Q

Megakaryocytes

A

large bone marrow cells-are the precursor to platelets

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33
Q

Deficieny in Vit K

A

increased bled

-clotting factors are synthesized with Vitamin K

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34
Q

Erythrocytes

A

RBC

  • responsible for transporting oxygen attached to hemoglobin
  • Mature RBC-anucleate-no nucleus
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35
Q

Type A, B, AB, and O? what type of ANtigen

A

A=A
B=B
AB=A and B antigens
O=neither antigen

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36
Q

Rhesus factor (Rh)

A

surface protein found in blood

Rh(+) cannot donate to someone who is Rh-

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37
Q

Universal Acceptor for Blood?

A

AB+

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38
Q

Fetal Circulation

A
  • fetus gets oxygen and nutrients from the placenta through the umbilical cord
  • Oxygenated blood in the R atrium goes directly to the L atrium through a hole in the heart called Foramen oval
  • placenta provide an exchange of gas and nutrients across a barrier; no mixing of mother and placenta blood
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39
Q

Right Lung vs Left Lung

A

Left lung

  • two lobes
  • smaller

Right Lung:

  • 3 lobes
  • bigger
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40
Q

pleura covers the:

A

covers the:

  • lungs
  • dual layered membrane composed of the outer layer-parieatel layer and the inner layer=visceral layer
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41
Q

Inspiration/inhalation

A

involves the
-contraction of the diaphragm (pulls lungs downwards)
and the external intercostal muscles (expand the rib cage)

Contractions cause pressure of intrapleural space to decrease and the volume of the lungs to increase
=brings air into the lungs

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42
Q

Expiration/exhalation?

A

involves the:

  • relaxation of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles
  • brings lungs back up and close the rib cage through ELASTiC RECOILD
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43
Q

Pathway of air through the body? start with nose

A

1) Nasal cavity contain:
- goblet cells-secrete mucus
- ciliated epithelial cells-move mucus and trapped debris
2) Pharynx
- at the beginning of the throat
- epiglotis diverts air and food into the larynx and the esophagus
3) Larynx
- receives air and contains the voice box
4) Trachea
- contains reinforced cartilage and ciliated epithelial cells to filter air
5) R and L Bronchi
6) Bronchioles
7) Alveoli

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44
Q

Upper respiratory tract refers to?

A

nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx

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45
Q

Lower respiratory tract refers to?

A

trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

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46
Q

Surfactant

A

substance that prevents the lungs from collapsing by reducing surface tension

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47
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Tetramer

  • contains heme cofactor in each of its four subunits
  • Heme cofactor-contains organic molecules that contain Iron atoms which bind oxygen
  • can carry up to 4 oxygen molecules
  • Oxygen dissociation curve=sigmoidal
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48
Q

Oxyhemoglobin

A

HBO2

-transports most of the oxygen traveling in the blood

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49
Q

Cooperativity

A

the binding of one oxygen molecules to hemoglobin makes it easier for others to bind due to changes in the shape of the hemoglobin
-allows for efficient unloading of oxygen in body tissues

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50
Q

Carboxyl hemoglobin

A

HbCO

  • produced when carbon monoxide outcompetes oxygen for hemoglobin binding
  • carbon monoxide poisoning occurs bc oxygen can no longer be transported efficienty
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51
Q

Myoglobin

A

Single peptide

  • one heme cofactor
  • much higher affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin initially
  • found within cardiac and skeletal muscle cells
  • Hyperbolic oxygen dissociation curve-does not undergo cooperatively
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52
Q

Hemoglobin:

R vs L shift of Oxygen Dissociation curve

A

Right shift=lowered affinity for oxygen in hemoglobin

1) decreased pH
2) High Pp of CO2
3) Increase in 2,3-BPG concentration
4) Increased Body Temp

Left Shift

1) Increased pH
2) Low Pp of CO2
3) Fetal Hemoglobin
4) Decreased body temp

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53
Q

How does the blood travel to the lungs?

