HEENT 02: Throat, Nose, Sinus, Middle Ear Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the structure of the nose and nasal cavity.

A
  • 3 conchae (turbinates) or curved bone shelves to slow air flow
  • covered with mucosal epithelium, separated by meatuses (spaces)
  • warms and humidifies air entering body
  • nose hairs filter out large particles (> 30 mm)
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2
Q

Describe the structure of nasal mucosa layer.

A
  • attached to periosteum (bone) or perichondrium (cartilage) by highly vascularized connective tissue
  • blood supply from ethmoidal (internal carotid), sphenopalatine, greater palatine, labial and nasal arteries (external carotid)
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3
Q

Describe the parasympathetic mucosal innervation.

A
  • from pterygopalatine ganglion
  • stimulation causes non-cholinergic vasodilation, increases mucus production
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4
Q

Describe the sympathetic mucosal innervation.

A
  • from superior cervical ganglion
  • stimulation causes constriction of mucosal vessels (tone)
  • nasal congestion occurs upon withdrawal of sympathetic input
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5
Q

Describe the sensory innervation of the nasal mucosa.

A
  • nasopalatine (V2) and nasociliary (V1) branches of trigeminal nerve
  • mediate pain, pruritis, response to inhaled irritants
  • olfactory nerve innervates for sense of smell
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6
Q

What are the 3 types of cells of the ciliary epithelium?

A
  • ciliated columnar epithelial cells
  • goblet cells
  • basal cells
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7
Q

What do ciliated columnar epithelial cells do?

A

cilia move in mucous blanket to promote removal of particulate matter to nasopharynx where it is swallowed

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8
Q

What do goblet cells do?

A

secrete glycoproteins (mucin)

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9
Q

What do basal cells do?

A

attach mucous epithelium submucosal tissues

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10
Q

What is mucous composed of?

A
  • 95% water
  • glycoproteins, electrolytes, enzymes, anti-enzymes, antioxidants, antibacterial agents, lipids, and cellular mediators derived from submucosal glands and plasma extravasation (antibodies, etc.)
  • pH 5.5-6.5
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11
Q

What is the submucosal (sero-mucous) gland?

A
  • mucous excretion is increased by activation of parasympathetic nervous system
  • M2 and M3 receptors
  • sensory nerve endings in epithelium detect inhaled irritants
  • neurogenic release of substance P and neurokinin A neuropeptides can increase mucous production through activation of NK1 receptor (also vasodilatory)
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12
Q

What do M2 receptors do?

A

mediate increased mucous production

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13
Q

What do M3 receptors do?

A

inhibit mucous production (by inhibition of acetylcholine release)

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14
Q

What type of receptors do olfactory neurons contain?

A

one type of GPCR – activated by particular odorant

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15
Q

What is allergic rhinitis?

A

inflammation of nasal mucosa

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16
Q

What are the symptoms of allergic rhinitis?

A

itching, sneezing, nasal discharge, nasal blockage

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17
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of allergic rhinitis.

A
  • IgE-mediated through environmental factors in genetically predisposed individuals
  • allergens reacting with IgE on surface of nasal mucosal mast cells and basophils cause degranulation and release of histamine and inflammatory mediators
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18
Q

What does histamine do in allergic rhinitis?

A

acts on nasal mucosa to cause nasal blockage, sneezing, pruritis, and rhinorrhea

  • H1 receptor activation mediates allergen-induced symptoms
  • H3 receptor activation contributes to nasal stuffiness by inhibition of release of noradrenaline by sympathetic efferent fibers
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19
Q

What is pruritus and sneezing (reflex) mediated by?

A

activation of trigeminal nerves

20
Q

What is rhinorrhea due to?

A

increased vascular permeability (plasma exudate) and increased glandular secretions (containing lactoferrin and lysozymes) mediated by increased parasympathetic tone

21
Q

How does inflammation affect nasal passages?

A

slows mucuciliary clearance, increases blood flow and vascular permeability, and decreases diameter of nasal passages

22
Q

Describe the structure of paransal sinuses.

A
  • paired, air filled, cavities near nasal cavity
  • lined with ciliated, pseudostratified columnar epithelium that is continuous with nose
  • frontal, maxillary, and anterior ethmoid sinuses drain to middle meatus
  • posterior ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses drain to superior meatus
23
Q

What do the paransal sinuses do? (3)

A
  • produce mucous
  • lighten skull
  • aid in sound transmission
24
Q

What is sinusitis (rhinosinusitis)?

A

inflammation of mucosal epithelium of nose and sinuses

25
Q

What is acute rhinosinusitis?