A

Bulk Flow

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54
Q

Medulla Oblongata

A

located in the brain

  • controls the diaphragm to regulate respiratory rate
  • central chemoreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors signal to the medulla
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55
Q

Respiratory acidosis

A

Hypoventilation

  • lowered blood pH occurs due to inadequate breathing
  • hypoventilation
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56
Q

respiratory alkalosis

A

Hyperventilation

increased blood pH due to rapid breathing

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57
Q

Lymphocytes

A

WBC

  • found mainly in lymphatic organs (T cells, B cells, Natural killeer cells)
  • originate from bone marrow
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58
Q

Where do B and T cells mature?

A

T cells mature in the thymus

B cells mature in the bone marrow

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59
Q

Mast Cells

A

type of leukocyte responsible for first part of inflammatory response
-RALLY SIGNALing

Injury Occurs- release histamine which dilates blood vessel; which increases blood flow and makes vessels more permeable to let immune cells into the tissues

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60
Q

5 signs of inflamation

A

SLIPR

Swelling-
Loss of functin
Increase heat
Pain
Redness
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61
Q

What are the 5 main types of Lymphocytes

A

Never Let Monkeys Eat Bannanas

  • Neutrophils
  • Lyphocytes
  • Macrophages
  • Eosinophils
  • Basophils
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62
Q

Neutrophils

A

phagocytes in innate immunity and make up over Hal of all leukocytes

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63
Q

B and T cells

A

apart of adaptive immunity and must be activate

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64
Q

Natural Killer cells

A

part of innate immunity

  • attack vital infected cells and cancer cells
  • use perforin (creates holes) and granzyme (stimulate apoptosis) to lyse cells
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65
Q

Macrophage/Monocytes

A

phagocytes in innate immunity

  • monocytes are immature form in blood vessel
  • macrophages mature form and can act as antigen present cells to activate adaptive immunity
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66
Q

Eosinophils

A

part of innate immunity

  • have granules that can be released to kill pathogens
  • espiecally paraistes
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67
Q

Basophills

A

least numerous leukocyte

-contain granules with histamine (Vasodilation) and heparin (an anticoagulation to prevent blood clotting)

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68
Q

MHC Class I

A

surface molecule present on all nucleated cells

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69
Q

MHC Class II

A

surface molecule present on antigen presenting cells

  • dendritic cells
  • macrophages

used to present foreign antigens to activate immune cells

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70
Q

B cells function

A

control antibody-mediated immunity (humoral immunity)
-release and production of antibodies

Also act as antigen presenting cells

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71
Q

Clonal selection model

A

describes the developing of one type of B-cell receptor for every B cell
-throug clonal expansion the B cells divide into either plasma cells (antibody secreting cells) or memory B cell to be activated later for another attack

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72
Q

T cells function

A

control cell-mediated immunity by acting on cells not antibodies
-must bind to antigens to be activated

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73
Q

Passive immunity

A

immunity someone receives from receiving antibodies from someone else that already has that immunity

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74
Q

Active Immuhnity

A

immunity a person gains from being infected once already by a pathogen

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75
Q

vaccination

A

introduce the antigen or pathogen in a activated state to stimulate activate immunity
-CALLED ARTICIAL IMMUNITY
induces memory B and T cell formation

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76
Q

Neuron

A

most basic unit of the nervous system

Composed of 3 parts:

  • Soma (cell body)
  • Dendrites (extensions that receive signals)
  • axons-send signals out
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77
Q

Central nervous system is composed of

A

composed of the brain and spinal cord

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78
Q

Peripheral nervous system is composed of

A

composed of nerves branching of CNS

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79
Q

Cerrebelum responsible for?

A

coordination of movement

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80
Q

Temporal Lobe responsible for?

A

Speech/language

-hearing

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81
Q

What is the brainstem composed of?

A

Midbrain-relays sense to other parts the Brian
Pons-relays messages from cerebellum to forebrain
Medulla Oblonagata-heart and breathing rate

82
Q

Thalamus

A

relay center of the brain

83
Q

Limbic system is composed of?

responsible for?

A

hypothalamus
hippocampus
amygdala

emotion, memory, learning, and motivation

84
Q

Sensory (afferent) neurons

A

send signal to the spinal cord and brain through dorsal roots

85
Q

Motor (efferent neurons)

A

send a signals back out both e muscle through ventral roots

86
Q

Meninges

  • function
  • cmposed of 3 layers?
A

protect the CNS

Outermost:

  • Dura
  • Arachnoid
  • pia
87
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system divided into?

A

Somatic Nervous System
-volunatry motor action and sensory input

Autonomic nervous system
-involuntary

88
Q

ACETYLcholine for sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system

A

Sympathetic nervous system
-uses for preganglionic nerves and norepinephrine/epinephrine for postganglionic nerves

Parasympathetic nervous system
-uses for both pregangliionic and postgangliionic nerves

89
Q

Outer ear

A

takes in sound waves

90
Q

Tympanic membrane of ear

A

transfer the sound form the outer ear to the middle ear

91
Q

What is the middle ear composed of?

A

Three bony Ossicles:

  • Malleus
  • Incus
  • Stapes
92
Q

Ossicles of middle ear

A

transfer vibrations through the middle ear and amplify the signal

93
Q

Stapes of middle ear

A

transfers the vibrations from the middle to the inter ear via the OVAL window

94
Q

Cochlea

A

TRANSDUCITON

fluid and hairs to convert mechanical signal to neuronal signal

95
Q

Round window

ear

A

membrane convert opening

  • between middle and inner ear
  • helps the fluid expand and vibrate
96
Q

semicircular canals

A

gives information about person’s movement

-DIZZINESS

97
Q

Cornea

A

transparent

  • focuses light
  • protects the eye
98
Q

Iris

A

controls the size of the pupil

99
Q

Pupil

A

controls how much light enters

100
Q

Lens

A

focuses images on retina

101
Q

Retina

A

back of the eye and has photoreceptors

-rods and cones

102
Q

Optic nerve

A

bundle of axons that transmit visual information to the brain

103
Q

optic disc

A

blind spot of the eye

-where the optic nerve passes through to reach the brain

104
Q

Sclera

A

protective connective tissue that surrounds the eye

-white part of the eye

105
Q

Nose

A

Contains olfactory receptor cells that sense mocluels and send signal to the Olfactory cortex
-perception of smell

106
Q

What are the three types of muscle?

  • which are striated
  • which are voluntary/involuntary
A

Smooth

  • involuntary
  • not striated

Cardiac

  • involuntary
  • striated

Skeletal

  • voluntary
  • striated
107
Q

striated muscles mean

A

contain sarcomeres

108
Q

Cardiac muscle

A

contain intercalated discs which are made of:

  • desmosomes (hold cells together)
  • gap junctions connect cytoplasm of cells to allow in exchange
109
Q

Bone remodeling

A

constant back and forth between ossification (bone formation) and resorption (bone loss)

110
Q

Osteoprogenitors

A

immature precursor cells that differentiate into osteoblasts

111
Q

Osteoblasts

A

build bond

-matute into osteocytes after getting trapped inside the bone matrix

112
Q

Osteocytes

A

live in lacunae in osteons to maintain bone

113
Q

osteoclasts

A

eat and resorb bone, bringing calcium back into the blood

-derived from monocytes

114
Q

Parathyroid hormone function

A

increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts and depressing osteoblasts
-secreted by the parathyroid gland

115
Q

Vit D

A

increases blood calcium levels
-activated by parathyroid hormone
Provides negative feedback on PTH hormone
(parathyroid hormone)

116
Q

Calcitonin

A

decreases the blood calcium levels by depressing osteoclasts, allowing osteoblasts to build bone without competition
-secreted by thyroid gland

117
Q

Osteoid

A

organic component of the bond

-contains the protein colagen

118
Q

Intramembranous ossification

A

make flat bones

119
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

make long bones

120
Q

Tendons

A

connect muscle to bone

121
Q

Ligaments

A

connect bone to bone

122
Q

Periosteium

A

membrane that covers cortical bone with an outer fibrous layer and an inner/cambium layer

123
Q

Endosteum

A

membrane located between cortical and cancellous bone

124
Q

Cartilage

A

avascular (lack blood)