A

< 4 weeks

  • viral: rhinovirus (more common)
  • bacterial: S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis (more rare)
  • nasal obstruction and discharge, changes in smell, facial pain/pressure, pain worsens with bending and can radiate to teeth
  • results in edema, obstruction, and decreased mucociliary activity
26
Q

What is chronic rhinosinusitis?

A

> 12 weeks

  • differentiated by presence of nasal polyps – outgrowths of edematous inflammatory tissue that have grown into middle meatus
  • cough and fatigue common
  • moderate to severe pain is not common
27
Q

Describe the structure of the nasopharynx.

A
  • connects nasal passage to larynx
  • lined with mucosal epithelium
  • drains sinuses, lymph, and auditory tubes
  • pharyngeal tonsil: mucosal epithelium has M cells that transmit antigens to lymphoid
  • soft palate: closes nasal passage during swallowing
28
Q

Describe the structure of the oropharynx.

A

connects mouth to esophagus

29
Q

Describe the structure of the nasopharynx.

A
  • epiglottis closes larynx during swallowing to prevent aspiration
  • common passageway for food and air
30
Q

What is pharyngitis?

A

inflammation of the pharynx (sore throat)

  • often secondary to infection – rhinovirus, streptococcus, candida
  • pharyngeal erythema and swelling, tonsillar exudate, edematous uvula
31
Q

What pathogens cause pharyngitis?

A
  • children (5-15): Streptococcus pyogenes
  • group A hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis
    pharyngeal erythema and swelling, tonsillar exudate, edematous uvula
    untreated: lasts 10 days, and infectious for 7 days
32
Q

What happens if pharyngitis is not treated?

A

lasts 10 days, and infectious for 7 days

33
Q

Describe the structure and function of the external ear (auricle or pinna).

A
  • lies at outer end of short tube called external acoustic meatus
  • collects sound waves and funnels them through to external acoustic meatus to tympanic membrane
34
Q

Describe the structure and function of the tympanic membrane (eardrum).

A
  • circular structure at internal end of external acoustic meatus
  • energy of sound wave is converted into vibration of tympanic membrane
35
Q

What is the function of the middle ear?

A

transmit and amplify vibrations from tympanic membrane to inner ear

36
Q

What are the 3 ossicles of the middle ear?

A
  • malleus: attached to internal surface of tympanic membrane
  • incus: connects malleus with stapes
  • stapes: attaches to vestibular (oval or cochlear) window, stapedius muscle prevents excess movement of stapes and controls amplitude of sound waves from external environment to middle ea
37
Q

Describe the connection between the middle ear and auditory tube.

A
  • middle ear is filled with air
  • auditory tube is normally closed – opens during yawning or swallowing to allow equalization of pressure in middle ear (may hear soft pop sound at high altitude)
38
Q

Why is acute otitis media common in children?

A

short auditory (eustachian) tube

  • increases risk of infected secretions reaching middle ear
  • daycare is risk factor
39
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute otitis media?

A
  • results in bulging of tympanic membrane
  • may be associated with localized pain, headache, fever, nausea, vomiting
40
Q

What pathogens cause acute otitis media?

A

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M catarrhalis

  • occurs frequently after viral upper respiratory infection
41
Q

What is mastoiditis?

A

spread of acute otitis media infection to mastoid bone

  • can occur without AOM treatment
42
Q

What are the 2 functional organs of the inner ear (vestibule)?

A
  • cochlea: coiled tube divided into 3 chambers that transduces sound for hearing
  • vestibular apparatus: semicircular canals (sense rotation), otolith organs (sense gravity and linear movement)
43
Q

What detects sound and motion in the inner ear?

A

hair cells

44
Q

What is drug-induced ototoxicity?

A

damaging effect of medication on auditory or vestibular organs resulting in hearing loss and/or balance problems

45
Q

What drugs can induce ototoxicity?

A

aminoglycosides – tobramycin, gentamicin

  • some agents affect vestibular apparatus and some affect cochlea
  • risk increases with total drug exposure
46
Q

What is vestibulotoxicity?

A

typically manifests with ataxia, dysequilibrium and oscillopsia (visual blurring with head movement)

  • can be detected by Dynamic Illegible E test:
47
Q

What is chocleotoxicity?

A
  • may be detected by loss of response to high frequency sound
  • aminoglycosides are irreversible ototoxins that cause hair cell dysfunction and death – possibly by promoting oxygen radical formation
  • affect outer hair cells of cochlea more than inner hair cells
  • innermost hair cells or apex of vestibular organs are affected before peripheral hair cells