-not innervated

125
Q

Chondroblasts

A

built cartilage by secreting collagen and elastin

126
Q

Joints

A

vascularized and innervated

-found between bone

127
Q

What hormones are produced by the adrenal cortex

A

glucocorticoids, mineralcoritcoids and androgenic steroids

128
Q

what hormones are produce by the reproductive orgns

A

progesterone, testosterone, estrogen

129
Q

Steroid hormones

A

progesterone, testosterone, estrogen

glucocorticoids, mineralcorticoids, and androgenic steroids

130
Q

Hypothalamus

A

coordinates the body internal enviroment

-maintains homeostasis

131
Q

Vasopressin/ Anti-diuretic hormone/ADH

  • function
  • stored/released
A

decreases urination by increasing water retention
-targets nephrons
Stored and released by posterior pituitary

132
Q

Oxytocin

  • function
  • stored/released
A

causes uterine contraction during labor and release the milk during breast feeding
Stored and released by posterior pituitary

133
Q

GnRH

A

causes release of luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone
stimulate anterior pituitary and released by hypothalamus

134
Q

TRH

A

causes release of thyroid stimulate hormone (TSH)

stimulate anterior pituitary and released by hypothalamus

135
Q

CRH

A

corticotropin releasing hormone
-causes release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH
stimulate anterior pituitary and released by hypothalamus

136
Q

GRH

A

growth hormone releasing hormone
-causes release of growth hormone
stimulate anterior pituitary and released by hypothalamus

137
Q

Tropic hormones

A 
produced by anterior pituitary 
FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
138
Q

follicle stimulating hormones-FSH

A

follicle stimulating hormones
-follicle growth (females)
sperm maturation (males) in the gonads

139
Q

Luteinizing hormone

A

luteinizing hormone
-stimulates ovulation, corpus luteum formation (females

Testosterone production in malles in the gonads

140
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone-ACTH

A

stimulates release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal gland to fight stress

141
Q

Thyroid stimulating hormone TSH

A

stimulates T3 qnd T4 production by the thyroid gland to increase metabolism

142
Q

Direct hormones

A

released from anterior pituitary
target organs directly for effects
Prolactin
Growth Hormone

143
Q

Prolactin

A

stimulates mammary gland development and increase milk production after child birth

144
Q

Growth Hormone

A

Somatotropin

-stimluates body cells to grow and divide

145
Q

What does the Pineal Gland produce? function?

A

Melatonin

-regulates circadian rhythm

146
Q

Triiodothyronine (T3)

A

produced by thyroid glands
released in response to TSH
-increases metabolism in the body
-negative feedback effect on TSH secretion

147
Q

Thyroxine (T4)

A

produced by thyroid glands
released in response to TSH
-increases metabolism in the body
-negative feedback effect on TSH secretion

HAs one more iodine and get converted into T3 upon cell uptake
-less potent than t3 but more stable in blood

148
Q

Hypothyroidism

A

under secretion of T3 and T4

-reduced levels metabolism in the body

149
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

Oversecretion of the T3 and T4

-increased levels of metabolism in the body

150
Q

Alpha Cells

A

secrete glucagon

151
Q

Beta cells

A

secrete insulin

152
Q

Delta cells

A

secrete somatostatin

-inhibits growth hormone, and secretion of glucagon and insulin

153
Q

Positive feedback of hormone

A

the change causes the amplification of itself

-exponential growth

154
Q

Negative feedback of hormone

A

change causes inhibition of itself

-Promoting stablityy

155
Q

Kidneys consist of

A

cortex outer
medulla
pelvis

156
Q

where does filtration occur?

A

renal corpuscle which consist of the glomerulus and Bowmans capsule

157
Q

What is a nephron?

-four main processes that occur in the nephron?

A

filtration

  • reabsorption
  • secretion
  • excretion
158
Q

Angiotensin II effects onbody

A

stimulates additional aldosterone release

  • Na+ reabsorption
  • potent vasoconstrictor
  • makes individual thirst
159
Q

Layers of the skin

A

Epidermis (outermost)
Dermis
hypodermis

160
Q

3 germ layers

A 
Ectooderm(outer layer)
-CNS (brain and spinal cord) and PNS
Mesoderm
-Muscles
Endooderm (inner layer)
- PLTT (pancreas, liver, thyroid, and parathyroid, thymus)
161
Q

Stem cells

A

undifferentiated cells with potential to become many types of cells (potency)

162
Q

Totipotent (stem cell)

A

stem cells can become any cell

zygote, blastomeres

163
Q

Pluripotent

A

stem cells can become any of the 3 germ layers

164
Q

Multipotent

A

Stem cells can only differentiate to a few types of a specific tissue type (hematopoietic stem cell which goes to many blood cells)

165
Q

Homologous structures

A

may or may not perform say function
-but have common ancestor

Forearm of bird and human Ex:

166
Q

Analogous structures

A

same function

-do not have a common ancestor

167
Q

Vestigial structures

A

serve no purpose

-homologous to functional structures in other organisms

168
Q

Natural Selection Theory

A

Darwin

  • the gradual, non-random process where allele frequency change as result of environmental interaction
  • survival of the fittest occurs as people with greater fitness have greatest success
  • LEADS TO the evolution of the population not individuals
169
Q

Stabilizing selection

A

mainstream/average is favored

-Standard Bell curve

170
Q

Directional selection

A

one extreme is favored

171
Q

Disruptive selection

A

rare traits favored

-mainstream/average is not

172
Q

Hardy-weinberg equilibrium

-formula and conditions

A

p+q=1
p=Frequency of dominant allele
q=frequency of recessive allele

p2=2pq+ q2=1
p2=frequency of homozygous domanant
2pq=frequency of heterozygous Gg
q2=frequency of homozygous recessive

Condtions:
Large population-minimizes genetic drift
-Random mating
-no mutation
-no natural selection
-no migration (gene flow)-0
173
Q

Genetic drift

A

allele frequencies change by chance

-larger effects on small populations

174
Q

Bottleneck effect

A

smaller gene pool some alleles may be lost

disaster killing majority of population

175
Q

Founder effect

A

some individuals migrate away from the population

176
Q

Habitat Isolation

A

occupying different habitats

-prevents fertilization from occurring between species

177
Q

Temporal Isolation

A

Reproducing at different time/seasons

-prevents fertilization from occurring between species

178
Q

Behavioral isolation

A

Different courtship rituals

-prevents fertilization from occurring between species

179
Q

Mechanical isolation

A

male and female genetalia are not compatible

-prevents fertilization from occurring between species

180
Q

Gamete isolation

A

gametes do not recognize/fertilize each other

-prevents fertilization from occurring between species

181
Q

Divergent evolution

A

diverge from common ancestor

182
Q

Convergent evolution (homoplasy)

A

unrelated species adapt to similar environments becoming more alike

183
Q

Parallel evolution

A

diverge from common ancestor but undergo similar changes

184
Q

coevolution

A

two species impart selelctive pressure on each other

185
Q

intraspecific competition

A

occurs between members of the same species

186
Q

Expoloitation competition

A

is indirect

-occurs when resources are depleted

187
Q

Apparent competition

A

when one predator preys on two specieis

188
Q

Mutualism

A

Both organisms benefit

189
Q

Commensalism

A

one organism benefits and the other is unaffected

190
Q

Parasitism

A

one organism benefits at the others expense

191
Q

Herbivore

A

Plant eater

192
Q

Carnivore

A

Meat eater

193
Q

Omnivore

A

plant and meat eater

194
Q

IgG

A

Antibody

  • most abundant antibody in circulation
  • only antibody that can cross the placenta to give the fetus PASSIVE Immunity
195
Q

Operant Conditioning

A

learning to associate a behavior with a reward (increases behavior) or punishment (decreases behavior)

196
Q

Positive punishment

A

add something bad to decrease behavior

197
Q

Negative punishment

A

take away something good to decrease behavior

198
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

add something good to increase behavior

199
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

take away something bad to increase a behavior

200
Q

Agnostic behaviors

A

Competing for food, territory, or mates

THREATs aggression and submission

FUCK (3 decks)

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